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PD/December/2010/968
To Our Readers
Dear Readers,
WHERE EXCELLENCE GUIDES THE SUCCESS
Year 5
Issue 54
December 2010
EDITOR Mahendra Jain
REGISTERED OFFICE 2/11-A, Swadeshi Bima Nagar Agra–282 002 ADMINISTRATIVE AND EDITORIAL OFFICE 1, State Bank Colony Opp. Van Chetna Kendra Agra-Mathura Bye pass, Agra–282 005 Tel. : 2531101, 2530966, 4053333 Fax : (0562) 4031570, 4053330 Website : www.pdgroup.in E-mail : Editorial : [email protected] Customer Care : [email protected] BRANCH OFFICE Delhi 4845, Ansari Road Daryaganj, New-Delhi–2 Tel. : 23251844, 23251866 Hyderabad 1-8-1/B, R. R. Complex (Near Sundaraiah Park, Adjacent to Manasa Enclave Gate), Bagh Lingampally, Hyderabad-44 Tel. : 66753330
It is with a great sense of pleasure and satisfaction that we are presenting to you the December issue of your favourite magazine ‘Pratiyogita Darpan’. As usual this issue of the magazine also contains useful examination-oriented reading material. If you read it intelligently and with proper understanding, it will certainly go a long way in enhancing your knowledge to face any competitive examination in future. As it is traditional with us, we always try to know and understand the demands of our readers, their suggestions and changes in the pattern of competitive examinations. We try to include them as far as possible. It makes the magazine useful and to their liking. It is really encouraging for us that our readers have unanimously endorsed the utility of the magazine, which, in their considered opinion, has no parallel in its field. A number of core articles on important world events contributed by reputed authors are given in this issue. Some of the representative articles are : IBSA—An Emerging Forum for South-South Cooperation, Changing Face of Indian Women, United States and Iran : Relations of Unease, etc. The most important section of the Magazine contains a number of question papers selected from various competitive examinations. These are fully solved with relevant hints and clear-cut explanations. All efforts are made to give their error-free solutions. It is an additional speciality of the magazine. An intelligent study and practice of these papers will be immensely useful in enhancing the knowledge of the readers and their ability in solving objective questions in any future examination. We advise our readers to concentrate on these papers and get benefited in future. We have been frequently reminding you to know the real secret of success. We again assert that it lies in you, in your enthusiasm, hardwork, determination, self-confidence and above all in your will to succeed. The substance is that it is you and you alone who can do it for being successful and shape your future. An additional requisite for your success is proper guidance. This responsibility of giving you the best guidance and reading material has been taken up by Pratiyogita Darpan which is all the time standing by you for all that you require for your brilliant success. Read Pratiyogita Darpan regularly and intelligently. It gives you the power to master your career and shape your destiny. With best wishes for your brilliant success and bright future. Sincerely yours, MAHENDRA JAIN (Editor)
All rights reserved. No part of this Magazine may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any form by any means, Electronic, Mechanical, Photocopying, Recording or otherwise, without the prior written permission of the publisher. While every effort has been made to ensure accuracy of the information published in this edition, neither publisher nor any of its employees accept any responsibility for any error or omission. Articles that cannot be used are returned to the authors if accompanied by a self addressed and sufficiently stamped envelope. But no responsibility is taken for any loss or delay in returning the material. Pratiyogita Darpan assumes no responsibility for statements and opinions advanced by the authors nor for any claims made in the advertisements published in the Magazine.
PD/December/2010/970
Year 5 Issue 54 December 2010
Career Article Regulars
970 To our Readers 972 Editorial 1048 SSB : For Three Wings of the Armed Forces What ? How ? and Why ?
Self-Motivations Article
1053 A Talisman for Civil Services’ Aspirants
News and Events
973 985 992 994 Nation this Month World this Month Regional News National and International Updates
International Relations Article
1055 United States and Iran : Relations of Unease
Environmental Article
1058 Environment and Sustainable Development
Vividha
1061 Compendium
Current Affairs
1004 Economic Scenario 1013 Memorable Points
Countries of the World : At a Glance
1064 Italy
Career News
1016 Employment and Career News 1019 Forthcoming Competitive Examinations
Annual Report 2009-10
1066 Progress in Animal Husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries : In a Nutshell
Civil Services Examination
1020 Learn to Survive in New CSAT Culture
Profile : International Organisation
1069 Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW) 1071 Current Questionnaire 1073 Trade and Industry
World Panorama
IBSA : An Emerging Forum for SouthSouth Cooperation 1026 (ii) MDG Review Summit 2010 : Hope and Despair 1023 (i)
Personality Development
1030 Communication is to Personality what Light is to Beauty
Question Papers Subjective Paper
1075 M.P. PSC (Mains) Exam., 2008 : General Studies
Optional Papers
1082 U.P. GIC Lecturer Screening Exam., 2009 : Civics (Political Science) and General Studies 1091 M.P. PSC (Pre.) Exam., 2009 : Economics 1099 UGC-NET/JRF Exam., 2007 : Management
Inspiring Youth : Interviews
1031 Ashique Karattil Topper—Indian Economic Service 2009 (3rd Rank) 1033 Anurag Chaudhary Topper—Civil Services 2009 (34th Rank) 1036 Rahul Dwivedi Topper—Civil Services 2009 (40th Rank)
Other Papers
1102 Syndicate Bank P.O. Exam., 2010 : General Awareness 1106 National Defence Academy Exam., 2010 : General Studies 1116 U.P. PCS Lower Subordinate Services (Pre.) Exam., 2008 : General Studies 1121 Oriental Insurance Company AAO Exam., 2010 : Reasoning Ability and General Awareness 1128 Bank of Baroda P.O. Exam., 2010 : Quantitative Aptitude
Articles Civil Services Examination
1039 Aptitude and Ethical Decision-Making
Economic and Social Development
1042 United Nations Summit on Millennium Development Goals
Sociological Articles
1045 Changing Face of Indian Women : From Vedic Period to Modern Age 1133 1135 1137 1138
Your Pages
Essay Contest Debate Contest Results Sports World
Legal Article
1047 Section 497 IPC Must be Amended
PD/December/2010/971
When talking about an individual’s responsibility, we often talk about high philosophy, or religion or mysticism etc. We seldom think about the day-to-day human problems. Most people have become slaves of economic and monetary considerations. They would go to any length to meet and fulfil these considerations. As such they lack freedom to think about their future life, let aside their concern about the people who live in the neighbourhood. In short, most of us do not think about our responsibility and power to act for the welfare of the society at large. Let our young men and women go through their books to see what they teach them about their social responsibility. Universe is the manifestation of Karmic forces of all its sentient beings. The Karmic forces which are favourable to the laws of nature generate forms which are in tune with the life process and a living universe creates a non-living universe in tune with it. Obviously our first responsibility is to work in tune with the life process, so that our Karmic force may create forms that are in tune with the universe. This would be our contribution towards universal harmony. If we examine carefully the nature of Karmic forces we create, we will see that the same are not in tune with the life process or the laws of nature. We are often creating unfavourable forces through anger, avarice, jealously, hatred etc. The result is constant conflict at all levels–with our ownself, with society and with all living beings as well as with non-living beings. This has led to the evils like riots, wars, environmental pollution and a number of fatal diseases and what not ? It is, therefore, our responsi-
bility number two, that we do not add to the black or evil forces by our actions which are against the laws of nature and ethical behaviour. We should act according to what we preach or expect from others to do. This is the acid test to know whether our actions are creating favourable Karmic forces, or unfavourable Karmic forces. Our inner voice will take no time to give the answer, regarding the type of forces we are creating on a particular time or occasion. This is our duty number three. This is an age of materialism and almost all of us are led by economic and monetary considerations. We know that the miseries, fear, terror etc. are the result of collective black forces. This is not easy to change or improve. Goodness is a rare commodity, which everyone wants others to spend. It is not easy to change this way of thinking, nor is it advisable to want for the collective transformation. Therefore, our fourth duty is to be more attentive to our own approach, rather than a collective one in order to regenerate ourselves. If individuals integrate, then collective integration or regeneration may follow as a corollary. Suppose a flood carries away some persons, myself included, what shall I do ? Shall I wait for others to get to the shore or try to reverse the current ? Surely, none of the two. Since, I have the will and ability to swim, so I shall swim towards the shore. If persons at the individual level try to come out of the current of the evil forces things are bound to improve. In this way, each one of you, my young readers, can attune himself or herself with the
nature and also put the universe in tune with him/herself. This may be our fifth universal responsibility. Peep in your hearts if you are prepared to discharge this responsibility. This would go a long way in solving the problem of cultural and religious intolerance, which gives rise to conflict, division, inhuman conduct, and now on the top of them all heinous murders and terrorism in the name of Jehad—the religious war and the worst form of it is terrorism which seems to have engulfed the whole world. Everyone is anxious to give it a fight to the finish. The sixth responsibility of our young men and women is to shed off prejudices which give rise to intolerance, division and cut-throat competition. The least you can do in this regard is to take the examination with your full preparation and not to think to take to unfair means or try for a short cut success. To put in short, to help the society, of course, without doing any harm to yourselves, our young men and women may do the things to start with viz., (i) be aware of the forces creating violence and terrorism and (ii) to remain disassociated from such deeds as mean harm to others and thereby lead to disharmony. For this you will have to develop a mind which is free to think for itself and denies falsehood and ways of cutthroat competition. By doing so, you will be doing your duty to the universe, in which you, too, are included. This is the duty of duties. This would make you an integrated and regenerated person. Bharat needs such young men and women. P.Darpan
PD/December/2010/972
“Tact is the ability to describe others as they see themselves.”
India, Germany Agree to take Business Partnership Forward
India and Germany have taken a new step forward to boost trade and investments between the two countries. Both the countries on October 10, 2010 in Germany agreed on the establishment of a hotline between the commerce and industry ministry in India and the federal ministry of economics and technology in Germany to facilitate resolution of any business-related visa issues that may arise from time to Anand Sharma time.
Forging Ahead
? Countries agree to establish hotline to facilitate resolution of any business-related visa issues. ? Also agreed on cooperating in multilateral trade for combating protectionist tendencies.
Economic Relations (ICRIER), and the Gokhle Institute of Economic and Politics in Pune. Sharma delivered a special address as part of the Konrad Adenauer Lecture Series on “An Emerging India : Expanding Economic Frontiers” at Humboldt University. “Indian CEOs also held B2B meetings with their German counterparts. Around 150 German businessmen attended these meetings. We’re happy with the discussions and hopeful that it would translate into big business,” Ficci member and Hindustan Tin Works managing director Sanjay Bhatia said. Meanwhile, Sharma said India was likely to sign a comprehensive economic partnership agreement with Malaysia and Japan soon. This is likely to be signed when Prime Minister Manmohan Singh visits these countries for bilateral talks.
Chinese Constructing Rail Link Upto Arunachal Pradesh
The Chinese fling surprises in international politics in a manner that the world feels aghast. They are inured to a way of life that is clouded by clandestine and surreptitious activities defying proper comprehension. The latest Chinese move vis-avis India is its design of constructing rail link upto Arunachal Pradesh. We here quote a press report detailing the same : China recently started work on extending its rail link in Lhasa to its border with Nepal, but for India it might just be a red herring. In a development, which has alarmed officials, Beijing is simultaneously working on bringing its rail link right up to Nyangtri—located on the border with Arunachal Pradesh and an area that China claims as its own.
The two sides also agreed on co-operating in multilateral trade for combating protectionist tendencies that have emerged recently. This was the outcome of the three-day visit of commerce and industry ministry Anand Sharma to Germany early in the second week of October. In Berlin, Mr. Sharma held a bilateral meeting with German federal minister of economics and technologies Rainer Bruderle, “We discussed about the hotline to resolve visa issues. We also shared the concern on the trend of protectionism,” Mr. Sharma said. Sharma also visited Dusseldorf and Berlin heading a delegation of CEOs under the banner of FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry) emphasized on the strategic partnership in innovation between India and Germany. Discussions focussed on taking IndoGerman collaboration forward in key areas such as knowledge sectors like ICT, energy including renewable energy, cutting edge technology including environmental and green technology, life sciences and biotechnology, nano-technologies, small city and integrated townships, besides further enhancement of ongoing cooperation in infrastructure, manufacturing and engineering. Sharma suggested further strengthening of institutional linkages especially between economic research and policy institutes in India and their German counterparts. Such linkages could be established between institutes such as German Institute of Economic Research in Berlin, the Ifo Institute of Economic Research in Munich, Kiel Institute for World Economy and the Halle Institute of Economic Research Partners and, on the Indian side, the National Council of Applied Economic Research (NCAER), Indian Council for Research on International
PD/December/2010/973
“Whatever you are, be a good one.”
Nyangtri is also the site where the Brahmaputra is proposed to be diverted northwards by the Chinese. The Chinese claim that the Nyangtri or Nyingchi prefecture includes some parts of Arunachal Pradesh. China proposes to build the largest dam in the world at this spot. While the line to Xigaze near Tibet's border with Nepal will extend south-west from Lhasa, the line to Nyangtri will extend towards Arunachal in the southeast. China proposes to build as many as six big dams in the region on the Brahmaputra in addition to a dozen or so it has already constructed. “There is no real evidence till now that Brahmaputra waters have been diverted northwards by China, but the massive infrastructure build up at Nyangtri, including this rail link which they are working on, near the Great Bend doesn't inspire confidence,” said an Indian government official. The Great Bend is the place, where the Brahmaputra takes a decisive turn and flows towards India. Strategic affairs expert Brahma Chellaney describes the rail links to Nyangtri as a significant new development. “The building of the railway to this area is significant because of two reasons : China has unveiled plans to construct the world's largest dam there which will be more than twice as big as the Three Gorges Dam (now the world's largest), and also because it will strengthen China's rapid military deployment capability in the eastern (Arunachal) sector,” said Chellaney, adding that China is in a position to rapidly move forces and equipment and strike at India whenever it wants. China's focus on expanding its railway south of Lhasa is alarming also because of reports that for the first time earlier this year ‘combat readiness material’ meant for the Chinese air force was transported to the region through the Tibet rail link. The PLA Daily recently reported that China conducted its first major parachute exercise in Tibet to demonstrate its capability to rapidly send troops on the world's highest plateau.
offered maintenance and repair facilities for Indian warship at Vietnamese ports. This would extend an advantage to the Indian Navy that has been scaling up operations in the region, especially in South China Sea where several patrols have been carried out in the past few years. Vietnam is strategically located in the region and has several sea ports, including Hai Phong—located near the Chinese Hainan island—that could be of great interest to India. Hai Phong is possibly the nearest port made available for the Indian Navy to the Hainan island where the biggest Chinese naval base in the region is located. China has constructed a major naval base that includes an underground facility that can hide the movement of submarines from spy satellites. The military facility, the nearest Chinese naval base to India, is located barely 1,200 nautical miles from the strategic Mallaca strait and provides access to the Indian Ocean—a region that New Delhi considers its personal security responsibility. In 2008, China deployed its new Jin. class nuclear submarine, which is armed with 12 nuclear tipped missiles, to Hainan. Vietnam's offer came even as Antony announced that India would host a joint jungle and mountain warfare exercise with the country next year and New Delhi would help upgrade capabilities of the Vietnamese armed forces. After meeting with the top Vietnamese leadership including Gen. Phung Quang Thanh, Prime Minister Nguyen Tan Dung and the President Nguyen Minh Triet in Hanoi on October 14, Antony announced that India would help enhance the capabilities of the Vietnamese forces in general and would focus on the Navy in particular. It may be recalled that India is already supplying spare parts for the Petya-class of light frigates that are operated by the Vietnamese Navy. India has already decommissioned 11 of the Russian origin warships. After the meeting of October 13, the Indian Navy will increase its involvement to other types of warships, possibly including maintenance of the new Kilo-class submarine that Vietnam has ordered from Russia. After the meeting, the Indian Defence Minister said that India will extend support to Vietnam to enhance and upgrade the capabilities of its armed forces in general and the Navy in particular and emphasized that India will help Vietnam in its capacity building for repair and maintenance of its platforms.
New Dimensions of India, Vietnam Defence Cooperation
[Vietnam offers Maintenance Services for Indian Warships]
Defence cooperation between India and Vietnam charted out a new course when in a significant gesture, Vietnam offered, on October 13, 2010, repair and maintenance facilities for Indian warships at its ports, taking bilateral relations to a new high. After a Defence Minister AK Antony with his meeting with Indian Vietnamese counterpart Gen Phung Defence Minister Quang Thanh in Hanoi on October 13, AK Antony in 2010. Hanoi, Vietnamese Defence Minister Gen. Phung Quang Thanh welcomed more port calls by the Indian Navy and
Other Dimensions
There are other dimensions to defence cooperation between the two countries. Besides the joint training in mountain and jungle warfare in India next year, the Indian Army will also impart Information Technology (IT) and English Training to Vietnamese Army personnel. Also, the two sides will work together towards developing cooperation among defence institutes and establishing links for sharing experience and knowledge. The Indian Defence Minister also stated that India will also share its vast experience in UN Peace Keeping operating with Vietnamese forces.
PD/December/2010/974
“You cannot escape the responsibility of tomorrow by evading it today.”
Enforcement Directorate (ED) to Disclose Black Money in Swiss Banks
In a major development towards bringing transparency in the probe into black money stashed in swiss banks, the Central Information Commissioner (CIC) has directed the ED to make public an estimate of the total amount of such money involved in its investigation. Rejecting the contention of the directorate that it has been exempted from making disclosures under the RTI Act, the commission has held all such matters now investigated by ED come within the definition of allegations of corruption and, hence, should be disclosed. “The enforcement directorate can let the country know as to how much is the total sum of such money they are dealing with in their current investigations. This figure can be arrived at through the simple contrivance of aggregating the sums of money in all such investigations currently underway,” the commission held. The bench, however, exempted the directorate from disclosing the nature of such investigations and names of parties involved.
seat next year. India will have two years to show that it has the right stuff to be a permanent member—though Security Council reform remains a distant and arguably receding prospect for pretty long time to come, thanks to the global economic recession and an absence of coherent leadership at the global level.
India, Scotland Sign Four MoUs on Education
In a bid to strengthen educational links between the two countries, India and Scotland on October 12, 2010 signed four MoUs in various fields that will also promote student and faculty exchange and encourage joint degree development. The MoUs were signed by directors of institutes from the two countries in the presence of HRD Minister Kapil Sibal and Scotland's First Minister Alex Salmond in New Delhi. Terming the signing of the MoUs as ‘truly historic’, Sibal said that the agreements will open up further opportunities for institutes of both countries and help them find solutions for problems like global warming. He said there was a need to set up a regulatory authority soon to encourage manufacture of standard medical equipments in the country. Sibal said that a legislation was already under process and hoped that it would be passed soon. “We intend to empower our students by providing access to the finest university education the world has on offer. And in Scotland, with its higher learning tradition that goes back to the Renaissance, we have found a worthy partner,” Sibal said.
India Elected to Security Council as Non-Permanent Member
After 19 years, India was elected on October 12, 2010 to the United Nations Security Council as a non permanent member. India secured the backing of 187 of the 191 member states in the General Assembly. One member abstained from the vote. The position will help India push more aggressively for the Security Council reforms. A founding member of the U.N. India has been on the Security Council six times earlier, but not since 1992. In 1996, India lost to Japan by 100 votes. This time, however, it has taken over the Asia seat from Japan. It was the sole candidate from the region, with Kazakhstan having pulled out earlier this year. In the run-up to the vote, India's External Affairs Minister S.M. Krishna, who was in New York for more than a week in September itself met leaders of 56 countries on the margins of the General Assembly's annual session. In February, India's candidature was endorsed by the Asian group, but it still had to muster the support of 128 countries, two-thirds of the 192-member General Assembly. The other ‘clean slate’ candidates included South Africa that got the Africa seat, replacing Uganda with the backing of 182 members, and Colombia, which secured the seat for the group of Latin American and Caribbean states, replacing Mexico.
Bill on Judicial Accountability Approved
The Union Cabinet on October 5, 2010 approved a bill providing for a mechanism to deal with complaints against judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court.
? ? ? ? The Bill will mandate judges to declare assets and liabilities. Oversight committee to be headed by a retired Chief Justice of India. Public can lodge complaints against judges with a national oversight committee. The Bill will also require the judges not to have close association with any member of the bar.
Comment
In the context of India winning non-permanent seat in the Security Council The Hindustan Times in an editorial says that India must use its UN Security Council term to show that it can take tough decisions. The real test for India will be to see how it votes and how it influences the nature of the UN's debate when it takes its
The Judicial Standards and Accountability Bill sets judicial standards and makes judges accountable for their lapses. It will also mandate the judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court to declare their assets and liabilities, including those of their spouses and dependents. The Bill to replace the Judges Inquiry Act retains its basic features, contamplates the setting up of a national oversight committee with which the public can lodge complaints against erring judges, including the Chief Justice of India and the Chief Justices of the High Courts.
PD/December/2010/976
“Tis better to be silent and be thought a fool, than to speak and remove all doubt.”
At present, there is no legal mechanism for dealing with complaints against judges who are governed by ‘Restatement of Values of Judicial Life,’ adopted by the judiciary as a code of conduct without any statutory sanction. The five member committee will be headed by a retired Chief Justice of India, appointed by the President, and have a serving judge of the Supreme Court and a serving judge of a High Court, both nominated by the Chief Justice of India; the Attorney-General; and an eminent person nominated by the President. This marks a change from the earlier proposal in which the committee was to be headed by the Vice-President and to have the Chief Justice of India, a High Court Judge and two distinguished jurists not involved in regular practice of law.
Indian Navy Gets Fast Attack Craft to Secure Coast
As part of measures underway to strengthen the country's coastal security after the 26/11 terror strikes, the Indian Navy on October 14, 2010 inducted its latest fast-attack craft (FAC) at the Southern Naval Command in Kochi. The FAC, INS Kalpeni, propelled by three powerful waterjets, can reach speeds in excess of 35 knots. It is the seventh of the 1 0 FACs, each of which has a crew of three officers and 38 sailors, being built at Kolkata-based Garden Reach ship- 26/11 Effect : INS Kalpeni at the yard. INS Kalpeni, Southern Naval Command in Kochi. an improved version of Bangaram-class FAC, has been conceived, designed and built indigenously. The FAC's main armament is the 30mm CRN 91 gun, apart from also being equipped with 11 machine guns and shoulder launched IGLA surface to air missiles to neutralize aerial threats. The government also recently inked the first contract to acquire 15 fast-interception craft (FICs) or patrol boats for the new Sagar Prahari Bal (SPB) being raised by Navy in the 26/11 aftermath. The 15 boats, which can effectively patrol almost up to 200 nautical miles, was signed with French shipyard Chantier Naval Couach. These boats will be in addition to the 80 FICs approved at a cost of over Rs. 320 crore for SPB, the creation of which was one of the measures announced after 26/11, which will be ordered in the coming months. With 1,000 well-armed personnel, the specialized SPB will be tasked with protection of naval and other assets, bases and harbours on both west and east coasts. But it will take some time to take concrete shape. For one, the training of the first batch of 200 SPB personnel began only last January. For another, deliveries of the 80 FICs are likely to begin only by 2012-2013 at the earliest. Similarly, only Phase-I of the critical coastal surveillance network will be up and running by 2011 under a Rs. 350 crore project. This will include 46 stations, with coastal radars, cameras, AIS (automatic identification systems) and other sensors mounted atop old lighthouses to dynamically locate and track vessels.
Scrutiny Panels
On receiving a complaint, the committee will forward it to a system of scrutiny panels. In the case of a complaint against a Supreme Court Judge, the scrutiny panel will consist of a former Chief Justice of India and two sitting Supreme Court judges, and in the case of a complaint against a High Court Judges, the panel will have a former Chief Justice of the High Court and two of its sitting judges. The members of the Supreme Court panel will be nominated by the Chief Justice of India, and that of the High Court panels by the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned. The scrutiny panels will have the powers of a civil court. For instance, they can call for witnesses and evidences. They will be required to give their report within three months to the oversight committee. In the case of a complaint against a Chief Justice, the oversight committee itself will conduct the scrutiny. On receiving the report from the scrutiny panels, the oversight committee will set up a committee to further investigate the case. Like the security panels, the investigation committee will have the powers of a civil court; it will have power to frame definite charges. If the charges are not proved, the investigation committee can dismiss the case. Otherwise, it will give a report to the oversight committee, which can issue an advisory or warning if the charges are not too serious. If the charges are serious, the committee can request the judge concerned to resign. If the judge does not do so, the oversight committee will forward the case to the President with an advisory for his removal. In such an event, copies of all relevant documents will be laid in Parliament and an impeachment motion moved. In the Lok Sabha, not less than 100 members will be required to move the motion, and in the Rajya Sabha not less than 50 members will be needed. Official sources said that besides declaring their assets, judges would be required to file an annual return of assets and liabilities. All the details would be put up on the websites of the Supreme Court and High Courts. The bill will also require the judges not to have close association with any member of the Bar, especially those who practise in the same court.
Yudhoyono to be Chief Guest at R-Day Parade
Indonesian President Susilo Bambang Yudhoyono will be the chief guest at the next year's Republic Day parade in Delhi, according to official sources. Both countries will seek to build on the joint declaration on a new strategic partnership signed by Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh and Mr. Yudhoyono during the latter's visit to India in 2005. The two sides will also attempt to expand economic relations bilaterally
PD/December/2010/978
“When I do good, I feel good; when I do bad, I feel bad, and that is my religion.”
and under the aegis of the Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN) of which Indonesia is a founder member.
onboard systems are also manufactured by private industries in different parts of the country. This UAV can be used by all the three armed services of the country.
Rustom 1 Test Flown Successfully
Rustom 1 a medium-altitude and long-endurance Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV), developed by the Bangalore-based Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE) was successfully test flown at Bangalore on October 16, 2010. As per an official statement, Rustom 1 was flown from the Taneja Aerospace and Aviation airfield at Hosur near Bangalore. The aircraft Rustom 1. took off even in inclement weather condition for a first flight, flew for 12 minutes and landed successfully, meeting all its objectives. According to a Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) spokesperson Rustom 1 followed the two other UAV developed by the ADE—Lakshya and Nishant. While Lakshya—a drone that is remotely piloted by a ground control station—provides aerial subtargets for live fire training, Nishant is a surveillance aircraft primarily tasked with intelligence gathering over enemy territory. “Unlike the other UAV, which used to have a free fall with parachutes after executing their tasks, Rustom will carry out copy book style landing,” the DRDO spokesperosn said, adding that “in the coming days Rustom can be used as unmanned combat aerial vehicle and also to carry war-heads.” The first full flight of Rustom 1 on October 16 was under the command of Lt. Col. V. S. Thapa of the Army, an experienced External Pilot for UAVs who was positioned at the edge of the runway. The statement said that he controlled it without any difficulty throughout its flight, which included the pilot-assisted take-off flight in air and a copy book style landing. The aircraft has many auto-features such as GPS controlled Way Point Navigation and Get U Home included even in its first flight, but will be exercised in subsequent flights.
Lok Pal Bill Draft Finalized
? Prime Minister comes within its purview. ? Some limits on powers to probe Prime Ministers, Members of Parliament.
After an unusually long wait and numerous attempts—at least 10, the centre has finally come up with an acceptable-to-all draft of the Lok Pal Bill. In a major decision that has the backing of Prime Minister Manmohan Singh, the office of the Prime Minister has been brought within the ombudsman's purview. Now that the draft is almost ready, it awaits being presented before the Cabinet for its seal of approval. It may be recalled that in 1986, the Administrative Reforms Commission had recommended the enactment of a law for setting up a Lok Pal at the centre and Lokayuktas in every state. But while 17 states have already set up Lokayuktas—Orissa was the first state to do so—successive central governments have been unable to do much, the major hurdle having been whether or not the Prime Minister and his Cabinet colleagues should be brought within the purview of the Lok Pal. The re-drafted Lok Pal Bill proposes to bring all political functionaries at the Centre, including the Prime Minister and his ministerial colleagues as well as Members of Parliament and members of the defence services, under the purview of the Lok Pal. The Lok Pal would not, however, be empowered to inquire into any allegation against the PM in relation to his functions concerning national security, foreign affairs and public order. The Lok Pal would not be able to probe complaints against the President, Vice-President, Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, sitting Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, Comptroller and Auditor General of India, Attorney-General, Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners, Chairman and members of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and Chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission. Also, before taking up complaints against Members of Parliament, the Lok Pal would have to seek the concurrence of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha or the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as the case may be.
Features
“The UAV has an endurance of 12 to 15 hours and can carry payloads up to 75 kg. It has an altitude ceiling of 25,000 feet. Such flights of UAVs remove the risk to human pilots when they have to fly them in hazardous zones,” the statement said. The data link system for this UAV was designed and developed by another DRDO laboratory called Defence Electronics Applications Laboratory (DEAL) situated in Dehradun. Its airframe is made by a private company called Zephyr situated in Coimbatore and most of its
A Three-Member Body
The Draft Bill says that the Lok Pal would be a threemember body comprising a chairman—a sitting or retired Chief Justice of India or former judge of the Supreme Court—and two members, to be chosen from among sitting or retired judges of the Supreme Court, or sitting or retired Chief Justices of High Courts.
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“Death may be the greatest of all human blessings.”
However, no sitting judge would be considered for appointment without consultation with the Chief Justice of India. The trio would be appointed on the recommendations of a committee headed by the Vice-President and comprising the Prime Minister, the Lok Sabha Speaker, Ministers of Home and Law, and the Leaders of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. All three members would hold sittings together and decide matters jointly. They would be appointed for a period of three years or until they attain the age of 70, whichever is earlier. In order to ensure transparency and impartiality of the Lok Pal, the Bill says that on ceasing to hold office as ombudsman, the three members would not be eligible to hold any other office in the government. Incidentally, in the latest draft Bill, the period for making complaints to the Lok Pal has been brought down from the earlier 10 years to five years from the date of the alleged offence. The Lok Pal would have six months from the receipt of the complaint within which it would have to complete investigations and submit a report. The Bill also empowers the Lok Pal to punish with imprisonment and/or a fine those guilty of making false or mala fide complaints.
to much loss and impinging on the execution of projects sanctioned by the government. An institution of this type exists in several countries, particularly in Scandinavian countries where it is doing good work. It is hoped that with the establishment of Lok Pal at the centre, we shall be able to put effective curb on corruption in public life.
India Signs Social Security Agreement with S. Korea
A reciprocal Social Security Agreement (SSA) and protocal that will benefit a huge number of Indians— particularly those working in the fields of Information Technology, medicine and finance—was signed in Seoul, S. Korean capital on October 19, 2010. Overseas Indian Affairs Minister Vyalar Ravi and Korean Minister for Trade Kim Jong-hoon signed the pact. An official release said that a number of Indians were working in S. Korea, most of them professionals and self-employed persons. There was huge potential for the employment of Indians in Korea owing to a large gap in market labour supply. An SSA with S. Korea would enhance the movement of professionals, and investment, between the two countries. The pact is the result of negotiations which were held between India and S. Korea in New Delhi in December 2009.
Comment
It is gratifying that the draft of the Lok Pal Bill has been finalized and with the passage of time the law of Lok Pal would see the light of day. It is a good measure to curb corruption in high places. It is common knowledge that corruption has penetrated into the highest echelons of public life and is eating into the vitals of our nationhood. It is to be decimated altogether if the nation has to progress quick and fast. It is painful indeed to see that quite a good percentage of public funds are diverted to unlawful channels, putting the government exchequer
Government Approves Amendments to Enemy Property Law
The Union Government on October 20, 2010 approved amendments to a four-decade old law that proposes to allow Indian legal heirs to inherit the properties of relatives who migrated to Pakistan after partition. However, as per the amendment to the Enemy Property Act of 1968 only transactions that have been effected before July 2, this year will have legal sanction.
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The Union Cabinet, at a meeting chaired by Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh on October 20, approved the proposal of the Ministry of Home Affairs to introduce the Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Bill, 2010. According to the amendments, “if the enemy property was diverted from the Custodian before 2nd July, 2010, it shall stand transferred to and vest or continue to vest in the custodian.” “If, however, the enemy was divested from the custodian by a valid order made under section 18 prior to 2nd July, 2010 or where the property had been returned to the owner or his lawful heir by an order of the court; and if the lawful heir is a citizen of India by birth, such enemy property will continue to remain with such person” say the amendments approved by the Cabinet. An attempt to get the amendments passed by Parliament during the Monsoon Session had failed due to repeated pleas and lobbying of cross-party Muslim MPs, including several ministers, who pleaded to ensure that legal heirs are allowed to hold the property of their parents or grandparents who had migrated to Pakistan. Through an Act in 1968, the government had declared the properties left behind by people who migrated to Pakistan during partition as ‘enemy properties‘. “The fresh amendments that were placed before Parliament have been incorporated in the new Bill. There is no change in the content of the Bill,” Home Minister P. Chidambaram said. The proposal for fresh amendments provide for ensuring that the enemy property shall continue to vest in the custodian till it is divested by the central government and the enemy property could be divested only to the owner or his lawful heir.
It means a Muslim citizen of India who is a legal inheritor of such property is able to retain ownership even if the deceased had gone to Pakistan after partition, but he will have to legally prove his or her inheritance. The central government is authorised to direct the custodian to sell or dispose of enemy properties in such manner as may be prescribed. To amend the Public Premises (Eviction of Unauthorised Occupants) Act, 1971 to declare the Custodian, Deputy Custodian and Assistant Custodian of Enemy Properties as Estate Officer in respect of the enemy properties are other features of the proposed amendments. The amendments came in the wake of a series of judgements by various courts that eroded the powers of the custodian of the enemy property. The amendments will have retrospective effect.
India, Germany Ink Cultural Accord
India and Germany on October 18, 2010 imparted fresh momentum to their joint efforts for expansion of the U.N. Security Council and discussed ways to deepen counter-terror cooperation. External Affairs Minister S.M. Krishna held talks with his German counterparts Guido Westerwelle that focussed on UN Foreign Minister S.M. Krishna, left, reforms, enhanced with his German counterpart Guido counter-terror co- Westerwelle before a meeting in New operation, climate Delhi, on Oct. 18, 2010. change and the intensification of economic and defence ties.
Other Cabinet Decisions
? Cashless health insurance for street vendors Street vendors will now enjoy the benefits of cashless-based health insurance scheme. The Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) currently covers BPL families only. The RSBY will be extended to the over 42 lakh street vendors in India. The premium will be paid by the Central and State Governments in the ratio of 75 : 25. For the North Eastern States and Jammu and Kashmir, the ratio is 90 : 10. ? NIMHANS upgradation The National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro Sciences, Bangalore, has been declared as an institute of national importance on the lines of the All India Institute of Medical Sciences. ? Scheme named after Indira Gandhi A new scheme targeted at improving the health of expectant mothers and ensuring proper nutrition for newborns has been named the Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana. ? Seeds Bill, 2004 The government approved additional amendments to the Seeds Bill, 2004 that includes raising penalties for offences like sale of spurious seeds.
MoU Signed
After the talks, Suresh Kumar Goel Director-General of the Indian Council of Cultural Relations, and Thomas Goetz Director-General, Culture and Science, The German office, signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) and celebrating a year of Germany in India in 2011-12 and a year of India in Germany in 2012-13. The celebrations will mark 60 years of Indo-German diplomatic partnership. India and Germany have been elected non-permanent members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) for 2011-2012.
Prime Minister’s Visit to Japan, Malaysia and Vietnam
Indian Prime Minister was on a seven-day visit to Japan, Malaysia and Vietnam in the last week of October 2010. On October 25 in Tokyo, India and Japan decided to extend their cooperation to areas such as joint ventures in rare earth minerals, some hitherto unexplored areas in
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“Do not do to others what angers you if done to you by others.”
defence, and transport and industrial corridors in South India. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh and his Japanese counterpart Naoto Kan, resolved to continue talks on a civil nuclear agreement. They instructed the officials to ensure the smooth Moving Together : Prime Minister implementation of Manmohan Singh and his Japanese the Comprehensive counterpart Naoto Kan shake hands Economic Partner- after exchanging documents on an ship Agreement agreement signed at the latter’s official (CEPA) and accele- residence in Tokyo on October 25. rate discussions on the reform of the United Nations Security Council, to which both countries are aspirants as permanent members. Dr. Singh and Mr. Naoto Kan also discussed China. In their joint declaration on the conclusion of CEPA negotiations, the two leaders committed to signing the agreement at the earliest at ministerial level, on completion of necessary formalities. “The CEPA encompasses trade in services and investment besides covering 90 per cent of the trade in merchandise or goods,” said Rao. The pact will also help movement of nurses and care givers, information technology professionals and promote tourism. The two PMs also signed a memorandum on simplifying procedures for business visas and temporary visitor’s visas for businessmen in Japan. It also entails measures related to employment visas in India, entry visas for working in Japan and those related to tourist visas in India and temporary visitor’s visas for sightseeing in Japan. The two PMs’ restrictive meeting was followed by a 45-minute annual summit talks at the official level.
Six Pacts with Malaysia
From Japan the Prime Minister dashed to Malaysia where he arrived at Kuala Lumpur on October 26. The PM and his wife were accorded a ceremonial welcome by Malaysian Human Resources Minister S. Subramaniam and his wife at the Kuala Lumpur International Airport. In Kuala Lumpur, India and Malaysia signed six pacts, with the accord for implementing the Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) from July 1, 2011 being the centrepiece. The agreements were signed at a ceremony presided over by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh and his Malaysian counterpart Mohd. Najib. Comparing the CECA with the India-Asean Trade in Goods (TiG) agreement that was implemented from January 1, 2010, both the sides offer ‘Asean plus’ market access in goods. In Trade in Services, both the sides agreed on providing access to each other’s services market across all modes and various sectors.
India and Malaysia would liberalise their respective investment regimes to facilitate greater Foreign Direct Investment into each other’s territory. Both sides would also finalise twothree other areas of economic cooperation from among infrastructure development, creative industries, tourism, small and medium enterprises (SMEs), business facilitation, science and technology, and human resource development, said official sources. The Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) on co- Prime Minister Manmohan Singh and operation in the his Malaysian counterpart Md. Najib traditional systems applaud as Commerce and Industry of medicine makes Minister Anand Sharma (left) exIndia the second changes files with Malaysian Health country with which Minister Liow Tiong Lai after signing Malaysia has signed an agreement at Putrajaya in Kuala such a pact. The Lumpur on October 27. MoU will guide the existing rudimentary cooperation in a more focussed manner and also streamline the existing practices in traditional systems of medicine to higher levels of acceptance by people of the two countries. The MoU for cooperation in tourism would encourage the growing flow of visitors to both the countries. India is the sixth largest source country for inbound tourism to Malaysia (six lakhs in 2009) while Malaysia is the 10th largest (1·15 lakhs in 2008). The MoU for cooperation in IT & Services would reflect the contemporary changes taking place in the field of Information Technology and Services.
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“Envy is the ulcer of the soul.”
Separately, the two Prime Ministers announced the setting up of a Joint ICT Talent Development Consultative Committee to make specific recommendations to both the governments for IT skills training, talent development and greater engagement of the Indian IT companies in Malaysia. Already, 60 Indian IT companies are present, including some from the top 10. An agreement between the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) and the UNIK of Malaysia on Research and Development Collaboration will witness the setting up of a Joint Innovation Accelerator Centre in Malaysia to carry out research in green technology, water treatment and medicinal and aromatic plants.
The talks between the two leaders were held in a cordial atmosphere. Mr. Wen Jiabao was requested to visit India and his visit was fixed for December 2010 itself. Other important leaders whom Dr. Manmohan Singh met in Hanoi included Vietnamese Prime Minister Nguyen Tan Dung and South Korean President Lee Myung-bak, with whom talks were held on bilateral matters and other regional issues. Another important meeting was with the Australian Prime Minister Ms. Gillard.
In Vietnam
From Malaysia Dr. Manmohan Singh reached Hanoi, the capital of Vietnam on October 28 to attend the 5th East Asia Summit and the 17th ASEAN Summit. In Hanoi the Prime Minister interacted with several regional leaders and exchanged views on bilateral and multilateral matters. The most significant was Dr. Manmohan’s meeting with Chinese Prime Minister Wen Prime Minister Manmohan Singh with Jiabao. In this meetChinese Premier Wen Jiabao prior in ing which materiHanoi, Vietnam on October 29. alised on the sidelines of the Association of South East Asian Nations Summit and the East Asia Summit both leaders covered the entire gamut of relations, including the issue of China issuing stapled visas to people domiciled in Jammu and Kashmir and the consequent pause in the high-level defence exchanges. In their 10th meeting in six years, they took a broad view of the strategic significance of India-China ties and expressed satisfaction at the development of relations. Mr. Wen agreed with Dr. Singh’s off-repeated statement that there was enough space in the world to accommodate the growth of both countries. There was enough space for India and China to have cooperative relationship in ‘all areas’.
India, Bangladesh Sign $ 1 billion Line of Credit Agreement
India has decided to export 5 lakh tonnes of rice and wheat to Bangladesh despite ban on outward shipments of the foodgrains. Both countries also agreed in the third week of October to establish ‘Border Haats’ along the Meghalaya-Bangladesh border and open the Chittagong and Mongla ports to boost trade ties. Forging Ties : Anand Sharma (left), The two coun- Union Minister for Commerce and tries have signed $ 1 Industry, with his Bangladesh billion Line of counterpart Muhammad Faruk Khan Credit agreement exchanging the documents after signand some important ing the MoU in New Delhi on Oct. 23. pacts for power transmission. Union Commerce and Industry Minister Anand Sharma met his Bangladesh counterpart in New Delhi on October 23, 2010. “Apart from the Line of Credit, the bulk power transmission agreement and an MoU between NTPC and the Bangladesh Power Development Board have also been signed in the power sector”. Mr. Sharma said pointing out that after Bangladesh Prime Minister Hasina Sheikh's successful visit to India, both countries had been actively engaged in implementing the joint communique that reflected the understanding reached between the Prime Ministers of the two countries.
Nuclear Deal with South Korea
India and South Korea have reached an agreement on civil nuclear cooperation, marking the ninth such pact Delhi has finalised since getting the Nuclear Suppliers’ Group waiver in 2008. The announcement came after Prime Minister Manmohan Singh met South Korean President Lee Myung-bak on Oct. 29 in Hanoi, Vietnam on the sidelines of the Asean Summit. “We have finalised agreement on cooperation in civil uses of nuclear energy, which is now awaiting signature,” national security adviser Shivshankar Menon said.
News in a Nutshell
January 25 to be National Voters' Day
January 25 will hereafter be celebrated as National Voters' Day, Chief Election Commissioner S. Y. Quraishi said on October 9, 2010. The date marks the foundation day of the Election Commission of India. On that day, young voters, who attain the age of 18 years on January 7,' will be given Elector Photo Identity Cards (EPIC).
Continued on Page 993
PD/December/2010/984 “Get not your friends by bare compliments, but by giving them sensible tokens of your love.”
BASIC Unity Stands Ruptured; South Africa Toes West Line in the Climate Negotiation
[Developing Countries Averse to LegallyBinding Agreement at Cancun Meeting] The first signs of rift in the BASIC group—Brazil , South Africa, India and China surfaced in the climate negotiations that were held in a meeting of experts from the four countries in the second week of October 2010. At the meeting South Africa put forward a proposal that caused fissures in the group of four emerging economies, which had trumped Europe in dictating terms at the Copenhagen meet in 2009 and worked as a team. Expressing frustration with the current state of climate talks, South Africa proposed that all decisions taken at the Cancun talks to be held in December this year should form part of a single legally binding agreement. China, India and Brazil were not Scary Scenario agreeable to it as it could lead to a demise of the Kyoto Protocol and also sound the death knell for the Bali Action Plan. The Bali Action Plan is seen by developing countries as the last remaining firewall between developed and developing countries in climate negotiations. The proposal by South Africa took ominous proportions when other developed countries along with the AOSIS group (Alliance of Small Island States) and some Central American countries—all seen as close to the US—in a concerted manner started for pushing for a legally binding agreement to become the central pillar of all talks. At Copenhagen the BASIC four had worked ferociously to prevent such a move. India, China and Brazil were caught unawares with the South African proposal as well as another move by Venezuela suggesting that three categories be created instead of the existing two (developed and other countries) to list out the international commitments towards reducing greenhouse gases—one for developed countries that have targets under Kyoto Protocol, another for the US and the third for major economies such as India. The moves, if they find favour within the UN talks, could end up easing the pressure on the developed countries to take on strong greenhouse gas emission targets under the Kyoto Protocol or even completely finish it off, instead of moving the global climate regime towards a single treaty where India and China are seen as comparable to the developed countries.
Ministerial Meeting on Climate Change : India-China ‘No’ New Targets
The expert group's meeting was followed by a ministerial meeting in which BASIC group of countries participated, with Jairam Ramesh, India's environment minister representing India at Tainjin, China on October 11, 2010.
Basic Nations reject move, backed by WTO to impose tax for failing to abide by Binding Treaty
A new divide emerged between rich and developing nations with India and China opposing a move to link trade with reducing carbon emissions. The developed world, led by the US and Europe, has been talking of imposing a tax on countries which fail to abide by a binding climate treaty, in which India and China will have to take emission control measures. This claim is also being backed by the World Trade Organization. The Basic group of countries—India, China, Brazil and South Africa—called it a “unilateral protectionist measure” and rejected at the Tainjin meeting itself on October 11, 2010. “—Basic ministers rejected the notion of unilateral actions against products and services of developing countries on grounds of combating climate change, which will jeopardise international collaboration on climate change and international trade,” said a resolution adopted by the ministers. The text, which India first proposed in Bonn in August last year says that “developed countries shall not resort to any form of unilateral measures, including countervailing border measures, against goods and services imported from developing countries on grounds of protection of climate.” “We would like this text to be reflected in the final (climate) agreement,” Indian Environment Minister Jairam Ramesh said at the meeting attended by officials from Yemen , Ethiopia, Venezuela, Argentina and Egypt. India has said such moves would violate the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Ramesh expressed concern over reports saying some of the measures were compatible with WTO rules. “The report has come as somewhat of a shock to us,” he said. The new WTO report, seeking 14 types of penalties for imports from high carbon emitting countries, has come at a time when climate negotiations have almost collapsed with US and China not seeing eye to eye. US has been seeking a uniform treaty with binding targets for China, India and Brazil, opposed by China, the second largest carbon emitter in the world.
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“Remember what is unbecoming to do is also unbecoming to speak of.”
World’s Greatest Rescue Operation in Chile : 33 Miners Trapped Inside Earth Rescued Safely
[Last man out was shift foreman Luis Urzua; most miners in good health Chile celebrates miners’ rescue] The longest underground nightmare in history ended safely and faster than any one expected. In a flawless operation that unfolded before a hopeful trans fixed world, 33 miners who were trapped for more than two months beneath the Chilean earth were raised one by one in a mission that ended October 14, 2010. The last man out was the one who held the group together when they were feared lost, a shift foreman named Luis Urzua who enforced tight rations of their limited food and supplies before help could arrive. “We have done what the entire world was waiting for,” he said immediately after his rescue. “We had strength, we had spirit, we wanted to fight, we wanted to fight for our families, and that was the greatest thing.” Not even a full 24 hours after the rescue began, Urzua made the 2041 foot ascent in a Prescue confetti called Phoenix and emerged from a manholesized opening in the ground to a joyous celebration of comfelt's, balloons and Champagne.
spent 26 minutes alone down below before he strapped himself into the capsule for the ride up. He reached the surface at 12-32 on October 14, 2010. The 33 newly rescued miners recovered from their ordeal on October 15, 2010. Most of the miners were found to be in decent health despite being stuck in a collapsed mine tunnel since August 5. The men were resting in a hospital after being hoisted to the surface. One of the miners had pneumonia and was being treated. Chile and its billionaire President Sebastian Pinera have both burnished their images with the flawlessly executed rescue. Pinera, 60, a credit card and airline magnate who took office in March, is already basking in the glow of success. The rescue took 69 days and about 8 hours. The crowd in ‘Camp Hope’, down a hill from the escape shaft, set off confetti, released balloons and sprayed champagne as Urzua's capsule surfaced. In the capital of Santiago, hundreds gathered waving flags and chanting victory slogans.
General Elections in Kyrgyzstan : Result Surprises World
Parliamentary elections were held in Kyrgyzstan on October 10 and the result was out on October 11, 2010. The results produced no clear winner. Five parties out of 29 contestants cleared the five per cent threshold to win seats in the 120-member Parliament. The only surprise was the strong showing of a nationalist party Ata Zhurt. The bigger surprise was that the results were not a foregone conclusion, making this small, mostly Muslim nation the first in Central Asia to hold free elections in pursuit of a democratic system. The vote turn out was more than 52 per cent. Hurdles galore still await this landlocked country of 5 million people, for the fractured verdict may create difficulties for the government formation and still greater obstacles for government running. The surprise in the election was the 8.6 per cent share won by a nationalist party called Ata-Zhurt, a powerful force in the rural southern part of the country, which has been beset by ethnic and political violence. This parliamentary system was approved in a referendum in June and is a first for Central Asia. Kyrgyzstan has had two coups in the past five years. Askar Akayev, who was President for 15 years, was forced out in 2005. Earlier this year, his successor, Kurmanbek Bakiyev, was ousted after rioting in the streets. In June, political and ethnic violence erupted between Kyrgyz and Uzbeks in the south, killing 400 people and forcing as many as 400,000 from their homes. The interim President, Roza Otunbayeva, has been a proponent of a parliamentary system that was presented as a way to give voice and legislative power to disparate groups. It also was seen as a way to bring peace and common purpose to this land, where the mountains divide north and south into two almost separate countries.
Unknown Miners become Stars
? ? ? ? Real Madrid and Manchester United invited the miners— some avid soccer fans— to watch them play in Europe. A local singer-turned-businessman has given them $ 10,000 each. Apple boss Steve Jobs has sent them all a latest iPod and a Greek firm has offered an islands tour. Miners unlikely to return to old work. Get job offers, book and film contracts.
Chilean President Sebastian Pinera told him, “You are not the same, and the country is not the same after this. You were an inspiration.” The first rescue worker down was last up-Manuel Ganzalez, mine rescue expert with Chile's state-owned Codelco copper company; talked the men through the final hours inside the mine. Then, he
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“The only good is knowledge and the only evil is ignorance.”
“We read, we went for lovely journeys in eastern Europe … Life in East Germany was arduous, regimented and limited, but we tried to make something of it,” Ms. Merkel, who was trained as a physicist, told the paper. U.S. President Barack Obama was quick to congratulate Germany, praising “the courage and conviction of the German people that brought down the Berlin Wall, ending decades of painful and artificial separation”. Washington's Cold War foe also congratulated Germany, with Russian President Dmitry Medvedev saying reunification carried an “enduring historic significance not only for the German people but for the whole of Europe”. After World War II, the victorious powers, the United States, Britain, France and the Soviet Union carved defeated Germany into four sections. With the advent of the Cold War, Moscow erected a border between its eastern section, and the three western Allied sections, including the Wall that split Berlin in two.
Post Nobel, A Cry for Free Speech by Chinese Communist Party Elders
A consistently restricted and regimented order of governance in China has forced even the ruling party elders to cry for free speech in China. A group of Chinese Communist Party elders has issued a bold call to end the country's wideranging restrictions on free speech, just days after the government reacted angrily to the awarding of the Nobel Peace Prize to imprisoned dissident Chinese leader Liu Xiaobo. In an open letter posted online, the retired officials state that although China's 1982 Constitution guarantees freedom of speech, the right is constrained by a host of laws and regulations that should be scrapped. “This kind of false democracy of affirming in principle and denying in actuality is a scandal in the history of democracy,” said the letter, which was dated October 11 and widely distributed by email. Wang Yongcheng, a retired professor at Shanghai's Jiaotong University who signed the letter, said it had been inspired by the recent arrest of a journalist who wrote about corruption in the resettlement of farmers for a dam project. “We want to spur action toward governing the country according to law,” Wang said in an interview. Coming on top of Liu's Nobel Peace Prize, the letter further spotlights China's tight restrictions on freedom of speech and other civil rights, although Wang said the two events were not directly related. Work on the letter began several days before the prize was awarded, and drafters decided against including a reference to Liu out of concern that the government would block its circulation. Reshma Patil from Beijing writes that this criticism of the Communist Party's ‘invisible hand’ is extraordinary for more than its free speech. The 23 signatories of this letter circulated online on October 12, 2010 before it was blocked, spent years on top posts inside the propaganda and media machinery that control the information that reaches Chinese citizens. They include a former director of the Party mouthpiece People's Daily, a former deputy director of news agency Xinhua, a former editor-in-chief of China Daily, a former news head of the central propaganda department, a former director of the News Research Institute of China's top thinktank and a former Party School Professor.
Germany Celebrates 20 Years of Unity
Germany's President Christian Wulff on October 3, 2010 paid tribute to the courage of those who fought for freedom of the country. Germany celebrated 20 years since reunification after decades of Cold War Division. In his first major set piece speech Christian Wulff said, “We remember the momentous day that a people experience only rarely,” when the capitalist west and the Communist East merged barely a year after the fall of the dismantling of the Berlin Wall. “I bow before everyone who fought for freedom …… your courage moved the world,” the President told an audience of dignitaries including Chancellor Angela Merkel and European President Herman Van Rompuy, to general applause.
The Challenges
Mr. Wulff also highlighted the challenges ahead of the reunited Germany, focussing on the difficulties of integrating its large Muslim population, the subject of a fiery debate in recent days. For her part, Ms. Merkel who was brought up in East Germany, recalled her life growing up under communism and said she would have be a straight-forward scientist if the Berlin Wall had not fallen. Ms. Merkel, now considered the world's most powerful woman, said that despite the constraints of life in East Germany, “it is certainly true to say that it was not boring.”
PD/December/2010/987
“Thou shouldst eat to live; not live to eat.”
On October 3, 1990, just under a year after the Wall was yanked down in a bloodless revolution, the reunification treaty bringing the two halves of the country together came into effect amid joyful scenes.
to around 2,50,000 Palestinians, and Palestinians hope to make it the capital of a future state.
Sovereignty
Past peace plans have proposed leaving the Jewish neighbourhoods under the Israeli sovereignty. But Palestinians and the US have said that Israeli construction there is nonethless provocative and undermines peace talks. Egypt's Foreign Minister Ahmed Aboul Gheit said that if Israel continued to build settlements, Arab nations might seek U.N. recognition of a Palestinian state without Israel's approval.
Israel Approves East Jerusalem Houses Ending Freeze
The Israeli government on October 15, 2010 ended an unofficial freeze on new buildings in east Jerusalem, approving the construction of 238 houses in Jewish neighbourhoods as peace talks with Palestine remained stuck over the fate of a broader construction slowdown throughout the West Bank.
Huge US-Saudi Arms Deal
As per press sources, the United States has announced one of the largest weapons sales in its history, worth nearly $ 60 billion to Saudi Arabia. Announcing the deal, Assistant Secretary for Political-Military Affairs Andrew Shapiro said that the US planned to sell the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia “a significant An AH-64 Delta Apache Longbow defence package that helicopter in Conroe, Texas, in this will promote regional recent photo. security and enhance the defensive capabilities of an important Gulf partner with whom we have had a longstanding and close security relationship.” The most significant components of the package include 84 F-15 aircraft, 70 upgrades of existing Saudi F-15s to a more advanced configuration, 70 AH-64D Apache Longbow helicopters, 72 UH-60 Blackhawk helicopters, 36 AH-6i light attack helicopters, and 12 MD-530F light training helicopters. The proposed packages also include aircraft munitions. Support and training services are sufficient, officials said. In approving the sale the Obama administration argued that it would advance US national security, send a strong message to the region that the US was committed to supporting the security of its allies in the Arabian Gulf and enhance Saudi Arabia's ability to deter and defend against threats to its borders and to its oil infrastructure, which is critical to USA's economic interests as well. It has also been asserted that the weapons sale would improve US Saudi interoperability and as a result the US Department of Defence would be able to free up US forces in the region and maximize the effectiveness of the U.S global force posture. Although it has been denied yet confrontation with Iran is a fact in U.S. mind in clinching the deal with Saudi Arabia.
Disturbing Move : Jewish settlement Pisgat Zeev is seen behind Israel's controversial separation barrier on the outskirts of Jerusalem recently.
Plan Draws Swift Palestinian Condemnation
The Israeli Housing Ministry's announcement that developers would be allowed to bid for contracts to build new homes in the neighbourhoods of Ramot and Pisgal Zeev drew swift condemnation from Palestinian negotiators. Peace talks that began in early September are deadlocked over the Palestinian demand that Israel extend a slowdown on settlement construction that expired in September 2010 itself. The Palestinians threatened to quit the negotiations unless Israel reinstated the building restrictions. Curiously enough, the Israeli Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu refused to oblige. Both sides have indicated compromise is possible, but attempts by U.S. mediator to break the impasse have failed. Israel's construction announcement further bedevilled the atmosphere. “This announcement is a clear-cut indication that the choice of Netanyahu is settlements, not peace,” said chief negotiator Saeb Erekat, charging the Israelis with “closing all doors on attempts to revive the direct negotiations”. Mr. Natanyahu's office refused to comment on October 15, 2010 The Israeli settlement slowdown imposed last November in the West Bank did not officially include east Jerusalem, which Israel claims as part of its capital. But before October 15, Israel had quietly halted building there as well without explicitly saying it was doing so. There was no immediate public comment from U.S. officials on October 15. Around 1,80,000 Israelis live in neighbourhoods Israel has built in east Jerusalem since capturing the area from Jordan in 1967. The eastern sector of the city is home
UK Announces Severe Military Cutbacks
In a bid to streamline its armed forces and help reduce its daunting levels of national debt Britain on
PD/December/2010/988
“Having the fewest wants, I am nearest to the gods.”
October 19, 2010 announced plans to cut its military personnel by 10 per cent, scrap 40 per cent of the army's artillery, withdraw troops from Germany within 10 years and cut 25,000 civilian jobs in its Defence Ministry. Unveiling his Strategic Defence and Security Review, the first since 9/11, Prime Minister David Cameron said that the cuts were part of an effort to reconfigure a military that “was over stretched, under equipped and illprepared” to meet the unconventional warfare challenges of the future. He said that Britain intended to remain a significant military power, with a military budget that would still be the fourth highest in the world, after those of the US, China and Russia. The plan calls for the scrapping of the Ark Royal, Britain's only aircraft carrier capable of launching fixedwing jets, along with the fleet of Harrier jump jets operated by the Royal Navy and the Royal Air Force since the 1970s. The demise of the Ark Royal means Britain will have a 10-year hiatus without a carrier-borne strike force until one of two new aircraft carriers is equipped with a new generation of Joint Strike Fighters in 2020. The government would go ahead with plans to build both carriers at $ 9.5 billion only because it would be even more costly to cancel one of them, with both already under construction. But after three years in service, one of them will be either moth balled or sold off. The decision caused costernation among naval veterans, military analysts and others who have joined the Labour Party in accusing the government of hastening the review to meet the needs of its austerity programme.
Previous Strikes
? Chechen rebels seized a theatre in Moscow in 2002, holding 850 people hostage. Around 120 hostages died. ? In September 2004, gunmen demanding Chechen independence seized a school in the town of Beslan in North Ossetia resulting in the death of 330 people, more than half of them children. ? Chechen rebel Doku Umarov claimed responsibility for an August 17 dam disaster in Siberia that killed 75 and for bombing an express train between Moscow and St Petersburg in November that killed 26 people. ? Two female suicide bombers killed 39 people at two crowded Moscow metro stations in March earlier this year. ? A shootout between leader Ramzan Kadyrov's guards and suspected insurgents left 19 people dead in his village in August.
“A special operation to destroy the insurgents has taken place,” Kadyrov said in a brief statement. He said that all the deputies and other people inside the building had been freed. Earlier, Russia's federal Investigative Committee said four attackers had been killed. Interfax news agency also reported that the rebels had taken hostages but it was impossible to confirm this. At least 17 people were injured in the attack, one of the most brazen in Grozny for years. Russia's leaders are struggling to contain a growing Islamist insurgency in the North Caucasus, a strip of impoverished, mainly Muslim provinces along predominantly Orthodox Christian Russia's Southern border. The Kremlin had declared victory in its battle with Chechen separatists following two wars in Chechnya to crush separatists since the 1991 fall of the Soviet Union. The federal government has poured money into rebuilding Grozny, which was devastated in the wars, and Kadyrov boasts that Chechnya is more peaceful than the neighbouring regions of Dagestan and Ingushetia. Russian President Dmitry Medvedev said last November that strife in the North Caucasus was Russia's biggest domestic problem. Human rights activists say the Kremlin has relied for far too long on local leaders and security forces whose heavy-handed tactics have exacerbated the insurgency. Prime Minister Vladimir Putin's policy in Chechnya has been to back Kadyrov, a former rebel who switched sides at the outbreak of Moscow's second war in Chechnya. The bet on Kadyrov, who promised to place everything under control, proved wrong, said Yevgeny Volk, a political analyst at the Yeltsin Foundation, a Moscow-based think tank. Both Putin and Medvedev spoke to Kadyrov by telephone about the attack, a sign of support for the Chechen leader.
Chechen Parliament Attacked by Rebels
Terrorist activity in Chechnya climaxed on October 19, when Islamist rebels killed at least four people as they tried to seize Chechnya's Parliament in a brazen suicide attack that showed that Russia has failed to quell insurgency on its southern flank. Three rebels burst into the Parliament compound in the Chechen capital of Grozny in the morning time as deputies arrived for work and began the attack, which lasted Parliament Attacked : Special Force until government officers survey the scene after a bomb blast in front of the Chechen Parliaforces stormed the ment in Grozny on Oct. 19. Militants building. wearing suicide vests stormed the comOne blew him- plex in Russia's strife-torn Chechnya, self up outside and killing three policemen and injuring 17 two others went on others as they held lawmakers and a rampage inside, officials hostage. The insurgents were spraying bullets later killed in a standoff with security around as they forces. screamed ‘Allahu Akbar’ (God is Greatest), a source said. The remaining two attackers holed themselves up on the ground floor and then blew themselves up when forces loyal to Chechen leader Ramzan Kadyrov stormed the building.
Comment
The dare devil attack on Chechen Parliament reminds us of the similar type of attack on Indian Parliament in 2003. India's security forces killed all the attackers but lost more than half a dozen of their own men, making history by saving all who were inside Parliament. The tentacles of
PD/December/2010/989
“I know nothing except the fact of my ignorance.”
terrorists have expanded so widely and their ugly designs have so upgraded their aims that security of these lofty democratic institutions is pathetically endangered. The terrorist attack on the twin towers and the Pentagon in New York earlier still reminds us how terrorism has made hell of our lives. Despite these horrendous incidents the world still finds itself unable to forge an international strategy to extirpate terrorism altogether. Vested interests of certain countries are really the great stumbling block. How much hell are we the citizens of the world destined to face ?
Iran's Diplomatic Ruse to Scuttle Western Influence in Iraq
According to journalistic sources, particularly the Guardian, Iran is adopting diplomatic ruse to scuttle western influence in Iraq. As per the Guardian sources, Iran has brokered a critical deal with its regional neighbourhood that could see a pro-Tehran government installed in Iraq, a move that would shift the fragile country sharply away from a sphere of western influence. The Guardian can reveal that the Islamic Republic of Iran was instrumental in forming an alliance between Iraq's Nouri-al Maliki, who is vying for a second term as Prime Minister, and the country's powerful radical Shia cleric leader, Maqtada al-Sadr. The deal—which involved Syria, Lebanon's Hezbollah and the highest authorities in Shia Islam—positions Maliki as a frontrunner to return as leader despite a seven-month stalemate between Iraq's feuding political blocks. It also positions Iran as a potent buffer to US Interests at a time when America is looking to change its relationship with Iraq from military overlords to civilian partners. Senior officials in Iraq have given the Guardian details of the behind-the scenes Iranian campaign which began in earnest in early September this year. At the time US had only just withdrawn its last dedicated combat units from Iraq but left behind a political vacuum with no government in place after March elections delivered a seemingly irrevocably split Parliament. The revelations come amid sharp criticism of the US diplomatic role in Iraq since the election.
The Indian move is seen as an effort towards allaying concerns of American companies on account of the newlyenacted Nuclear Liability law by Parliament. “We can confirm that the Indian government has signed the CSC this morning,” International Atomic Energy Agency officials said. The international convention provides for compensation in case of transnational Indian Ambassador to Austria and implications of a Resident Representative to the IAEA nuclear accident and Dinkar Khullar signs the Convention has been signed by 14 on Supplementary Compensation for countries, including Nuclear Damage at the International India. Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) headHowever, only quarters in Vienna on Oct. 27. Johan four countries—US, Rautenbach, Director, IAEA (Office of Argentina, Morocco Legal Affairs), is seen second from and Romania have left. ratified the convention so far. Upon entry into force, the Convention on Supplementary Compensation for Nuclear Damage would establish a uniform global legal regime for compensation to victims in the unlikely event of a nuclear accident. The CSC provides for establishment of an international fund to increase the amount available to compensate victims and allows for compensating civil damage occurring within a state's exclusive economic zone, including loss of tourism or fisheries-related income. It also sets parameters on a nuclear operator's financial liability, time limits governing possible legal action, requires that nuclear operators maintain insurance or other security measures and provides for a single competent court to hear claims.
17th ASEAN Summit
The 17th Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN) Summit was held in Hanoi in last week of October 2010. The leaders from the member countries gathered to discuss the building of the ASEAN Community and other related topics. Delivering his speech at the opening ceremony Vietnamese Prime Minister Nguyen Tan Dung said that the meeting would take stock of the ASEAN Community building process and define priority in the future. Apart from the Annual ASEAN + 1 Summits with China, Japan, South Korea and India, the bloc held summits with Australia, New Zealand, Russia and the United Nations. The ASEAN also considered the elevation of the ASEAN—South Korea relationship into a strategic partnership in addition to the existing ones with China and Japan.
India Signs Nuclear Liability Treaty
? ? ? The treaty has so far been signed by 14 countries. It has been ratified by 4 countries, including the US. Bid to allay fears over liability Bill.
In a significant step which will enable it to do nuclear commerce, India on October 27, 2010, signed the Convention on Supplementary Compensation (CSC), which sets parameters on a nuclear operator's financial liability, at the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) at Vienna.
PD/December/2010/990
“There is only one good, knowledge, and one evil, ignorance.”
The master plans and declarations passed at the 17th ASEAN Summit and related summits created a firm foundation for the region to move forward. The three-day series of summits with the theme of ‘Towards the ASEAN Community from vision to action’ gathered ten ASEAN members and several partners—China, Japan, and United States. ASEAN leaders at the meeting adopted the Master Plan on ASEAN Connectivity to enhance physical, institutional and people to people connectivity in ASEAN. Leaders of ASEAN also passed two important documents at the meeting. The first one is on human resources and skills development for economic recoveryand sustainable growth, aiming to create new impetus for the regional growth. The second one is on welfare and development for ASEAN women and children. It is expected to contribute to the improvement of the social safety net in ASEAN. According to Vietnamese Prime Minister Nguyen Tan Dung who is also ASEAN Chair 2010 ASEAN countries expressed strong determination at the meeting to intensify national efforts to enhance cooperation to address challenges like climate change, natural disasters and pandemic diseases. In the meetings between ASEAN and partners, the discussion through ASEAN-led mechanisms such as ASEAN + 1, ASEAN + 3 and East Asia Summit were fruitful.
News in a Nutshell
Protector of the Seas
Bay Watch : Samudra Prahari, the first-ever pollution-control warship, arrived at Karwar from Mumbai on October 22. The warship has two sophisticated equipments to control oil spillage and pollution and it is the first such warship in Asia and the third in the world. This ship will help control oil pollution, provide deep-sea protection and security to the coast. The ship was commissioned on October 9. Manoj Badkar, deputy inspector general and commanding officer, is in charge.
$ 2.29 billion US Aid to Pakistan to Fight Terror
The United States on October 22, 2010 announced that it would provide a whopping $ 2.29 billion as military aid to Pakistan to bolster its army's antiterror capabilities, notwithstanding India's concerns that Islamabad has been diverting a portion of such assistance against it. Applauding Pakistan's role in the war against terror, US Secretary of State Hillary Clinton said that the US had no stronger partner when it comes to counter terrorism than Islamabad. Ms. Clinton made the remarks at the opening of the third US-Pakistan Strategic Dialogue with her Pakistani counterpart Shah Mahmood Qureshi.
P.Darpan
Fifth East Asia Summit
The fifth East Asia Summit (EAS) was held in Hanoi (Vietnam) in last week of October 2010. The leaders of ASEAN and six dialogue partners gathered to discuss strategic issues of relevance to the region. The six dialogue partners China, Japan, South Korea, India, Australia and New Zealand held talks and exchanged views on regional and international issues in the East Asian region with ASEAN nations that include Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand and Vietnam. Russian Foreign Minister Sergei Lavrov and U.S. Scretary of State Hillary Clinton were invited to attend this year’s EAS as special guests. Prime Minister Doctor Manmohan Singh also held talks with leaders on various strategic issues. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh called for moving beyond making policy declarations and dealing with immediate challenges to greater functional cooperation. Speaking at the Fifth EAS summit, the Prime Minister defined the overall goal of forging a wider Asian community as achieving integration on economic, political, security, social and cultural issues. He also dwellt on the world economic situation ahead of next G-20 summit in Seoul and termed the recovery as fragile. This required ‘firm resistance’ to new protectionist measures in industrialised countries and reduction of existing barriers to trade. Protectionism was not the answer to trade and balance of payments problems, he added.
PD/December/2010/991
“I am not an Athenian or a Greek, but a citizen of the world.”
GUJARAT
BJP Sweeps Gujarat Local Bodies Elections
In Gujarat local bodies elections held in October 2010, BJP swept all six municipal corporation elections, BJP captured the Ahmedabad, Surat, Vadodara, Rajkot, Jamnagar and Bhavnagar municipal corporations. The party claimed 41 of the 53 municipalities while the opposition Congress could only win three municipalities with three going to others. In the Porbandar and the Botad municipalities, the BJP and Congress have each one 21 seats. BJP also registered impressive victory in rural Gujarat as it claimed 21 of the 24 district panchayats. The Party also claimed 162 of the 208 taluk panchayats and 41 of the 53 municipalities, elections for which were held in October 2010. The Congress was wiped out from the entire KutchSaurashtra and Central Gujarat regions. The Congress only won the Gandhinagar and Tapi district panchayats, while in the Broach district panchayat six independents held the key as the BJP won 14 and the Congress 11 seats in the 31-member House. In the elections to the 208 of the 225 taluk panchayats the Congress had 81 taluk panchayats under its control before. The BJP’s strength increased from 127 to 162 taluk panchayats. Two taluk panchayats went to the Janata Dal (United). No party was able to secure a clear majority in six bodies.
Sanskrit Awards Given Away
Haryana Governor Jagannath Pahadia honoured 12 Sanskrit litterateurs in Chandigarh on October 22, 2010. The Governor conferred the Maharishi Valmiki Puraskar, Maharishi Ved Vyas Puraskar and Maharishi Baan Bhatt Puraskar for 2008-09 on Ram Bhagat Sharma, Swami Nigambodh Tirath and Baldev Singh Mehra respectively. The awards for 2009-10 were conferred on Acharya Vijay Pal Vidyawaridhi, R.B. Langyan and Sri Krishan Sharma. The Guru Virjanand Acharya Puraskar, Vidyamartanda Pandit Sita Ram Shastri Acharya Puraskar and Pandit Yudhistir Mimansak Acharya Puraskar for the year 2008-09 were conferred on Sadhu Ram Shastri, Daya Krishan Panth and Devi Dutt Vats. The awards for 200910 were conferred on Ranjit Mishra, Hukum Chand Sharma and Ram Swaroop Shastri. Besides, the Haryana Government has instituted Haryana Sanskrit Gaurav Puraskar for Sanskrit Literature. This award will be given from next year. This was announced during the Sanskrit Sahityakar Samman Samaroh organised on the occasion of Maharishi Valmiki birth anniversary at the Haryana Raj Bhawan in Chandigarh on October 22, 2010. The award would carry Rs. 1·50 lakh in cash. Also, the prize money of the Guru Virjanand Acharya Puraskar, Vidhyamartanda Pandit Sita Ram Acharya Puraskar and Pandit Yudhistir Mimansak Acharya Puraskar has been hiked to Rs. 51,000 each.
JHARKHAND HARYANA
Munda Cabinet Expanded Awards Instituted for Women
The Haryana Government has instituted three statelevel awards to honour those women who have excelled in various fields. This was announced by Haryana Finance Minister on October 17, 2010. The awards are Indira Gandhi Shakti Awards which will be given to those women who have done selfless service to society and have played a model role in the field of rehabilitation of women and children. Another award Kalpana Chawla Shoriya Award would be given to those women who have shown exemplary courage while putting their lives at risk. The Bahin Shanno Devi Panchayati Raj Award (named after woman Speaker of Haryana) would be given to those women panchayati leaders who have done outstanding work on women empowerment and female literary. The Indira Gandhi Mahila Shakti Award would carry Rs. 1 lakh whereas Kalpana Chawla Shoriya Award and Bahin Shanno Devi Panchayati Raj Award would carry Rs. 51,000 each. Jharkhand Chief Minister Arjun Munda on October 8, 2010 expanded his Cabinet by inducting nine more ministers. With their induction, the total strength of Cabinet has gone upto 12. The total representation of Jharkhand Mukti Morcha in the Cabinet is five including Deputy Chief Minister Hemant Soren. The other JMM ministers are Hemalal Murmu, Champai Soren, Haji Hussain Ansari and Mathura Matho. The three new BJP ministers are Baijnath Ram, Vimla Pradhan and Satyanand Jha. The All Jharkhand Students Union (AJSU) and JD(U) members inducted into the cabinet are—Chandra Prakash Chaudhary and Gopal Krishn Patar alias Raja Peter.
KERALA
Congress-Led Front Emerges Victorious in Local Bodies Elections
In a keenly-fought local bodies elections in Kerala Congress-led United Democratic Front (UDF) has
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“A fashion is nothing but an induced epidemic.”
emerged winner in majority of districts, blocks and grampanchayats. The elections were held in October 2010. As per statistics the UDF has wrested control of the Thiruvananthapuram, Pathanamthitta, Kottayam, Idukki, Ernakulam, Thrissur, Malappuram and Wayanad district panchayats, leaving Kollam, Alappuzha, Palakkad, Kannur and Kasaragod to the CPI (M)-led LDF. The LDF secured 25 as against 71 block panchayasts won by the UDF. None of the fronts secured absolute majority in two block panchayats—Perumgadavila in Thiruvananthapuram district and Pandalam in Pathanamthitta district. The UDF has got majority in 530 grama panchayats and the LDF in 258. As in the case of the blocks, neither the UDF nor the LDF got an absolute majority in 52 grama panchayats. Either the independents or the BJP members will prove to be a decisive factor in the 53 grampanchayats. The UDF upstaged the LDF in two out of the five City Corporations, in Kochi and Thrissur, and won 38 out of the 58 municipalities. It may be noted here that during the previous round of local body elections in 2005, the LDF had secured all the five City Corporations and got absolute majority in 90 per cent of the municipalities, blocks and grampanchayats. A shift to the UDF.
discovered oil and natural gas in 25 blocks of the region. 3000-6000 million cubic metre natural gas deposits have also been reported to be found. The 25 oilfields as discovered by Cairn Energy in Barmer-Sanchore basin include Mangala, Aishwarya, Saraswati, Shakti and Rajashwari. Cairn Energy was issued licences for carrying out investigations in 21 blocs and minings lease in 10 blocs by the Rajasthan Government. The state has earned an income of Rs. 517·77 crore as revenue from oil and natural gas till September 2010. P.Darpan
Continued from Page 984
The Centre Constitutes Environment Tribunal
In a bid to protect environment the Centre has taken an important step by constituting a National Green Tribunal on October 19, 2010. The Tribunal will be headquartered in Delhi and it will have four benches. The former judge of the Supreme Court Justice Lokeshwar Singh Panta has been appointed its Chairman. The tribunal can punish those who cause damage to environment or violate environmental laws. The Tribunal can impose a fine of upto Rs. 10 crore on an individual and Rs. 25 crore on a company and can award rigorous imprisonment also. It can take a Suo Moto action on matters pertaining to environment. A Bill was passed about it in the last session of Parliament, now known as National Green Tribunal Act.
PUNJAB
Projects Worth Rs. 2,552 crore Approved
The State Empowered Committee in October 2010 approved mega manufacturing projects in Punjab. They include four industrial parks. Which are Chandigarh Infrastructure Developers, Punnu Land Developers, a consortium of Penguin Buildtech and Veer Colonizers and Builders and Taksonz Developers and Infrastructure worth Rs. 694 crore for the districts of Mohali, Ludhiana and Amritsar. Besides these four industrial parks, three hotels and a health tourism project have also been approved. The investment in these projects stands at Rs. 2,552·08 crore. The projects are expected to generate direct and indirect employment for 25,343 people. The projects approved at the Committee meeting, held under the chairmanship of Chief Minister Prakash Singh Badal, are : Amtek Railcar Industries, Alliance Integrated Metaliks, Madhav Alloys, Chadha Sugars, Nahar Spinning Mills, Max India and Puneet Spintex in the districts of Fatehgarh Sahib, Patiala, Gurdaspur, Ludhiana, Malerkotla and Nawanshahr.
India, Iraq Modify Bilateral Air Service Pact
India and Iraq on October 19 modified a bilateral air service agreement, permitting each to operate up to 12 flights a week to four destinations in the other's territory. The 1955 agreement was modified following two days of consultations between delegates of the two nations, led by Prashant Sukul, secretary, civil aviation ministry, and Iraq's Air Traffic Services director Ali K. Ibrahim. Indian airlines will now be able to operate direct flights to Baghdad, Basrah, Al Najaf and one more point to be specified later.
GOM Nod for India-Malaysia Pact on Roads
A ministerial panel on roads has approved a proposal for an agreement between India and Malaysia on highway projects, road transport and highways minister Kamal Nath said. Earlier, certain clauses in the proposal are believed to have raised eyebrows in the Cabinet and it was referred to a Group of Minister by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh.
UAV Nishant Test Successful
The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has successfully test flown the indigenous unmanned Aerial Vehicle Nishant, which was used to try out the technology for monitoring the UAV’s health in flight.
RAJASTHAN
Barmer Basin has 480 million tonnes Oil
Rajasthan Petroleum Minister Ramlal Jat recently announced : the presence of 3·6 billion barrel that is—480 million tonnes of crude oil in the Barmer—Sanchore basin of the state. It may be added here that Cairn Energy has
Elephant Declared a Heritage Animal
The Central government on October 22, 2010 declared elephant a national heritage animal to step up measures for their protection. P.Darpan
PD/December/2010/993
“A lifetime of happiness ! No man alive could bear it; it would be hell on earth.”
AIS—Automatic Identification Systems. DEAL—Defence Electronics Application Laboratory. FAC—Fast Attack Craft. FIC—Fast Interceptor Craft. HINDRAF—Hindu Rights Action Force. UAV—Unmanned Aerial Vehicle.
He had a stint in the Special Security Group and later served as Inspector-General of Police (Operations) in the BSF in Kashmir. During his tenure in the NPA, Mr. Vijay Kumar made jungle warfare training mandatory to IPS probationers.
Kasturiranjan to Chair JNU Vice-Chancellor Search Panel
As visitor of Jawahar Lal Nehru University (JNU), President Pratibha Patil has cleared the name of eminent space scientist K. Kasturiranjan as her nominee to chair the search committee for selection of the Vice-Chancellor for the University. The term of the incumbent B. B. Bhattacharya got over in June this year.
Mohamed Abdullahi Mohamed
Somalia’s President on October 14, 2010 appointed a Somali-American diplomat Mohamed Abdullahi Mohamed as his Prime Minister, filling a post vacant for almost two months. Mr. Abdullahi (49) takes over from Omar Abdirashid Ali Sharmaske who resigned in September after a long running power struggle with the President.
New Director for Delhi Transco
S. N. Jha, an IAS officer of AGMU cadre, took over as Director (HR) of Delhi Transco on October 8. He has earlier served as Deputy Commissioner MCD, General Manager Delhi State Industrial Development Corporation and Additional Commissioner (Food and Supplies). Mr. Jha has also been given additional charge of Director (HR) of Indraprastha Power Generation Company, Pragati Power Corporation and Delhi Power Company.
K. Vijay Kumar
K. Vijay Kumar, Director, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy (NPA), Hyderabad has been appointed the new Director-General of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) headquartered in New Delhi. Mr. Kumar replaces Vikram Srivastava, who has been transferred and posted as Director of the Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPR&D) in the place of Prasun Mukherjee, who retired on September 30. Mr. Kumar, a 1975–batch IPS officer of Tamil Nadu cadre K. Vijay Kumar, new Directortook charge of his new General of the Central Reserve assignment on October Police Force at its headquarters in 6, 2010. He is the only New Delhi on October 6. IPS officer in the State to have been awarded the President’s Police Medal for Gallantry. Mr. Vijay Kumar is the first officer from the Tamil Nadu cadre chosen to head the CRPF. Earlier, he was part of the Special Protection Group team that provided security to the former Prime Minister, Rajiv Gandhi.
Anirudh Uppal
The central government on October 20, 2010 approved the appointment of senior IPS officer Anirudh Uppal as head of the CRPF in Jammu & Kashmir. Uppal, a 1976-batch Himachal Pradesh cadre officer, will be the new Special Director General of the CRPF in Jammu and Kashmir following the approval of the Appointments Committee of Cabinet headed by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh. Uppal was serving as the Additional Director-General in Indo-Tibetan Border Police and has earlier served as Inspector General with the elite NSG in Delhi.
Indian-American Sworn in as US Top Science Official
IIT Madras alumnus, Subra Suresh, has been appointed as the Director of America's National Science Foundation (NSF), the top US science body with a $ 7·4 billion budget to support scientific institutions. He is the 13th director of the NSF. He has served as dean of the engineering school and as Vannevar Bush Professor of Engineering at MIT (Massachusetts Institute of Technology). A mechanical engineer, who later became interested in materials science and biology, Suresh has done pioneering work studying the biomechanics of blood cells under the influence of diseases such as malaria.
PD/December/2010/994
“Criminals do not die by the hands of the law. They die by the hands of other men.”
From 2000 to 2006, Suresh served as the head of the MIT Department of Materials Science and Engineering. He joined MIT in 1993 as the R P Simmons Professor of Materials Science and Engineering and held joint faculty appointments in the departments of mechanical engineering and biological engineering, as well as the division of health sciences and technology.
Nepalese Teen Named World’s Shortest Man
Nepalese teen Khagendra Thapa Magar, 18, who stands just a little over 2 feet, on Wednesday received a memorable birthday gift—title of the world’s shortest man. Khagendra measured 67·08 cm tall, nearly 2 inches shorter than his predecessor, Guinness World Records announced. He snatched the record from Colombia’s Edward ‘Nino’ Hernandez. On being announced the new shortest living man, Khagendra Thapa Magar is Khagendra, who weighs 6·5 kg, weighed before being said, “I don’t consider myself declared world’s shortest man. to be a small man. I am a big man.”
Napalchyal Sworn in as Uttarakhand CIC
Uttarakhand governor Margaret Alva on October 20 administered an oath of office and secrecy to newlyappointed Uttarakhand Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) N. S. Napalchyal and two other information commissioners—Prabhat Dabral and Anil Sharma—at a simple ceremony held at Raj Bhavan. Napalchyal, 60,who retired voluntarily as Uttarakhand chief secretary, replaces RS Tolia who retired a couple of days ago.
V. Radhakrishnan
Eighty one year old Professor V. Radhakrishnan, eminent radio astronomer and Trustee of the Raman Research Institute, Bangalore, is one of the few Indians who have been criss-crossing the oceans in a yacht, that too designed by him. The son of Sir C. V. Raman, he is on a mission to learn more on his chosen field on his yacht ‘Eldemer’. He is planning to call at many continents while circumnavigating the world. Though Eldemer can accommodate six people, Professor Radhakrishnan Professor V. Radhakrishnan at the is taking along two Kochi marina on October 4. people from Bangalore and two from Kochi on the global expedition. He is not a novice in seafaring, having sailed from Britain to Australia through the Atlantic and the Pacific, in 1965. He has been working on the yacht for the past six years and in between has sailed to Sri Lanka, Oman and Yemen. Professor Radhakrishnan was in Kochi when the Kochi Marina—the first of its kind in India, was commissioned. While in Kochi, he participated in the Vasco Da Gama yacht rally.
Xi Jinping
Chinese Vice-President Xi Jinping has been promoted to Vice-Chairman of a key Communist Party military committee, state media reported on October 18. Party leaders also pledged to make vigorous yet steady efforts to promote political restructuring, Xinhua said, citing a document issued at October 18’s close of an annual meeting of the ruling party’s Central Committee. Xi Jinping Xinhua also gave few details about Xi’s appointment to the Central Military Commission that overseas the 2·3 million member People’s Liberation Army (PLA).
PERSONS IN THE NEWS
Priti Kumar
Priti Kumar (34) is the first motorwoman of western railway. October 13 was a historic day for the Western Railway (WR) when the first suburban train driven by a motorwoman chugged out of Churchgate station in Mumbai amidst a great reception from commuters who gathered at the station to witness the memorable moment. As Priti Kumar drove the Churchgate—Borivli train the cameramen went on a shooting rampage while the commuters cheered as they went on a historic train ride. “It’s a matter of pride for all of us. Priti Kumar, first motorwoman of The train journey is western railway takes first ride to Borivli symbolic of women not being less than men. Gone are the days when women would look only after routine household chores,” said an emotional Prakash Gangad who commuted in the Borivlibound train.
Marisol Valles Garcia
The 20-year old Marisol Valles Garcia has become the Police Chief in Mexico in the borderland where drug gangs have killed public officials and terrified many citizens into fleeing. Ms. Garcia was sworn in on October 20, 2010 to bring law and order to a township of about 8,500 that has been transformed from a sting of quiet farming communities into a lawless no man’s land. The tiny but nergetic Valles Garcia whose only police experience was a stint as a
PD/December/2010/995
“Democracy is a device that ensures we shall be governed no better than we deserve.”
department secretary says she wants her 13 officers to practise a special brand of community policing.
Benoit Mandelbot
Benoit Mandelbrot, a French-American mathematician who explored a new class of mathematical shapes known as ‘fractuals’ died at the age of 85 in Cambridge, Massachusetts U.S.A. The New York Times reported on October 16, 2010. Mandelbrot’s book ‘Fractual Geometry of Nature’, published in 1982 argued that irregular mathematical objects once dismissed as ‘pathological’ were a reflection of nature. He is known as the father of fractual geometry. The fractual geometry he developed would be used to measure natural phenomena like clouds or coastlines that were once believed to be unmeasurable. He applied the theory to physics, biology, finance and many other fields of study. He in fact had effectively revolutionised his field. He has been described as an “icon who changed how we see the world”. In the USA and around the world his work attracted the attention of academics.
DEATHS
Dame Joan Sutherland
Australian opera legend Dame Joan Sutherland was hailed as ‘La Stupenda’ and ‘voice of the century’ on October 10, 2010 after she died following an illness aged 83, leaving behind an extraordinary legacy. Ms. Sutherland dazzled European audiences with her vocal range and ability from the 1950s until after her retirement in 1990, after her family announced her death at her Swiss home on the shores of Lake Geneva. Ms. Sutherland had risen from obscure roots in Sydney, Australia, where she was born to a tone deaf father and musicloving mother in 1926.
Farooq Leghari
Joan Sutherland
Solomon Burke
Soul singer Solomon Burke, who wrote Everybody Needs Somebody To Love’ and recovered the hit ‘Cry to Me’ used in the movie ‘Dirty Dancing’ died at Amsterdam's Schirphol airport. He was 70. Dutch national broadcaster NOS said Burke died on a plane early on October 10 after arriving on a flight from Los Angeles. Mr. Burke was both a Grammy winner and a member of the Rock and Roll Hall of Fame. He was known as ‘King of Rock and Soul’.
Farooq Ahmed Khan Leghari, Pakistan’s eighth President died on October 19, 2010 after a prolonged illness. He was 70. Mr. Leghari was President from November 14, 1993 to December 2, 1997. Mr. Leghari began his political career with the Pakistan People’s Party but fell out with it when he dismissed the then Prime Minister Benazir Bhutto’s government in 1996. Farooq Leghari Born on May 2, 1940, Mr. Leghari in this 1996 file did his schooling and graduation in photo. Pakistan before going to Oxford University for post-graduation. He returned to Pakistan to join the Civil Services from which he resigned in 1973 to join the PPP.
Soundara Kailasam
Eminent Tamil poet and writer Soundara Kailasam, who is the mother-in-law of Union Home Minister P. Chidambaram passed away on October 16, 2010 at her residence in Chennai. She was 83. Though she hadn’t got full academic education, she won laurel for herself in several fields. She was a member of the Senate of the Madras University, Annamalai University and the Thanjavur Tamil Varsity. She also served as a Member of the State Backward classes Commission. Soundara She published poetry collections, Kailasam essays and short stories. She was awarded the Asan Prize for Poetry in 1989 for the poetry collection ‘Soundara Kailasam Kanthaigal’. The Islamic Literary conference held at Kilakkarai 1990 gave an award for her contributions to Islamic literature also. Her book ‘Alavartra Arulalah’ was released by the Islamic Foundation, as a unique recognition to a Hindu woman writing an Islamic text. Mrs. Kailasam was also an orator of great distinction, at a time when few women came forward to make public speeches in the state.
K. E. Eapen
K. E. Eapen, a pioneer in journalism and communication education in the country passed away in Bangalore on October 23, 2010. He was 87. Professor Eapen was actively associated with journalism for over 50 years, having set up three university departments of journalism and communication, and many organisations connected with the field. Professor Eapen was the first convener of the University Grants CommisK. E. Eapen sion (UGC) panel in mass communication, and the first UGC National Lecturer and Emeritus Fellow, Journalism/Communication. Dr. Eapen was recently honoured in New Delhi with the AMIC Asian Communication Award. His book ‘Critical Issues in Communication : Looking Inward for Answers’ proves beyond doubt that he was one of the most distinguished communication teachers and analysts in India.
PD/December/2010/996
“England and America are two countries separated by a common language.”
Nestor Kirchner
The former Argentine President, Nestor Kirchner—the country’s most powerful politician along with his wife, current President Crisitina Fernandez— died suddenly on October 27, 2010 after suffering from severe heart attack. He was 60. Mr. Kirchner was a likely candidate in next year’s presidential elections. He also served as Secretary-General of the South American alliance known as Unasur, as a Congressman and as leader of the Peronist party.
ICC Test World XI : M. S. Dhoni (captain), Virender Sehwag, Simon Katich, Sachin Tendulkar, Hashim Amla, Kumar Sangakkara, Jacques Kallis, Graeme Swann, James Anderson, Dale Steyn and Doug Bollinger. ICC ODI World XI : Ricky Ponting (captain), Sachin Tendulkar, Shane Watson, Michael Hussey, A. B. de Villiers, Paul Collingwood, M. S. Dhoni (wicketkeeper), Daniel Vettori, Stuart Broad, Doug Bollinger and Ryan Harris.
Wei Zhang Wins SASTRA Ramanujan Prize
Nestor Kirchner with his wife Crisitina Fernandez in Buenos Aires in this December 10, 2007.
AWARDS AND HONOURS
LG ICC Awards Given Away : Sachin is Cricketer of the Year
Sachin Tendulkar emerged winner at the LG ICC Awards on October 6, 2010 in Bangalore after receiving two awards simultaneously. He bagged t he Sir Garfield Sobers Cricketer of the Year Award and LG People’s Choice Award. Tendulkar became the second Indian to receive the award after Rahul Dravid got it in 2004. Virender Sehwag with 1, 282 runs to his credit in Test cricket was adjudged ‘the Test Cricketer of the Year’ while Mahendra Singh Sachin Tendulkar with the two Dhoni was named the trophies he received at the LG ICC skipper of a World Test Awards night in Bangalore on XI. A. B. de Villiers of October 6, 2010. South Africa was adjudged the ODI Player of the Year. While Shelley Nitschke of Australia was given the Women’s Cricketer of the Year Award Steven Finn of England was declared the Emerging Player of the Year. The List of the awardees : Sir Garfield Sobers Cricketer of the Year : Sachin Tendulkar, LG People’s Choice Award : Sachin Tendulkar; Women’s Cricketer of the Year : Shelley Nitschke (Australia); Test Player of the Year : Virender Sehwag; ODI Player of the Year : A. B. de Villiers (South Africa); Spirit of Cricket : New Zealand; Umpire of the Year : Aleem Dar (Pakistan); Emerging Player : Steven Finn (England); Associate and Affiliate Player : Ryan ten Doeschate (Netherlands); Twenty-20 International Performance of the Year : Brendon McCullum (of New Zealand for his unbeaten 116 against Australia at Christchurch of February 28, 2010). Inductees into the ICC Hall of Fame : Bishan Singh Bedi, Joel Garner, Courtney Walsh and Rachael Heyhoe Flint.
Wei Zhang—a Benjamin Pierce instructor at the Department of Mathematics. Harvard University (USA) has been honoured with the 2010 SASTRA Ramanujan Prize. As per a recent release from the Shanmugha Arts, Sciences, Technology, Research Academy (SASTRA) University. Dr. Wei Zhang has been recognised for making a profound influence at the young age of 29 in a wide range of areas of mathematics. It may be mentioned here that SASTRA Ramanujan Prize was established in 2005 and is given annually for outstanding contribution by very young mathematicians in areas influenced by Indian mathematician Srinivasan Ramanujan.
Tribal Woman Gets Women’s World Summit Foundation Prize for 2010
Santosh Bai—a former woman sarpanch who belongs to the backward Sahariya tribal community of Baran district in Rajasthan has bagged the prestigious Women’s World Summit Foundation (WWSF) prize for 2010. She was given the award on October 17, 2010 in recognition of Former woman Sarpanch of Balada her achievements village of Rajasthan Santosh Bai challenging men’s receiving Women’s World Summit dominance in her Foundation prize from former State village and defying High Court Judge Panachand Jain in irrational customs Jaipur on October 17, 2010 imposed on women on the pretext of traditional beliefs. It may be added here that Geneva-based WWSF and International Empowerment Network for women has been awarding the prize for women’s creativity in rural life to the members of fair sex from across the world. Santosh Bai of Balada village in Baran district is among the eleven recipients of the prize in 2010. The citation reads Santosh Bai, as an ‘outstanding tribal woman’ who committed herself to ending harmful myths and practices and discrimination against women.
J. K. Rowling Bags Danish Award
Harry Potter author J. K. Rowling has recently won the Hans Christian Anderson Literature Prize. She is the first recipient of the 5,00,000 kroner ($ 93,352) award. The award was given to her on October 19, 2010. It may be added here that the prize is given to a person who can be compared with Anderson, the Danish writer who was born in 1805 and wrote some 160 fairy tales and poems before his death in 1875.
PD/December/2010/997
“Everything happens to everybody sooner or later if there is time enough.”
Howard Jacobson : Winner of the 2010 Man Booker Prize for Fiction
British writer and journalist Howard Jacobson’s novel ‘The Finkler Question’ has won the 2010 Man Booker Prize for Fiction. The Finkler Question is the semi-autobiographical comic take on his Jewish identity. Jacobson who was born in Manchester currently lives in London. He won this prestigious prize after beating Tom Mc Carthy’s C and Emma Donoghue’s Room. ‘The Finkler Question’ is described as a novel Howard Jacobson, about “love, loss and male winner of the 2010 Man friendship” and explores what it Booker Prize for Fiction, means to be Jewish in today’s age. poses with his book The Critics say—the novel has some Finkler Question. wittiest, most poignant and sharply intelligent comic prose in the English language. Jacobson’s other famous novels are ‘Kalooki Nights’ and ‘Who’s Sorry Now’ ?
difficult regions of Ladakh get water supply in April and May—the most crucial period of sowing. Chunibhai Vaidya, a nonagenarian from Ahmedabad, was given the award for outstanding contribution in the field of constructive work. Mr. Vaidya has been active in many movements in Gujarat and Rajasthan for betterment of the poor and the marginalised. The award for development and welfare of women and children was given to Shakuntala Choudhary, a nonagenarian from Assam. The award for promoting Gandhian values outside India was given to Lia Diskin from Brazil. It may be added here that the winners were chosen from 124 nominations across the world.
Miss USA Alexandria Mills Crowned Miss World 2010
Miss USA Alexandria Mills was crowned the 60th Miss World 2010 on October 30, 2010 in China’s Sanya City. Miss Botswana Emma Wareus was named the first
Asian Awards 2010 Presented
India’s Cricketer Sachin Tendulkar was honoured with Lebara People’s Choice Award at the inaugural Asian Awards given in last week of October 2010 in London. Ratheesan Yoganathan CEO Lebara while presenting the award to Sachin Tendulkar said. “Tendulkar is one of the greatest cricketers of all time”. The Asian Awards 2010, presented by Lord Sebastian Coe, saw leaders in business, sports and the arts in attendance, including award winners Yash Chopra, A. R. Rahman and Vijay Mallya alongside guests Jermaine Jackson, Nasser Hussain OBE, Gurinder Chadha, Christian Louboutin and playback singer Sonu Nigam. Oscar-award winning music director Rahman won the award for outstanding achievement in music, while Yash Chopra received the outstanding achievement award in Cinema. Liquor-baron Vijay Mallya was chosen as the ‘Entrepreneur of the Year’ while telecom giant Bharti-Airtel owner Sunil Mittal was named the ‘Philanthropist of the year’. Mittal’s award was collected by Eiesha Bharti Pasricha. Bollywood Star Amitabh Bachchan got the ‘Lifetime Achievement award’. Other recipients of the awards were : Ratan Tata (Business Leader of the Year, collected by Anwar Hasan), Zarin Patel (Public Servant of the year), Prof. Muhammad Yunus (Social Entrepreneur of the year, collected by Shiban Mahbub), Abu Jani and Sandeep Khosla (Outstanding achievement in Arts and Design), George Alagiah OBE (Outstanding achievement in Television).
Miss World 2010 Alexandria Mills
runner-up while Miss Venezuela Adriana Vasini was named the second runner-up. Indian beauty Manasvi Mamgai even failed to find a place in the top 20. The jury included former Miss World winners Denise Perrier Lan franchi (1953), Ann Sidney (1964), Mary Stavin (1977) Agbani Darego (2001) and Maria Julia Mant.
National Safety Awards Presented
Union Minister for Labour and Employment Mallikarjun Kharge presented the National Safety Council of India (NSCI) Safety Awards for 2009 on October 30, 2010 in Mumbai. These awards are given to promote occupational safety, health and welfare of labourers in the industry. Shapoorji Pallonji and Co. Ltd. won the first prize in the construction sector for their project for General Motors India in Talegaon, Maharashtra. Cray Valley Resins India Private Ltd., and the Maharashtra Industrial Development Corporation India (MIDC), Navi Mumbai won the first prize in Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) sector. In the manufacturing sector, the second prize was distributed among five companies including the Kakrapar Atomic Power Station at Anumala, Gujarat. There was no winner of the first prize in this sector. Out of the 290 applicant companies assessed in all three sectors, 54 companies have been awarded for safe labour practices.
Jamnalal Bajaj Awards Presented
President Pratibha Patil on October 28, 2010 presented the Jamnalal Bajaj Awards for 2010 for outstanding contributions in social development. Chewang Norphel, a 74-year-old civil engineer from Ladakh, was presented the award for application of science and technology for rural development. His ‘artificial glacier’ has helped farmers in the dry and
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“Hell is full of musical amateurs.”
NOBEL PRIZES 2010
The Nobel Prizes for 2010 were announced in October 2010.
Medicine
British scientist Robert Edwards has been selected for the 2010 Nobel Prize for Medicine. He has been given this award for his pioneering work in in-vitro-fertilization (IVF). It was Robert Edwards whose pioneering research with his late colleague Patrick Steptoe (who died in 1988) led to the birth of the world’s first test tube baby. The Nobel Assembly at Sweden’s Karolinska Institute which awarded the prize (worth ten million Swedish Kronor) described his work as a milestone of modern medicine. It said in a statement—“His work has made possible the treatment of infertility—a medical condition that affects a large proportion of humanity including more than 10% of couples worldwide” Edwards along with his late colleague Steptoe founded the Bourn Hall Clinic in Cambridge—which is the world’s first In-Vetro-Fertilization Centre.
Robert Edwards
Physics
Russian born Andrei Geim and Konstantin Novoselov of Manchester University were named joint winners of the Nobel Prize for Physics for 2010. They have been bestowed with the award for their groundbreaking work on experiments with graphene—a new form of carbon. Professor Geim is Dutch citizen. The Prize Committee said—“Since it is practically transparent and a good conductor, graphene could be used for producing transparent touch screens, light panels and may be even solar cells”. Thus graphene has immense possibilities. As a material graphene is completely new and almost completely transparent yet so dense that not even helium (the smallest gas atom) can pass through it.
Professor Konstantin Novoselov (left) and Professor Andrei Geim, winners of the 2010 Nobel Physics Prize
Chemistry
Three scientists—Akira Suzuki and Ei-ichi Negishi from Japan and Richard F. Heck from United States of America have won the Nobel Prize for Chemistry for 2010 in October 2010. They have been awarded the Nobel Prize for inventing new ways to bind carbon atom with uses that range from fighting cancer to producing thin computer screens. Akira Suzuki, Ei-ichi Negishi and Richard Heck shared the prize for the development of palladium—‘catalysed cross coupling’. The Nobel Committee for Chemistry at the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences said in a statement—“Palladium—catalysed cross coupling is used in research worldwide as well as in the commercial production of—for example, pharmaceuticals and molecules used in the electronics industry”.
The winners of the 2010 Nobel Prize in Chemistry. (From left) Akira Suzuki, Ei-ichi Negishi and Richard F. Heck.
Literature
Peruvian—Spanish author and one of the most renowned novelists of his generation Mario Vargas Llosa (74) has won the Nobel Prize for Literature for 2010 for “his Cartography of structures of power and his trenchant images of the individual’s resistance, revolt and defeat”. In the words of Peter England— Permanent Secretary of the Swedish Academy—“Mr. Llosa is one of the great Latin American storytellers—a master of dialogue who has been searching for the elusive concept known as the total novel and who believes in the power of fiction to improve upon the world”. Mr. Llosa’s first major international breakthrough came in 1963, with the publication of the novel Mario Vargas Llosa The 2010 Nobel Prize The Time of the Hero. Winner for Literature His other profoundly influential novel was The Feast of the Goat (2000). Other well known works include Aunt Julia and the Scriptwriter (1977), The War of the End of the World (1981) and, more recently, Death in the Andes (1993). ‘Conversation in the Cathedral’ published in 1969 was his monumental work.
Peace
Chinese political activist Liu Xiaobo (aged 54) who is in the jail has been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize for 2010. The Norwegian Nobel Committee which gives the award said—“Mr. Liu has been given the award for his calls for political reform, for his long and non-violent struggle for fundamental human rights Liu Xiaobo. in China”. “The Norwegian Nobel Committee has long believed that there is a close connection between The 2010 Nobel Prize human rights and peace” it said in a statement. “Such rights are a prerequisite for the fraternity between Winner for Peace nations of which Alfred Nobel wrote in his will”.
Economics
Three economists—Peter Diamond and Dale Mortensen of USA and British–Cypriot Christopher Pissarides have won the 2010 Nobel Economics Prize. They have been awarded for their work on why supply and demand do not always meet in the labour market and elsewhere. The jury lauded the trio for their analysis of markets with search frictions which helps explain how unemployment, job vacancies, and wages are affected by regulation and Christopher Pissarides, Peter Diamond and Dale economic policy. It is important to mention that as per traditional theory labour Mortensen : The Nobel Prize Winners of Econo- market should work on their own, with job seekers finding available job and mics for 2010 thereby creating balance. But the Diamond–Mortensen–Pissarides or DMP model–developed by the three show that markets do not always work in this way. The jury also noted that the trio’s work in search theory can also be applied to other areas including housing markets and public economics besides labour markets.
PD/December/2010/999/3
“Indolence is sweet, and its consequences bitter.”
CONSTITUTION/JUSTICE/LAW
Unintentional Disobedience is not Contempt : Says Apex Court
Accidental or unintentional disobedience of court orders does not amount to contempt, unless there is a wilful attempt to obstruct the course of justice, the Supreme Court has ruled. “Accidental or unintentional disobedience is not sufficient to justify one for holding guilty of contempt”, a Bench of Justices J M Panchal and Gyan Sudha Misra held in their judgement. “It is further relevant to bear in mind the settled law on the law of contempt that casual or accidental or unintentional acts of disobedience under the circumstances which negate any suggestion of contumacy, would amount to a contempt in theory only and does not render the contemnor liable to punishment,” the court said. The court gave the verdict while quashing the contempt proceedings initiated against Dinesh Kumar Gupta, Deputy Registrar (Judicial), Rajasthan High Court. Gupta had moved the apex court questioning the contempt proceedings initiated against him by the Single Judge of the High Court on December 8, 2006 for an alleged contempt committed by his predecessor in 2001 vis-a-vis an order passed by the judge on March 22, 2001. The High Court had initiated contempt against Gupta on the ground that the order for initiating inquiry against a Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal (MACT) Judge S. K. Bansal was sought to be scuttled by the registry. Upholding the appeal, Justice Sudha writing the judgement said at the relevant period of order passed by the High Court, Gupta was not the Deputy Registrar (Judicial) as he had assumed office more than four years later. “Besides this, it would also not be correct to overlook or ignore an important statutory ingredient of contempt of a civil nature given out under section 2(b) of the contempt of Court Act 1971 that the disobedience to the order alleging contempt has to satisfy the test that it is a wilful disobedience to the order,” the judge said.
While the report, released on October 11, 2010, shows that the proportion of the under nourished in India is declining, the worsening ranking indicates that other developing countries have done better in tackling hunger. India is home to 42% of the underweight children under the age of five in the world. It is an irony indeed that the policy makers in India who are still fighting over the need to have an expansive National Food Security Act are yet to look at the dismal figures. In 2005-06 about 44% of Indian children below five years were under-weight and nearly half-48%—were stunted. The food insecurity runs so wildly across the country that India is clubbed with minor economies like Bangladesh, Timore-Leste and Yemen, recording the highest prevalence of underweight in children under five. At the beginning of the liberalization era in the early 90s, 24% of the population was undernourished. The situation marginally improved to 22% between 2004 and 2006. Almost 60% of children below five were recorded as underweight in 1988-92. The condition has remained dismal as the latest figure shows 43·5% between 2003-08. The GHI (Global Hunger Index) ranks countries on a scale of 100, with 0 being the best score (no hunger) and 100 the worst. It is composed of three equally weighted indicators : the proportion of undernourished in the population, the prevalence of those underweight in children under five and the under-five mortality rate. The figures for India are 22% (as of 2004-06), 43·5% (2003-08) and 6·9% as of 2008, respectively. These give India a composite GHI of 24·1, which is classified as alarming in terms of the food security situation. The strife-torn Democratic Republic of Congo ranks at the bottom of the list of 84 countries with significant levels of hunger. The data has been compiled for 122 countries in all; the remaining 38 countries have a GHI of less than 5 and are not included in the rankings. No data has been recorded for highly developed countries. South Asia has the highest GHI for any region in the world, at 22·9. The region has, however, made greater progress since 1990 than sub-Saharan Africa, the report adds. India is ranked below all other major South Asian countries—Sri Lanka is ranked 39th, Pakistan 52nd and Nepal 56th.
SURVEY/REPORT/RESEARCH
India’s Position Dismal in Global Hunger Index
? ? ?
More hungry in India than in Sudan. Even Pakistan is ahead. India 67th among 84 developing nations.
Times of India correspondent Rukmini Shrinivasan reports that India dropped two ranks to 67th among 84 developing countries in the International Food Policy Research Institute’s annual ‘Global Hunger Index’ for 2010. Even Sudan, North Korea and Pakistan rank higher than India.
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“I often quote myself. It adds spice to my conversation.”
The 2010 report focuses on child malnutrition, which is the biggest component of hunger worldwide. In India, high 2010 GHI scores are driven by high levels of underweight children, resulting from the low nutritional and social status of women in the country, the report says.
PANEL/COMMITTEE
Parliamentary Panel Favours Death Penalty for Hijackers
While advocating death penalty for hijackers, a parliamentary committee has said it must be awarded to those whose actions result in death of hostages or security personnel. The standing Committee on Transport, Tourism and Culture, headed by Senior CPM leader Sitaram Yechury, submitted its report on the Anti - Hijacking (Amendment) Bill, 2010 to Rajya Sabha Chairman Mohammad Hamid Ansari and Lok Sabha Speaker Meira Kumar on October 18, No More Kandahars 2010. The Committee felt that the proposed amendment to include death penalty in 1982 Anti-Hijacking Act was the need of the hour and unavoidable in the heightened threat of such a daring crime. It endorsed the proposed
amendment that provides for capital punishment to the hijackers as well as to the conspirators and abettors also who commit any of the acts referred to in the prevailing law. It, however, noted that it was not clear in the proposed amendment whether death penalty would be applicable to the hijackers who kill hostages or security men or to all hijackers who have caused or not caused any fatalities. “The Committee is of the opinion that if death penalty was a foregone conclusion for the offence of hijacking, the opportunities for any negotiation or settlement to save lives of passengers may be foreclosed,” the report said. “What about the safety of passengers and crew when the hijackers are sure that they will get death penalty for their offence ?”
DEFENCE
India’s Military Satellites Set for Launch
In order to boost its defence capabilities India plans to launch a series of indigenous military satellites with surveillance, imaging and navigation capabilities to keep a watch on its neighbourhood and help guide cruise missiles. It was revealed by a top defence scientist on October 10, 2010. “There will be a series of defence satellites. I cannot give you the numbers because they are classified” said V. K. Saraswat, Scientific Adviser to the Defence Minister. “Each year, you will find one or two satellites going up”, added the Secretary, Defence R&D and DirectorGeneral of Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
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“If all economists were laid end to end, they would not reach a conclusion.”
Coast Guard Station Commissioned
The Director General of the Indian Coast Guard, Vice Admiral Anil Chopra, formally commissioned the Coast guard station at Veraval in the Saurashtra coast of Gujarat, on October 2, 2010. The station was set up and activated in 2009 for strengthening Joint Coastal Patrolling (JCP) off the Gujarat and Maharashtra coasts. “The aim of this scheme is to intensify the close coast surveillance mechanism to prevent smuggling of arms, ammunition and explosives and infiltration of antinational elements”, an official spokesman of the Indian Coast Guard said. The station will function under the administrative and operational control of Commander Coast Guard Region (North-West) through the Commander Coast Guard District Headquarters-1 (Gujarat) at Porbandar. Commandant (JG) Chandrayan Dey is appointed as the first Commanding Officer of the station. The strengthening of the coastal security set-up coincides with the increased industrial activity on the Gujarat coast bordering with Pakistan.
transport officials to install automated crossing gates at all the nation’s railway crossings to prevent cars, buses and trucks from ignoring the siren.
ADVENTURE/EXPEDITION
Army Expedition Returns from Europe
A 41-day long Indian Army motorcycle expedition that travelled across Europe to spread the message of bonhomie and friendship was flagged in by the Army Chief General V. K. Singh at India Gate, New Delhi on October 11, 2010. The ten member expedition comprising two women officers, five male officers and three jawans from arms and services travelled across Turkey, Greece, Italy, France and Britain to strengthen the Indian Army’s association with these countries. It visited war memorials to pay homage to martyrs of World War II. Flagged off from Delhi on August 20, the team named ‘Lightning Bulleteers’ travelled on six Royal Enfield Classic (500 cc) motorcycles to reach Mumbai on August 22. It was flown two days later to Istanbul to begin its expedition.
FESTIVAL
Mussorie Writers’ Festival Inaugurated
Uttarakhand Governor Margaret Alva inaugurated the third Mussorie International Writers’ Festival at Woodstock School in Dehradun on October 5, 2010 noting that Mussorie has a rich heritage of writing and is home to many distinguished authors who have drawn comfort from the hill resort’s salubrious climate amid sylvan surroundings. The theme of this year’s three-day festival was mountain literature. Among the internationally acclaimed writers those that graced the event included Ruskin Bond, who lives in Mussorie and Stephen Alter, the main driving force behind the festival. More than 25 writers from six countries participated in the festival.
ENVIRONMENTAL AWARENESS
United Nations Rings Alarm Bell on Saving Species
The world must act immediately to stop the rapid loss of animal and plant species and the habitats they live in, the United Nations warned on October 18, 2010 at the start of a major summit on biodiversity in Tokyo. The 193 members of the UN’s Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) gathered in the central city of Nagoya to try to work out strategies to head off a manmade mass extinction. “The time to act is now and the place to act is here, ” CBD executive secretary Ahmed Djoghlaf said as the meeting opened, describing the event as a ‘defining moment’ in the history of mankind. “The savings from a coordinated ecosystems approach to climate change, biodiversity loss, avoiding deforestation and land degradation are incalculable.” The 12-day conference endeavoured to throw a spotlight on a global environmental issue that has drawn less attention in recent years than the related problem of climate change, blamed on a rise in greenhouse gas emissions.
ACCIDENTS
Train Accident in Ukraine
A horrendous railway accident took place in Ukraine on October 12, 2010. A crowded bus collided with a train in eastern Ukraine, killing 40 and leaving 10 in critical condition. The casualties may be higher than these figures. The Interior Minister said that the accident occurred outside the town of Marhanets Victims bodies lie at the side of the in the Dnipropet- track at the scene of an accident outside the town of Marhanets, Ukraine. rovsk region after the bus attempted to cross the track, ignoring a siren that indicated an oncoming train. Prime Minister Mykola Azarov ordered his government to pay family of the dead victims Hryvna 1,00,000 ($ 12,600). He also instructed
TOUR AND TRAVEL
China Unveils World’s Fastest Train
China on October 26, 2010 unveiled what it described as the World’s Fastest Bullet Train, which will connect two of the country’s industrial hubs travelling at an average speed of 350 km per hour.
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“If you cannot get rid of the family skeleton, you may as well make it dance.”
The rail link between Shanghai and Hangzhou, the latest addition to China’s fast- expanding high-speed rail network that is already the world’s largest, covers the 200-km distance in only 45 minutes, reducing the travelling time from 78 minutes. The home-built CRH380 bullet train has been recorded travelling at 420 km per hour, a world record. It will, however, travel between the two cities at less than full tilt, at an average speed of 350 km per hour. China’s high-speed rail network now stretches over 7,431 km. The government plans to expand the network to over 16,000 km by 2020.
On Track for Distinction : A CRH380A train sets out from a terminal of the ShanghaiHangzhou high-speed railway in Shanghai.
Kalaikunda Air Force Station (West Bengal)
A joint exercise by the Indian Air Force (IAF) and the Royal Air Force (RAF) of the United Kingdom of the United Kingdom was held at the Kalaikunda Air Force station in West Bengal’s Paschim Midnapur district in October 2010. The Exercise was named ‘Indradhanush’.
Nagoya
Nagoya—the central city of Japan recently came into news when the 193 members of the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) meeting took place in October 2010 to work out strategies to prevent the mass extinction of species of plants and animals.
New Oxford Centre for Study of Archaeological and Cultural Heritage of Asia
The Oxford University launched in October 2010 a new centre to study the archaeological and cultural heritage of Asia. It is claimed to be the only centre of its kind in Europe. The University sources said that although Asia had some of the world’s richest archaeological and artistic forms of heritage, little was known or taught about this period in Britain. The new centre will look at how the cultural influences, both within the region and in the wider world beyond, might be connected. The research will not only draw on archaeology but also other disciplines such as anthropology, art history, linguistics, molecular genetics, the earth sciences and geography. The centre, to be based in School of Archaeology, will off a new Asia Pacific Master’s degree and new courses in the Archaeology of Asia, Chinese Archaeology and the Palaeolithic Archaeology of Asia.
PLACES IN THE NEWS
4000 Year Old Aryan City
Russian archaeologists have recently discovered some ancient and unknown city in remote Russia. Steppe southern Siberia. The City is believed to be built by the Original Aryan race about 4,000 years ago. The team of archaeologists has discovered 20 spiral–shaped settlements in this hitherto hidden site/city.
1. Conversations with Myself —By Nelson Mandela It is a new collection of Nelson Mandela’s private papers which reveal his years of heartache at missing his family while in prison and his wariness at becoming idolised. Now 92, the man who won the Nobel Peace Prize for his struggle against the white minority apartheid government of South Africa says he does not want to be remembered a larger-than-life saint. 2. The Feast of the Goat —By Mario Vargas Llosa a Nobel laureate. 3. Harmony —By Prince Charles of Britain Prince Charles writes in his book Harmony that Britain could learn lessons from the way people live then lives in Dharavi, India. According to him, Dharavi is better organised than many Western towns and cities, and that the residents instinctively practise sustainable living. 4. War on Terrorism or American Strategy for Global Dominance —By Manzoor Alam 5. WTO and Indian Economy—Issues and Negotiating Strategies : —Edited by Alokesh Barua and Robert M. Stern 6. Globalization and Sustainable Good Governance —Edited by Permanand Singh A Francis Julian; Legal Education and Research Society New Delhi in association with Manak Publications. 7. Daniel Patrick Moynihan : A Portrait in Letter of an American Visionary —By Late Daniel Patrick Moynihan A former U.S. Senator and American ambassador to India.
IMPORTANT DAYS
National Days
December 4 December 14 December 18 December 1 December 3 December 10 Navy Day National Energy Conservation Day Minorities Rights Day
San Jose Mine
33 miners were rescued from Chilean mine—San Jose Mine after being trapped in that mine for more than two months in second week of October, 2010. The 33 miners caught in a collapse on August 5, 2010 spent 17 days in isolation before being located by drillers on August 22, 2010 and later rescued.
International Days
World AIDS Day World Day of the Handicapped Human Rights Day
P.Darpan
PD/December/20101003
“Lack of money is the root of all evil.”
After the approval of Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), the government on October 20, 2010 announced minimum support prices (MSP) for rabi crops 2010-11. For wheat the MSP gets only a marginal hike of 20 a quintal. The MSP of wheat, a major rabi crop was 1100 per quintal in 2009-10 season which has gone upto 1120 per quintal for 2010-11. The support prices of pulses such as masoor and gram dals have been raised sharply by 380 and 340 per quintal respectively to en-courage farmers to produce more pulses so as to curb import bill on pulses. The MSPs of the masoor dal and gram dals have been fixed at 2250 per quintal and 2100 per quintal respectively for the year 2010-11.
imports 3·5-4 million tonne of tur and urad from countries including Myanmar, Kenya, Tanzania, Mozambique to meet domestic demand of 18-19 million tonne. The CCEA also approved increase in mustard MSP by Rs. 20 to Rs. 1,850 per quintal. Safflower MSP has gone up to Rs. 1,800 from Rs. 1680 a quintal. Barley has been increased to Rs. 780 from Rs. 750 per quintal. These hikes in MSPs are based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). It is important to note that the MSP is the price that the government pays to farmers while procuring their produce. The Centre procures wheat and rice from farmers for public distribution system (PDS) and maintains buffer stocks and stragetic reserve for the country.
Indian women have been included. Indra Nooyi, CEO PepsiCo, Shikha Sharma CEO, Axis Bank and Chanda Kochhar MD and CEO, ICICI Bank have been placed at 6th, 89th and 92nd ranks respectively in this prestigious list. The first lady of United States Michelle Obama has topped this list of 100 most powerful women in the world.
6th Indra Nooyi PepsiCo CEO
89th Shikha Sharma Axis Bank CEO
92nd Chanda Kochhar ICICI Bank MD&CEO
Minimum Support Prices for Rabi Crops of 2010-11 Season to be Marketed in 2011–12
( per quintal)
Commodity MSP fixed for 2009-10 season 1100 750 1760 1870 1830 1680 MSP approved for 2010-11 season 1120 780 2100 2250 1850 1800 Change in MSP over 2009-10 season 20 30 340 380 20 120
In the Forbes' list of 100 most powerful women in the world, three
This year, Forbes has divided the 100 power women candidates into four groups of politics, business, media and lifestyle. It ranked the women in each group, and then group against group. Nooyi, Sharma and Kochhar have also been ranked separately under the ‘business’ category. Nooyi is the second most powerful woman in the world in the field of business after Kraft Foods
Wheat Barley Gram Masur (Lentil) Rapeseed /Mustard Safflower
The agriculture ministry is targeting to increase the pulses production to 16·5 million tonne in 2010-11 from about 14·5 million tonne in the previous year. India, the world's largest producer of pulses,
PD/December/2010/1004
“Anything too stupid to be said is sung.”
Chief Executive Irene Rosenfeld. Out of the 39 women listed in the business category, Sharma's rank is 33 and Chanda Kochhar's is 35. Forbes admires Pepsi‘s worldwide campaign, Pepsi Refresh which allocates $ 1·3 million each month for a US project, such as the recent ‘Do Good for the Gulf.’ This project offers stipends to build a shalter to ammals whose owners lost their homes to the oil spill and to provide mental health services and job training. Forbes underlines Shikha Sharma's attempt of focusing on introducing a retail broking platform and the possibility of expanding internationally. Chanda Kochhar has been named as the first woman to run a large Indian bank who expanded her role as chief with her recent acquisition of Bank of Rajasthan, a private sector bank with 463 branches and 4000 employees.
which unemployment, job vacancies and wages are affected by regulation and economic policy. Search theory associated with these Nobel laureates tries to explain such conundrums as how high unemployment can be accompanied by a large number of job openings. One important conclusion of the theory is that more generous jobless benefits lead to higher unemployment us those who are looking for work take longer to find it.
years and total exploration period will be seven years in respect of onland and shallow water blocks. But, in respect of deepwater and frontier areas (Northeast and lessexplored basins), initial exploration period will be five years and total exploration period eight years.
Petroleum and Natural Gas Ministry on October 15, 2010 has launched the ninth round of bidding under the New Exploration and Licensing Policy (NELP). 34 blocks have been put up for the auction under NELP–IX of the blocks offered in the ninth round, eight are deep water, seven in shallow water and 19 blocks on shore. The Ministry has extended the hope to arrange investment of around $ 14 billion in this ninth round of auctioning. Government had launched the 8th round of NELP in the midst of the global economic slowdown which resulted a very poor response. 34 out of 70 blocks could not attract any response and half the awarded blocks went to government-owned Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC). This poor response of the 8th round of NELP could manage only $ 1·1 billion. Government has so far awarded 235 blocks under various rounds of NELP, launched in 1999. As per the declaration of the Ministry, the exploration coverage of India's sedimentary basin has expanded from 11 per cent to 58 per cent after the introduction of NELP regime and the discoveries made under NELP have resulted in in-place hydrocarbon reserve accretion of a staggering 642 million tonne of oil and oil equivalent gas. Government has revised norms for NELP–IX according to which companies would be eligible for bidding for the blocks now on offer after being relinquished by them. Initial exploration period will be four
The Global Hunger Index (GHI) is a tool adapted and further developed by the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI) to comprehensively measure and track global hunger. The GHI incorporates three interlinked hunger-related indicators—the proportion of undernourished in the population, the prevalence of underweight in children, and the mortality rate of children. The GHI aims to raise awareness of regional and country differences in hunger and trigger action to eliminate hunger. The index ranks countries on a 100-point scale, with 0 being the best score (no hunger) and 100 being the worst. Values less than 5·0 reflect low hunger, values between 5·0 and 9·9 reflect moderate hunger, values between 10·0 and 19·9 indicate a serious problem, values between 20·0 and 29·9 are alarming, and values of 30·0 or higher are extremely alarming. According to the Global Hunger Index report, malnutrition among children under two years of age is one of the biggest challenge for reducing global hunger. Report finds that 29 countries, primarily in SubSaharan Africa and South Asia have levels of hunger that are ‘extremely alarming.’
Peter A. Diamond of Massachusetts Institute of Technology, Dale Mortensen of North Western University and Christopher Pissarides from London School of Economics are the three economists who shared the 2010 Nobel Prize in Economics for research into the difficulties of matching supply and demand, particularly in the labour market. As per the declaration of the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences which selects the Nobel laureates, Peter A. Diamond has analysed the foundations of search markets. Date Mortensen and Christopher Pissarides have expanded the theory and have applied it to the labour market. The models developed by these Nobel laureates help in understanding the ways in Nobel Laureates Economics-2010
Ranking of India and Neighbouring Nations in Global Hunger Index-2010
Nation China Sri Lanka Pakistan Nepal India Bangladesh Ranking 9 39 52 56 67 68
(From left) Peter A. Diamond, Dale Mortensen and Christopher Pissarides
PD/December/2010/1005
“Appreciation is a wonderful thing: It makes what is excellent in others belong to us as well.”
India despite of having robust economic growth indications, have been placed at 67th rank in Global Hunger Index which is worse even with the ranks of Sri Lanka (39th), Pakistan (52nd) and Nepal (56th). In the list of 84 nations, China has been placed at 9th place showing better situation in dealing with hunger in the country.
Latest Estimates of Kharif Crops
(million tonnes) Foodgrain Rice Jwar Maize Coarse Cereals Tur Urad Moong Total Pulses Total Foodgrains Commercial Crops Groundnut Soybean All Nine Oilseeds Cotton1 Jute & Mesta 2 Sugarcane 1. Million bales (each of 170 kg) 2009-10 4th Adv. Estimates 75·91 2·82 12·00 23·63 2·55 0·85 0·44 4·30 103·84 3·66 10·05 15·66 23·94 11·29 277·75 2. Million bales (each of 180 kg) 2010-11 1st Adv. Estimates 80·41 3·22 14·06 28·23 3·27 1·08 0·88 6·0 114·63 5·64 9·81 17·27 33·5 10·28 324·91
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has raised the investment application limit for retail investors to 2 lakh from 1 lakh at present. However, SEBI has not made any changes in the quantum of shares reserved for retail investors in public issues. In SEBI’s board meeting held on October 25, 2010, some important decisions taken are—
? Enhances retail application limit to 2 lakh from 1 lakh across all issues. ? Disclosures of risk factors specific to IPOs by insurance companies. ? SEBI also exempted insurance companies from disclosing the disclaimer clause of Irda in the offer document and appointing a monitoring agency. ? Tightens preferential allotment framework for promoters. ? Mandatory for companies to preannounce dates for dividend payment and bonus shares. ? QIB status to insurance funds set up by Department of Posts.
Ministry of Agriculture on September 24, 2010 released the first advance estimates of Kharif crops for the year 2010-11. Better monsoon this year helped Kharif crops to get increased to 114·63 million tonne in 2010-11. This estimated production level may be called satisfactory as it was only 103·84 million tonne in 2009-10. Compared to the last year, all Kharif crops, leaving Jute and Mesta, have been estimated at better produc-
PD/December/2010/1006
“Doubt is not a pleasant condition, but certainty is absurd.”
tion level. Rice has been estimated at 80·41 million tonne and coarse cereals at 28·23 million tonne while these were 75·91 million tonne and 23·63 million tonne respectively last year. Pulses also went to 6·0 million tonne from 4·3 million level of last year 2009-10. Cotton and sugarcane showed better results in first advance estimates for 2010-11. Cotton registered 40% growth and sugarcane 17% growth in 2010-11 estimates as compared to figures of 2009-10. The second advance estimates of agriculture production for 2010-11 will be released by Agriculture Ministry in February 2011.
assessment. Lesotho, in sub-Saharan Africa ranks at 8th place showing smaller gender gap than UK which gets 15th ranking in the list. India has been ranked on poor front in the list Report puts India at 112 ranking out of 134 nations. Last year in 2009 India's ranking was 114th in the list. Both the rankings are almost same showing no improvement in gender equality. India's ranking is the lowest even among BRIC nations. Moreover, India's gender equality performance remains the worst in the region with Sri Lanka and Bangladesh got 16th and 82nd ranking. At the bottom of the ranking table of gender equality are nations— Yemen (134th), Chad (133rd) and Pakistan (132nd).
protect the interest of the exporters. Indications appear that RBI might intervene if Indian rupee appreciates below 43 per dollar level. Federation of Indian Exports Organisation is calling for the step to prevent the ‘distortion’ of the exchange rate.
The World Economic Forum's Global Gender Gap Report assesses gender equality in 134 countries looking at economic participation and opportunity, educational attainment, political empowerment, health and survival. The report examines both men and women's access to resources and opportunities rather than the levels of resources and opportunities available in a country.
The Global Gender Gap 2010 Ranking Top 5 Nations Nation Iceland Norway Finland Sweden New Zealand BRIC Nations Brazil Russia India China 85 45 112 61 South Asia Nations Pakistan Sri Lanka Bangladesh Nepal 132 16 82 115 Rank 1 2 3 4 5
Due to record support of overseas support in stocks and other in flows the Indian rupee has attained the highest level against US dollar since September 2008. Indian rupee was traded at 47·08 per dollar on August 31, 2010 has gained 6·1 per cent to reach 44·20 per dollar on October 7, 2010. Indian rupee has become stronger against dollar by 5 per cent this year which is the biggest annual gain during the past three years. Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) have invested a large funds in stocks since such investments were permitted in 1992. FIIs have bought bonds worth $ 10 billion in 2010 which gave healthy support to Indian rupee even Sensex in India could attain its highest level in 33 months due to FIIs investment support. Attracting with better and faster growth in Indian economy as com-pared with slow growth in Western economies, overseas investment inflows also supported Indian economy. Besides, a weaker dollar has also strengthened Indian currency. Stronger Indian rupee has created a problem before export sector of the economy. Reserve Bank of India may intervene to weaken the rupee and
Iceland, Norway, Finland, Sweden and New Zealand are the top 5 ranking nations in global gender gap
World Economic Situation and Prospects (WESP), mainly developed by UNCTAD, provides an overview of recent global economic performance and short-term prospects for the world economy and of some key global economic policy and development issues. The World Economic Situation and Prospects update as of mid-2010 highlights that while the world economy continued to improve in the first half of 2010, the pace of the recovery is too weak to close the global output gap left by the crisis. It also points out that the recovery is uneven across countries, with encouraging growth prospects for some developing countries, but lacklustre economic activity in developed economies and below potential growth elsewhere in the developing world. Report estimates World Gross Product (WGP) to fall by 2·2 per cent for 2009 which is the first actual contraction since the second world war. A mid growth of 2·4 per cent is the forecast of WESP for 2010 and that too, if continued supportive policy is adopted across the world. According to this scenario, the level of world economic activity will be 7 per cent below from the level of preglobal crisis period. The report also highlights a number of risks and uncertainties to the outlook, including a premature exit from the stimulus measures and a hard landing of the dollar due to the renewed widening of the global imbalances. In terms of policy measures, the report recommends continued fiscal stimulus measures in the short run, a continued focus on the rebalancing of economic growth in a number of respects, better policy coordination, strengthened global governance and more decisive reforms of the global financial system.
PD/December/2010/1007
“Every man is guilty of all the good he didn’t do.”
The 2010 Corruption Perceptions Index shows that nearly three quarters of the 178 countries in the index score below five, on a scale from 10 (very clean) to 0 (highly corrupt). These results indicate a serious corruption problem. For meeting the challenges of the corruption, governments need to integrate anti-corruption measures in all spheres, from their responses to the financial crisis and climate change to commitments by the international community to eradicate poverty. Transparency International advocates stricter implementation of the UN Convention against Corruption, the only global initiative that provides a framework for putting an end to corruption. Denmark, New Zealand and Singapore and tied at the top of the list with a score of 9·3, followed closely by Finland and Sweden at 9·2. At the
bottom is Somalia with a score of 1·1, slightly trailing Myanmar and Afghanistan at 1·4 and Iraq at 1·5. Notable among decliners over the past year are some of the countries most affected by a financial crisis precipitated by transparency and integrity deficits. Among those improving in the past year, the general absence of OECD states underlines the fact that all nations need to bolster their good governance mechanisms. 2010 Corruption Perception Index gives a clear message—transparency and accountability are critical in restoring trust and turning back the tide of corruption. Without them, global policy solutions to many global crises are at risk.
on October 18, 2010. With this biggest public issue, government has expected to raise around 15000 crore. Union Government had fixed the price band at 225-245 per share. On October 25, 2010, government declared Coal India Ltd. IPO’s price at 245 per share, the upper ceiling of the early offered range. Coal India Ltd. has offered 631·6 million shares at a face value of 10 each in the offer. The issue got closed on October 21, 2010. Coal India's IPO was floated in the public after government's decision to sell 10 per cent of its current 100 per cent stake in the company. Retail investors and coal India employees have been decided to get a 5 per cent discount. Coal India Ltd. is the largest coal producer in India. With annual production exceeding 430 million tonne, the company meets over 80 per cent of India's coal needs. On its closing, coal India IPO got subscribed 15·4 times, collecting an unprecedented over 240000 crore. High net worth individual category was subscribed 25 times while the retail category was subscribed 2·25 times. Retail category subscribers will get at least 173 shares on full quota of application. Coal India's allotment of shares will be higher than that of the Reliance Power issue in 2008. When investors got only 17 shares against their full application of 222 shares. It is also worthnoting that Coal India received 1·6 million retail applications against Reliance Power's over 4·5 million applications. On the basis of 30-35 grey market Premium of Coal India, the shares are likely to be listed on November 4, 2010 at 270-280 against the upper end of the price band of 245 per share.
Coal India Ltd.'s initial public offerings (IPO)—the biggest float in India's corporate history was opened
International Monetary Fund (IMF) has projected India's GDP growth rate at 9·7% for the calendar year 2010 and 8·4% for 2011 due to better macro-economic performance and strong industrial growth. Accord-
PD/December/2010/1008
“God is a comedian playing to an audience too afraid to laugh.”
ing to World's Economic Outlook Report of IMF, growth in emerging Asia economies stand at about 9·5% with robust demand from China, India and Indonesia benefiting other Asian economies. Asian Development Bank (ADB) on September 28, 2010 had raised its India's GDP forecast from 8·2% to 8·5%. IMF in its report highlights that India's macroeconomic performance has been vigorous, with industrial production at a two-year high. Moreover, the leading indicators of the economy show a steady improvement which makes IMF's projection for India's growth stronger.
India's GDP Growth Projections by Various Agencies IMF CMIE ADB Govt. of India .? .? RBI ? .? PMEAC .? CRISIL 9·7% 9·2% 8·5% 8·5% 8·1% 2010 2010-11 2010 2010-11 2010
China is expected to grow at an even faster rate of 10·5 per cent in 2010 and 9·6 per cent in 2011, driven by domestic demand. Advanced economies, on the other hand, are projected to grow by just 2·7 per cent in 2010 and 2·2 per cent in 2011. Report forcecasts global trade to expand by 4·8 per cent in 2010 and 4·2 per cent in 2011 with a temporary slowdown during the second half of 2010 and first half of 2011. According to the World Economic Outlook report, growth in emerging Asia economies stands at about 9·5 per cent, with robust demand from China, India, and Indonesia benefiting other Asian economies.
bullish outlook for fast growing economies like India which tackled the global financial melt down better than many other countries. According to the OECD's latest Composite Leading Indicators (CLIs), the global economic expansion is slowing down and there are early signals of turning points in the business cycles. CLIs for Canada, France, Italy, the United Kingdom, Brazil, China and India provide strong signals to a downturn. CLIs for India stood at 100·4 in August 2010 which is a little lower than 100·6 recorded in July 2010. For China also, CLIs slipped down to 101·3 in August 2010 from 101·7 of July 2010. OECD's outlook differs with India's growth projections of various agencies, including International Monetary Fund (IMF). Finance Ministry also projects a robust growth path of around 9 per cent average in the short term. It is worthnoting that India's economic growth was 7·4 per cent in 2009-10 and is projected to be over 8·5 per cent for the year 2010-11.
tion by banks has declined as compared to the figure observed in the previous fortnight. Deposit mobilisation by banks during the fortnight ended September 24,2010 went up by 16590 crore as against an increase of around 20465 crore in the previous fortnight. Bank credit on the other hand rose by 39364 crore which shows a larger quantum than deposits. Credit grew 19·04 per cent on a year-on-year basis at the end of the fortnight September 24, 2010. Outstanding bank credit stood at 3422291 crore as against 3382927 crore at the end of previous fortnight i.e. September 10, 2010.
Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) in its analysis presents an outlook that India and China may face economic downturn in the coming months. The latest analysis of OECD presents a contrast view with the
According to the data released by Reserve Bank of India for the first half of 2010-11 (i.e. April-September 2010), credit in the banking system has shown a faster growth as compared to the last year's statistics. The total outstanding credit of the banking system has risen 5·6 per cent to 34,22,291 crore since the beginning of this financial year. The credit growth rate in the first half of the previous financial year was 3·5 per cent. The central bank has projected a 20 per cent credit growth for the current financial year. Deposits, on the other hand, has sharply slowed down from 7·6 per cent in April-September 2009 to 4·9 per cent in the first half of 2010. RBI has projected 18 per cent deposit growth for the entire year 2010-11 but so far it has not exceeded 15 per cent this financial year. As per the statistics released by RBI, during the fortnight ended September 24,2010 deposit mobilisa-
The latest released data on IIP by the government show only 5·6 per cent growth in August 2010. Due to a sharp decline in the growth of manufacturing sector, industrial growth in India feel to 15-month low level in August 2010. The manufacturing sector, which accounts for a 79·4 per cent share in the index, was the prime reason for the slow pace of growth. Manufacturing sector growth was estimated at 5·9 per cent in August, compared to 10·6 per cent a year ago. In August 2009, industrial growth had entered double-digit levels at 10·6 per cent, for the first time since economic slow-down in September 2008. At the same time, the government revised the estimate upwards for July to 15·2 per cent from the provisional estimate of 13·8 per cent. In August 2010, there was a 2·6 per cent decline in capital goods output. At 72 per cent growth in July, the capital goods segment, with a weight of 9·26 per cent in the index, was the main reason for the unexpected spurt in the overall figures in the previous month.
IIP Overall Growth
(in%) Year 2009-10 2010-11 April 1·13 16·50 August 10·62 5·60
PD/December/2010/1009
“God is always on the side of the big battalions.”
All the three categories of IIP– mining, manufacturing and electricity registered decelerations both on an annual and on-month-on-month basis but manufacturing sector has shown the sharpest dip at 5·9 per cent in August 2010, down from 16·7 per cent in July 2010. Growth in mining and electricity stood at 7 per cent and 1·02 per cent respectively in August 2010 compared with 9·9 per cent and 3·7 per cent in July 2010. Finance Ministry has also shown its disappointment over this IIP growth in August 2010.
lakh to improve project and financial management in Bihar state Electricity Board. Besides, ADB has also approved a loan package of $ 120 million to Assam as assistance in combating flooding and erosion in the state. ? Vodafone asked to pay 11218 crore as tax—Income Tax Department has fixed a revised tax liability of 11218 crore on British Telecom company Vodafone for the $ 11·2 billion deal done by the company with Hutch-Essar in 2007. Initially the tax liability on Vodafone was fixed at 12000 crore which was challenged by Vodafone in Bombay High Court but the petition was dismissed. High Court had directed the Income Tax Department to reassess the tax liability of the company. Vodafone raises strong objections with the tax calculations released by the Income Tax Department. Vodafone terms the revised liability against the conclusions of the Bombay High Court. The case between Vodafone and Income Tax Department is now being heard in the Supreme Court. ? IOC's Paradip refinery to start output by March 2012—According to the official sources of Indian Oil Corporation, the Paradip refinery of the corporation will start commercial production by March 2012 and “History is a pack of lies we play on the dead.”
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ADB to lend $ 132 million to Bihar and $ 120 million to Assam—Manila-based Asian Development Bank has approved $ 132 million (over 585 crore) loan for upgrading electricity system in Bihar and also a loan package of $ 120 million (about 532 crore) to Assam towards efforts to combat flooding and erosion. $ 132 million loan to Bihar is being granted to Power System Improvement Project to upgrade electricity system in the state. The funds have been assigned to be used to install new transmission lines and to renovate and modernise transmission and distribution facilities to improve the quality and reliability of the state's electricity supply network. ADB has also decided to extend a technical assistance grant of $ 3
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become fully operational November 2012. This Paradip refinery unit has a refining capacity of 15 million tonne per year. The estimated cost of the project is around 320 billion. The first stage of the plant will be commissioned in January 2012. The refinery will have a complexity factor of 13, allowing it to process and refine very low quality of crude or crude with high sulphur content. A proposal of building a petrochemical plant near Paradip refinery is also under consideration of Indian Oil Corporation and the decision will be taken within the next three-four months. Indian oil sources also announced that everything produced in Paradip refinery will be for domestic consumption and none of its product will be exported. FDI inflows register 60% decline—Data released by industry department show that the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in August 2010 took a dip of about 60 per cent to $ 1·33 billion which is the lowest in the financial year 2010-11. The FDI inflow in August 2009 was $ 3·26 billion. Despite the smart recovery in the domestic economy and a rebound in exports, overseas investment in the form of equity inflows have been declining since June 2010. The overseas investment in June 2010 was at $ 1·38 billion while that in July 2010 was $ 1·78 billion. The FDI in the first two months of financial year 2010-11 i.e. April and May 2010 stood at $ 2·17 billion and $ 2·21 billion respectively. Cummulatively, in the first five months of the financial year 2010-11 i.e. April to August 2010, the FDI inflows declined by 35 per cent to $ 8·88 billion, compared to $ 13·76 billion in the same period of 2009. Adani targets coal production from Australian mines by 2014end—Adani Enterprises has targetted to start coal production from Australian coal mine by the end of 2014 and a production between 50 and 60 million tonne per annum by 2022. In August
PD/December/2010/1010
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2010 Adani Group had declared to invest $ 6·9 billion ( 30000 crore) for developing mines, a railway and a port for its Gailee Basin coal mine in Queensland, Australia. Adani group which is India's biggest coal importer had agreed to pay $ 2·7 billion ( 12,500 crore) in a cash and royalty deal for the asset. It has high-grade thermal coal deposits of 7·8 billion tonnes. Adani's investment in Australia is the largest very by any Indian company in that country. The Adani Group is a fast growing conglomerate, with combined market capitalisation of just its three listed entities being $ 30 billion ( 1·3 lakh crore) and employing more than 15,000 people. Its principal focus areas are power generation, port ownership and operation, and integrated coal mining and logistics. Madhya Pradesh announces New Tourism Policy—Madhya Pradesh has come forward to promote tourism in the state. The government has announced a newly approved tourism policy for the state which aims at inviting capital investment from private sector and procuring more land for them. The newly announced policy relaxes luxury tax limit from 500 to 2000 and zero tax during off season. Besides, heritage hotels have been granted exemption from tax for a period of 10 years provided they promote minimum one crore investment in the hotel. The other salient features of the new policy are— ? Special Tourism zone proposed. ? Creating land bank for the private investors proposed. ? Water tourism policy incorporated for promoting tourism at various reservoirs of power projects like Indira Sagar, Omkareshwar and Bansagar Dams. ? New hotels in Bhopal and Indore exempted from taxes for 5 years period. ? Existing hotels exempted from taxes in certain conditions provided they ensure
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minimum 50 lakh investment. ? New hotels also exempted from electricity duty if they set up captive power plant. RBI divests stake in NABARD to Government—Reserve Bank of India has divested its 71·5 per cent stake, aggregating to 1430 crore, to the government in National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development. This disinvestment makes RBI's holding down in National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) to only one per cent while it raised government's holding to 99 per cent. Following this changed holding structure in NABARD, the government now holds a greater control in NABARD's decisions with more say and flexibility to issue the directions to NABARD for meeting its credit objectives set for the priority sector. Despite the change in the holding structure, NABARD's board will not be changed. As per the official declaration of the NABARD, there will not be any change in the mandate of bank after the stake transfer. At present RBI has three members on the board of the bank. RBI to issue coins with ‘Commonwealth Theme’—Reserve Bank of India has announced to issue new coins of 5 and 2 to commemorate the Commonwealth Games held in New Delhi in October 2010. RBI has decided to put into circulation coins of 5 and 2 with the theme ‘XIX Commonwealth Games 2010-Delhi.’ Both the newly planned coins of 5 and 2 denomination will be of circular shape and have a diameter of 23 millimeter and 27 millimeter respectively. RBI also announced that the existing 5 and 2 coins will also continue in circulation. Railway earnings rise 7·83% in first half 2010-11—The earnings of Indian Railways show a rise of 7·83 per cent during AprilSeptember 2010, compared to the earnings in the same period of 2009.
The total earnings of Indian Railways during April-September 2010 stood at 44,323·70 crore, against 41,104·78 crore of the same period last year. The total goods earnings have gone up from 27,629·01 crore during April-September 2009 to 29,443·32 crore during AprilSeptember 2010 showing an increase of 6·57 per cent. The total passenger revenue earnings during the first six months of the financial year 2010-11 were 12,689·36 crore, compared to 11,573·60 crore in the same period last year registering an increase of 9·64 per cent. The revenue earnings from other coaching amounted to 1234·89 crore during the AprilSeptember period of 2010-11 compared to 1121·64 crore in the same period last year which shows an increase of 10·10 per cent.
‘Budget Mannual’ Released
Union Ministry of Finance on September 26, 2010 released the ‘Budget Mannual’ showing the entire budget process of the country. It is for the first time when this type of mannual
Pranab Mukherjee is officially released. While releasing this mannual, the Finance Minister Mr. Pranab Mukherjee extended the hope that a transparency in various issues and making of budget will be established with this Budget Mannual. Indian Constitution though mentions budget and grants-in-aids etc. but does not provide any detail. The new Budget Mannual, on the other hand, gives detailed budget making process.
PD/December/2010/1011
“If God did not exist, it would be necessary to invent him.”
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Core industrial growth slowed down—Six core industries— crude oil, petroleum, refinery products, coal, electricity, cement and finished steel have shown a declined growth of 4·1 per cent during April-August 2010 period against—4·8 per cent growth obtained during the same period of 2009. In April 2010 this sector had 5·4 per cent growth which slipped down to 3·7 per cent in August 2010. As compared to the August 2009 period, core industries growth also show a big decline as it was 6·4 per cent in August 2009. Core sector industrial growth deeply affects Index of Industrial production as these six core industrial segment accounts for 26·7 per cent of the country's total industrial output.
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Six Core Industries Growth April-August 2010
(in %)
Crude oil Petroleum Refinery Coal Electricity Cement Finished Steel Overall Core Sector 6·5 5·3 0·9 4·4 4·6 3·5 4·1
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Indian Post Department to issue ‘Debit Cards’—Indian Post Department has finally announced to issue ‘debit cards’ on the lines of debit cards issued by banks. These debit cards will be issued with the collaboration of ‘Master Cards.’ Reserve Bank of India has granted permission to Indian Post Department for issuing debit cards. Head post offices of Indian Post Department will issue these cards. After their top-up with desired amount, these cards may be used in various commercial complexes accepting master cards for shoping Money withdrawals from ATMs can also be made with these cards. e-commerce and electronic money transfer from internet may also be done with the use of these debit cards.
Trade Deficit shrinks in September 2010—In September 2010, India’s exports increased by 23 per cent which took India’s exports to the highest level in the nearly two years. This supportive growth in exports made trade deficit shrunk to $ 9·12 billion. According to the latest data released by Commerce Ministry exports grew by 23·2 per cent in September to $ 18·02, while imports rose by 26·1 per cent to $ 27·14 billion. As a result, trade deficit shrunk to $ 9·12 billion compared to $ 13·06 billion in August, which was a 23-month high. During the first six months of 2010-11 i.e., April-September 2010 exports went up by 27·6 per cent to $ 103·3 billion. On the other hand, imports clocked 30 per cent growth during the AprilSeptember period 2010 reaching $ 166·5 billion. Taking the note of this encouraging scenario of country’s exports, government has extended hope of achieving export target of $ 200 billion for the year 2010 despite the recent appreciation of the Indian rupee.
SENSEX
The term ‘SENSEX’ has been derived by combining two words Sensitive-Index. It is a sensitive share price index to reflect movements in share prices. It incorporates share prices of 30 select sensitive companies.
Repo Rate and Reverse Repo Rate
Repo rate is the short for repurchase rate. It is the discounted interest rate at which a central bank repurchases government securities from the commercial banks. In simple terms, the rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks is called repo rate. Reverse Repo rate is the rate at which commercial banks park their surplus funds with RBI.
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India's Trade April-September 2010
(in billion $) Export Import Trade Deficit 103·3 166·5 – 63·2 + 27·6% + 30·3% —
Railway to convert trains number in 5-digit—Indian Railways has initiated a plan to convert the numbers of trains into 5-digit. At present, trains numbers are of 4digit. As per the official report of Indian Railways, one additional digit will be pre-fixed in the existing 4-digit numbers of the trains under this newly proposed train number system. Shatabdi, Rajdhani, Duranto, Sampark Kranti, Jan Shatabdi, Garib Rath and other Mail/Express/Superfast trains number will be added number 1 at the beginning of the existing number. Passenger trains numbers will get number 5 as additional digit in existing number while MEMU and DEMU trains will get additional number P.Darpan 6 and 7 respectively.
PD/December/2010/1012
“Indeed, history is nothing more than a tableau of crimes and misfortunes.”
National
? Armando Emilio Guebuza who recently visited India is the President of ? Mozambique ? Recently Mozambique President Armando Emilio Guebuza visited India. During his visit India signed three agreements besides agreeing upon a credit line of $ 500 million for infrastructure projects in Mozambique. Lal Bahadur Shastri Award has been bestowed on ? Aruna Roy ? President Pratibha Devisingh Patil presented the prestigious Lal Bahadur Shastri National Award for Excellence in Public Administration Academia and Management to Aruna Roy on October 1, 2010. Aruna Roy is a social and political activist. The First National Cerebral Palsy Day was observed on ? October 3, 2010 ? Indian Academy of Cerebral Palsy, an academic body of doctors and rehabilitation professionals from across the country decided to observe October 3, as the National Cerebral Palsy Day to highlight the growing cerebral palsy—a brain disorder which affects mostly children becoming the commonest cause of childhood disability in India. The new Director General of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) is ? K. Vijay Kumar ? K. Vijay Kumar who was Director of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy. Hyderabad has been appointed the new Director General of Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) headquartered in New Delhi. LG ICC Cricketer of the Year Award and LG ICC Peoples’ Choice Award for 2010 have been bestowed on
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? Sachin Tendulkar ? Sachin Tendulkar emerged winner at the LG ICC (International Cricket Council) Award on October 6, 2010
after winning the Sir Garfield Sobers Cricketer of the Year Award and LG Peoples’ Choice Award for the year 2010. ? Sahitya Akademi Fellowship has been conferred on ? Kushwant Singh ? Eminent writer, historian and columnist Khushwant Singh has been conferred the Sahitya Akademi Fellowship—an honour reserved for the immortals of literature. The World’s largest Diamond Bourse which was recently inaugurated in Mumbai is
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? Bharat Diamond Bourse (BDB) ? Bharat Diamond Bourse (BDB) the world’s largest diamond bourse was inaugurated on October 17, 2010 in
Mumbai with the primary objective of establishing necessary infrastructure facilities for promotion of export of diamonds. ? In terms of Medal tally, in recently held Commonwealth Games in Delhi, India achieved ? Second Position ? With Badminton Star Saina Nehwal snatching a three-game victory over Malaysia’s Mew Choo Wong India took second position by grabbing 38 gold medals (in total 101 medals) ahead of England which got 37 gold medals. The nation which occupies top position in underweight children among Commonwealth Nations is ? India ? In a recent report ‘Commonwealth or Common Hunger’ prepared by an NGO ‘Save the Children’. India among the Commonwealth Nations is on the top in underweight children with seven million under five severely malnourished. The recently-held joint exercise by the Indian Air Force (IAF) and the Royal Air Force (RAF) of United Kingdom was named ? Indradhanush ? Indradhanush—a joint exercise by the Indian Air Force (IAF) and the Royal Air Force (RAF) of the United Kingdom was organised in October 2010 at the Kalaikunda Air Force Station in West Bengal’s Paschim Medinipur district.
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? Rustom I ? Rustom I—India’s medium altitude and long endurance Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) developed by the
India’s medium–altitude and long endurance Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) is Bangalore-based Aeronautical Development Establishment was successfully test-flown in Bangalore on October 16, 2010.
PD/December/2010/1013
“Self-sacrifice enables us to sacrifice other people without blushing.”
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The adult HIV prevalence in the country has declined from 0·45% in 2002 to ? 0·29% in 2008 ? In a report by the National AIDS Control Programme (NACO) on its “Response to the HIV Epidemic in India”, it has been revealed that the people living with HIV have declined from 2·73 million to 2·27 million between 2002 and 2008. The HIV prevalence has declined from 0·45% in 2002 to 0·29% in 2008.
International
? The winner of Ryder Cup is ? Europe ? Europe won Ryder Cup (Golf) in Newport (Wales) on October 4, 2010 after defeating United States of America by 14–1/2 points to 13–1/2 points. The winner of the 2010 Nobel Prize for Medicine is ? Robert Edwards ? British scientist Robert Edwards for his pioneering research in in-vitro fertilization has been awarded the Nobel Prize for Medicine for 2010. The winners of Nobel Prize for Physics for 2010 are ? Andre Geim and Konstantin Novoselov ? Russian-born Andre Geim and Konstantin Novoselov of Manchester University have been named joint winners of this year’s Nobel Prize for Physics for 2010 for their groundbreaking work on experiments with graphene—a new form of carbon. The winners of the 2010 Nobel Prize for Chemistry are ? Akira Suzuki, Ei-ichi Negishi and Richard F. Heck ? Ei-ichi Negishi, Akira Suzuki and Richard F. Heck have been selected for the 2010 Nobel Prize for Physics for their work on palladium-catalyzed cross couplings in organic synthesis. The winner of Literature Nobel for 2010 is ? Mario Vargas Llosa ? Mario Vargas–a Peruvian–Spanish author won the Nobel Prize for Literature 2010 for his cartography of structures of power and trenchant images of individual’s resistance, revolt and defeat in his compositions. The winner of Nobel Peace Prize for 2010 is ? Liu Xiaobo ? Jailed Chinese political activist Liu Xiaobe was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize for 2010 for his long and nonviolent struggle for fundamental human rights in China. The winners of Nobel Prize for Economics for 2010 are
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? Peter Diamond, Dale Mortensen and Christopher Pissarides ? Peter Diamond and Dale Mortensen of United States and British Cypriot Christopher Pissarides won the 2010
Nobel Economics Prize recently for their work on why supply and demand do not always meet in the labour market and elsewhere. ? The Man Booker Prize winner for fiction this year is ? Howard Jacobson ? British writer and journalist Howard Jacobson’s novel The Finkler Question won the Man Booker Prize for Fiction this year. The novel was judged the best of the six books on the shortlist. The longest railway tunnel of the world which was recently completed is ? Gotthard Base Tunnel ? The World’s longest railway the Gattahard Base Tunnel—the 57 km long high-speed and freight rail connection deep beneath the Swiss-Alps—was recently completed. The tunnel is designed to slash journey times between Zurich and Milan by over an hour. The woman athlete who was adjudged the best athlete of the XIX Commonwealth Games was ? Trecia Smith
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? Jamaica’s triple jumper Trecia Smith was adjudged the outstanding athlete of the Commonwealth Games on
October 14, 2010 and thus was presented the David Dixon Award by the Commonwealth Games Federation President Michael Fennell. ? The country which achieved number one position in terms of medals tally in 19th Commonwealth Games in New Delhi is ? Australia
? Australia grabbed number one position in medals tally by winning 177 medals (74 gold, 55 silver and 48
bronze medal) in recently held Commonwealth Games in New Delhi. ? The winner of Korean Grand Prix is the Formula One World Championship lead. ? CBD which recently came into news stands for
? Fernando Alonso
? Ferrari’s Fernando Alonso won Korean Grand Prix in Yeongam in October 2010 which has brought him into ? Convention on Biological Diversity
? The 193 members of the UN’s Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) was organised in Nagoya—Central
city of Japan in order to work out strategies to prevent mass extinction of species of plants and animals.
P.Darpan
PD/December/2010/1014
“A witty saying proves nothing.”
Recruitment in the Indian Navy for Short Service Commissioned Officers as Pilot
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 15, 2010. Age Limit—19 to 23 years. Educational Qualifications—A graduate degree in any discipline with 65% marks should have qualified Mathematics and Physics at 10 + 2 level. How to Apply—Application Forms in accordance with the prescribed format and complete in all respects. Selection Procedure—The candidates will be issued call up for Service Selection Board (SSB) interview. Stage I will consist of Intelligence Test, Picture Perception and Group Discussion Stage II will consist of Psychological Test, group task. Successful candidates will undergo Pilot Aptitude Battery Test (PABT) followed by Aviation Medical Examination. See Employment News October 16-22, 2010 for more details.
How to Apply—Candidates can apply for the post either on the prescribed Application (Offline) or submit the application Online followed up by sending a printout of the online application as per the format given in Employment News October 16-22, 2010. See Employment News October 16-22, 2010 for more details.
Central Agricultural University Imphal Recruitment for Various Posts
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 11, 2010. Total Vacancies—76. Educational Qualifications—As per the requirement of the post . Age Limit—As per the requirement of the post. See Employment News October 16-22, 2010 for more details.
Recruitment in the Office of the Principal Accountant General
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 15, 2010. Total Vacancies—275. Educational Qualifications— 10th pass. Age Limit—18 to 27 years. Selection Procedure—The selection of candidates shall be based on a Preliminary Screening Test followed by Interview. See Employment News October 16-22, 2010 for more details.
Recruitment in Indian Bank for Probationary Officers (JMG Scale I)
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 11, 2010. Total Vacancies—850. Educational Qualifications— Graduation in any discipline. Selection Procedure—The written examination comprises. Objective and Descriptive papers. Objective Test consists of Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, English Language and General Awareness. After Objective Paper there will be descriptive paper. How to Apply—Applications have to be submitted by the eligible candidates only online i.e. through internet on our Bank's website www. indianbank. in See Employment News October 9-15, 2010.
Recruitment in Reserve Bank of India for Officers in Grade B
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 15, 2010. Total Vacancies—80. Educational Qualifications—A first class Bachelor's degree with a minimum 60% marks or an equivalent grade. Selection Procedure—Selection will be through Written Examination's (WE) and Interview Phase I (Objective Type test) consist of test of General Awareness (II) English Language (III) Quantitative Aptitude and (IV) Reasoning, Phase II Descriptive type test consist of Paper I English, Paper II Economic and Social Issues and Paper III Finance and Management.
National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination 2011
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 15, 2010. Total Vacancies—335 (195 for the Army, 39 for Navy, 66 for the Air Force and 35 for Indian Naval Academy.) Educational Qualifications— 12th class pass of the 10 + 2 pattern of School Education. Age Limit—15 to 17 years. Selection Procedure—Two stage selection procedure based on Psychological Aptitude Test and Intelligence Test will be conducted. The paper in all the subjects will consist of objective type questions only. The question papers of Mathematics and General Ability Test will be set bilingually in Hindi and English. See Employment News October 16-22, 2010 for further details.
Recruitment in Indian Air Force as Airman in Group X (Technical Trade)
Last Date (Receipt of Applications Forms)—November 8, 2010. Educational Qualifications— Candidates should have passed Intermediate/10 + 2 pass marks in Mathematics and Physics with a
PD/December/2010/1016
“No man has a good enough memory to make a successful liar.”
minimum of 50% marks in overall aggregate. Selection Procedure—Candidates will be tested in English, Physics and Mathematics as per CBSE syllabus of AISSCE. Question papers will be objective type and bilingual (English amd Hindi) except English Paper. How to Apply—Application should be in A4 size paper as per the format given in Employment News October 9-15, 2010. See Employment News October 9-15, 2010 for more details.
How to Apply—Candidates are required to apply online through Bank's website www.psbindia.com for more details. Log onto Employment News October 23-29, 2010 for more details.
Selection Procedure—Candidates will be subjected to Physical Efficiency Test. Written Objective test will assess General Awareness/ General Knowledge, Knowledge of Elementary Knowledge in English/ Hindi. How to Apply—As per the format given in Employment News October 23-29, 2010. See Employment News October 23-29, 2010 for more details.
Recruitment in Punjab and Sind Bank for Various Posts
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 15, 2010. Total Vacancies—700. Educational Qualifications— Graduation in any discipline with minimum 55% marks. Selection Procedure—Objective Test will consist of Test of Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, General Awareness, Computer Knowledge and English Language and Descriptive paper will consist of English Comprehension. How to Apply—Candidates are required to apply online through Bank's website www.psbindia.com. See Employment News October 23-29, 2010 for more details.
Oriental Bank of Commerce : Recruitment of Clerks
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 24, 2010. Total Vacancies—1105. Educational Qualifications— Degree in any discipline or its equivalent or 10 + 2 examination or its equivalent with minimum 50%. Age Limit—18 to 28 years. Selection Procedure—The selection will be on the basis of written test and interview. The Objective Test will comprise Test of Reasoning, English, Clerical Aptitude, Numerical Ability Description Test will consist of four questions out of which the candidates are required to attempt 3 questions only. How to Apply—To apply, candidates should first log onto website www.obcindia.com.in. See Employment News October 23-29, 2010 for more details.
M.P. PSC State Services Exam 2010
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 15, 2010. Total Vacancies—305. Educational Qualifications— Graduation degree from a recognized University. Age Limit—21 to 30 years. Selection Procedure—In prelims Objective Test will consist of Paper I of General Studies and Paper II of Optional Paper. How to Apply—The candidates can apply online through the website www.mponline.gov.in or www. mppsc.com. or www. mppsc.nic.in. Log onto www.mppsc.com for more details.
Recruitment in the Indian Navy for Permanent Commissioned Officers
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 15, 2010. Educational Qualifications— BE/B. Tech. in Electronics. How to Apply—As per the format given in Employment News October 23-29, 2010. Selection Procedure—Short Service Candidates will be called for interview. Stage I will include Intelligence Test, Picture Perception Test and Group Discussion. The second stage includes Psychological Test. See Employment News October 23-29, 2010 for more details.
Recruitment in Punjab and Sind Bank in Clerical Cadre
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 15, 2010. Total Vacancies—300. Educational Qualifications— Pass with 60% marks in aggregate in Higher Secondary Examination/ 10 + 2 of 10 + 2 + 3 pattern. Selection Procedure—Objective Test will be based on : (a) test of Reasoning Ability, (b) test of Numerical Ability (c) test of English Language and (d) test of Clerical Aptitude and test of Computer Knowledge. Descriptive Paper on English will be of qualifying nature.
Recruitment in Employees’ State Insurance Corporation
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 30, 2010. Total Vacancies—47. Educational Qualifications— Matriculation. Mode of Selection—Through Open Competitive Examination (Objective type) or Interview or both. How to Apply—The application in the prescribed proforma given in Employment News October 23-29, 2010 should be sent. See Employment News October 23-29, 2010 for more details.
Recruitment in IndoTibetan Border Force for Constables
Total Vacancies—175. Educational Qualifications— Matriculation or 10th class pass. Age Limit—18 to 23 years.
PD/December/2010/1018
“No man is good enough to govern another man without that other’s consent.”
Recruitment in Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan for TGT Teachers
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—December 7, 2010. Total Vacancies—559. Educational Qualifications— Bachelor’s degree and B.Ed. or equivalent Degree from a recognized University.
Upper Age Limit—35 years. Selection Procedure—Prelim exam will have the paper in two parts. Part I will consist of General Knowledge, General Awareness, Current Affairs, General Science and Indian Constitution Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude and Teaching Aptitude and Part II will be based on English Language and Hindi Language. Main Exam will have a Descrip-
tive Paper. After Main Exam there will be interview. How to Apply—Candidates are required to download the Application Form from KVS's website. No other Application Format will be accepted. See Employment News October 30–November 5, 2010 for more P.Darpan details.
FORTHCOMING COMPETITIVE EXAMS.
2010
M.P. PSC Assistant District Public Prosecution Officers Exam. (Nov. 14) UCO Bank Clerical Cadre Exam. (Nov. 14) FCI Assistant Grade III Recruitment Exam. (North Zone) (Nov. 14) United Bank of India Probationary Officers Exam. (Nov. 14) Narmada Malwa Gramin Bank Officers Scale-I Exam. (Nov. 14) Recruitment of Postal Assistant, Sorting Assistant in M.P. Postal Circle (Nov. 14) National Talent Search Examination/State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Selection Test 2010-11 (Nov. 21) Vanrakshakas Direct Recruitment Exam. in Rajasthan Forest Department (Nov. 21) SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10 + 2) Exam., 2010 for Recruitment of Data Entry Operator and Lower Division Clerks (Nov. 27-28) M.P. School Education Department, Principal Higher Secondary School Recruitment Exam. (Nov. 28) United Bank of India Clerical Cadre Recruitment Exam. (Nov. 28) FCI Assistant Grade III Recruitment Exam. (South Zone) (Nov. 28) Punjab National Bank Management Trainees Exam. (Nov. 28) U.P. Combined State/Upper Subordinate Service (Mains) Exam., 2009 (Nov. 29–Dec. 14) Assistant Manager Grade ‘A’ Recruitment Exam. in ‘SEBI’. (Dec. 5) Federal Bank Clerks and Probationary Officers Recruitment Exam. (Dec. 5) Union Bank of India Customer Relation Executive Recruitment Exam. (Dec. 5) SSC Junior Translator/Junior Hindi Translator Exam., 2010 (Dec. 5) Special Examination for Recruitment of SIs and ASIs in CPOs, 2010 (Dec.12) Hadoti Kshetriya Gramin Bank, Kota Clerk-cumCashiers Exam. (Dec.12) Vijya Bank Specialist/Generalist Officers Recruitment Exam. (Dec. 12) CSIR-UGC Test for JRF and Eligibility for Lectureship (Dec. 2010) (Dec. 19) Hadoti Kshetriya Gramin Bank, Kota Officer (Scale-I) Exam. (Dec. 19) FCI Assistant Grade III Recruitment Exam. (West Zone) (Dec. 19) Rashtriya Military School Common Entrance Test (Class VI) (Dec. 19) Bank of Maharashtra Probationary Officers Exam. (Dec. 19) UPSC Special Class Railway Apprentices Exam., 2010 (Dec. 19) Oriental Bank of Commerce Probationary Officers Exam. (Dec. 26) (Online Closing Date : 10 Nov., 2010) UGC National Eligibility Test (NET) Dec. 2010. (Dec. 26) U.P. Combined Lower Subordinate Service Special Selection (Pre.) Exam., 2008 (Dec. 26)
2011
Indian Bank Probationary Officers Exam. (Jan. 2) (Online Closing Date : 11 Nov., 2010) S.S.C. Stenographer (Grade ‘C’ & ‘D’) Re-examination, 2010. (Jan. 9) Oriental Bank of Commerce Clerical Cadre Recruitment Exam. (Jan. 9) (Online Closing Date : 24 Nov., 2010) Punjab and Sind Bank Probationary Officers Scale-I Exam. (Jan. 16) Clerical Recruitment Exam. in State Bank of India’s Associate Banks (Jan. 16) Madhya Bharat Gramin Bank Officers Scale-I Exam. (Jan. 23) (Closing Date : 18 Nov., 2010) GATE 2011 Online Exam. (Papers : GG and TF, AE and MN) (Jan. 30) Punjab and Sind Bank Clerical Cadre Exam. (Jan. 30) Madhya Bharat Gramin Bank Office Assistants Exam. (Jan. 30) (Closing Date : 18 Nov., 2010) U.P. PCS Review Officer/Assistant Review Officer etc. General Selecion (Pre.) Exam., 2010 (Jan. 30) Reserve Bank of India Grade ‘B’ Officers Exam. (Closing Date : 15 Nov., 2010) (Feb. 6) Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Entrance Exam. (For Class VI) (Feb. 6) Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Post Graduate Teacher Preliminary Exam. (Feb. 11) (Closing Date : 30 Jan., 2011) Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan TGT & Liberarian, Primary Teacher (Pre.) Exam. (Feb. 12) (Closing Date : 30 Jan., 2011) UPSC Combined Defence Service Exam. (I), 2011 (Feb. 13) GATE 2011 Offline Exam. (Papers : AR, BT, CE, CH, CS, ME, PH and PI, AG, CY, EC, EE, IN, MA, XE, MT and XL (Feb. 13) Madhya Pradesh State Services (Pre.) Exam., 2010 (Feb. 20) (Online Closing Date : 15 Nov., 2010) Indian Air Force Airman Recruitment Test (Group ‘X’ Technical Trade) (Feb.) Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Post Graduate Teacher (Mains) Exam. (April 8) Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan TGT & Librarian, Primary Teacher (Mains) Exam. (April 9)
PD/December/2010/1019
Career Article
Civil Services Examination
Learn to Survive in New CSAT Culture
—Atul Kapoor
I am sure most of you must have heard the traditional story of ‘the elephant’ and ‘blind men’. How each one of them interpreted the different parts of elephant’s body based on their knowledge and belief ? Each one of them was convinced about their own explanations. With due regards to all, for last few months, the moment the news of winds of changes in Preliminary examination hit the surface, the ‘gyaan’ spread all throughout and before even UPSC could think about and act, the proposed Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT), and phrase ‘ethical and moral dimension of decision-making’ were like ‘Elephant’ and people all around came out with their version of what it is all about. In these moments of uncertainty, many didn’t wait for the UPSC announcement and each one of them came out with their interpretation about CSAT to gain the first mover advantage among candidates. Most of them were so much prejudiced by their conviction as if UPSC was going to fire another Salvo (in name of CSAT). Many serious candidates who were preparing for Civil Services Examination were anxious to know the changes as the information available was built around CSAT in such a way that perhaps UPSC was going to introduce ‘Rocket Science’ which will require super-special, technical knowhow and would be restrictive to some section of candidates. 2011 included the statements about the decision of Government of India to introduce change in the pattern of the Preliminary Examination. It has been made clear that no changes are being introduced at this stage in the Civil Services (Main) Examination and Personality Test in the scheme of Civil Services Examination (CSE). huge variety of unrelated and often esoteric subjects that are not relevant for the public services and were not comparable for the purpose of evaluation. Search for more intelligent tool to assess suitable people for recruitment for the coveted ‘Civil Services’ posts ended with idea of introducing aptitude test in shape of Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT). The UPSC is looking to adopt change in recruitment process to assess key features of personality which are critical to the job in question and have eye on the essential and the desirable qualities that meet the job requirement. An expert committee was set up by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) to develop the curricula for these proposed new courses. Prime Minister Mr. Manmohan Singh and the vision of UPA government along with UPSC deserves a special mention and compliments for bringing in such a big change to a sensitive examination like this in a way that it would involve ’Aam Aadmi’ and every educated and intelligent youth eligible for the examination would feel confident to appear in Civil Services Examination as misleading notions and lots of myths which surrounded this examination are more or less dispelled. Recently, while delivering the speech, UPSC Chairman touched the issues about the upcoming changes and said “UPSC has also been constantly striving to innovate and improve our systems to recruit the best talents in a fair and just manner.” Further he added “The quality of selection in the recruitment heavily depends on the way the Recruitment Rules are framed. The procedures of framing of Recruitment Rules which were archaic are thoroughly revamped so as to be in sync with the new technologies / subjects / disciplines that has emerged in various fields.”
CSAT: Straight Path to Career Development
The change is a welcome step as the Civil Services Examination particularly Preliminary Examination, now, falls in line with other one-day examinations and would certainly boost the morale of the young generation. Earlier there existed a division among aspirants for Civil Services Examination and other one-day examinations as the pattern itself created the divide. The serious candidates who had talent and potential always preferred to prepare separately for Civil Services Examination as it has different pattern and thus required different approach. Now, one who aims to be ‘Civil Servant’ would find it relatively easy to deal with other open competitive examinations like opportunities in Banking and SSC Examinations.
Wait; there is something you must know
The major reforms in the existing system of civil services examinations are result of suggestion relating to issues involving ‘recruitment in Civil Services’ as have been studied from time to time by various Committees and Commissions and most recently, by the Second Administrative Reforms Commission. These reports have highlighted the issues relating to changes in selection process that included replacing the existing regime which had allowed the proliferation of a
The Plan for CSE 2011
The pattern and frame-work of syllabus for the coming Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2011 were released by Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) on October 18, 2010. The announcement about the scheme of Civil Services Examination
PD/December/2010/1020
“For what do we live, but to make sport for our neighbours, and laugh at them in our turn ?”
“Today, UPSC is one of the few Institutions in which people still have faith”, he said.
Preliminary Examination : The Exam Comprises a World of Diversity
After 3 decades of pattern which involved 2 papers of General Studies and an optional paper, Preliminary Examination is now going to don a new look from Civil Services Examination 2011. In this radical change the incoming system will provide a level-playing field and equity, since all candidates will have to attempt common papers. Paper I is almost similar to existing General Studies paper. Some new topics have been added and General Mental Ability portion has been moved to Paper II. As per the new pattern, the Preliminary Examination shall now comprise two compulsory Papers of 200 marks each and of two hours duration each. The questions will be of multiple choices and objective type. Paper I (200 marks) Duration : Two hours ? ? ? ? Current events of national and international importance History of India and Indian National Movement Indian and World Geography-Physical, Social, Economic, Geography of India and the World. Indian Polity and Governance–Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc. Economic and Social Development–Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc. General issues on Environmental Ecology, Biodiversity and Climate Change-that do not require subject specialization General Science. Comprehension Interpersonal skills including communication skills; Logical reasoning and analytical ability Decision making and problem solving General mental ability Basic numeracy (numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude etc.) (Class X level), Data interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency etc. Class X level) English Language Comprehension skills (Class X level).
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Paper II (200 marks) Duration : Two hours
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(Last item in the Syllabus of Paper-II) will be tested through passages from English Language only without providing Hindi translation thereof in the question paper.
No more than this has been told by UPSC
Prospective Candidates need good information and clarity in order to understand and articulate development needs related to the examination. The framework of the syllabus as released by UPSC outlines the areas which you need to prepare and are broad in nature.
PD/December/2010/1021
“Better to remain silent and be thought a fool than to speak out and remove all doubt.”
However, more clarity would emerge once UPSC brings out sample questions which would give a fair idea about the examiner’s mind-set. As per UPSC announcement, a set of sample questions for both Papers would be put on the UPSC website soon. The fallacy about CSAT faded as the light on the proposed structure cleared most of the doubts and to the surprise of most of the people, the inclusion of new topics in Paper I and the pattern of Paper II is nothing typical and is general in nature.
you need study material for preparation as well as for practice which will influence your performance in the examination.
ability of the candidate. It is an instrument designed to produce a quantitative assessment of the candidate. Aptitude tests have become a regular feature in the selection procedures for Civil Services recruitment world over as these assess candidate’s skills including logical reasoning, judgement, decision making and comprehension. The tests are based on multiple choice questions and meaningful and reliable as everyone answers the papers in the same examination conditions resulting in fair evaluation. The Aptitude Tests are designed in such a way that they attempt to measure whether the candidate has the specific abilities and intellectual capabilities required for the job. Moreover, the design of the Aptitude test is such that the influence of any particular subject does not have much impact. It is to be noted by those candidates who come from rural or semi-urban areas and from vernacular languages and may have some doubts about some areas included in syllabus of Paper II. For them this explanation should act as breather to some extent.
Things just keep better, don’t they ?
getting
Adopt a Fresh Approach
Although the syllabus looks simple yet you need to read between the lines as this is no small examination. It will require a shift from very general to the highly specific, widening out the scope of interest. The framework for syllabus clearly indicates richness and complexity and would require a move in the strategy for Preliminary Examination for effective preparation. However, Paper I strengthens the point of preparing for Mains (General Studies) along with Preliminary Examination to understand topics better and to gain competitive edge. The role of magazines like Pratiyogita Darpan and books is going to be huge as now relevant and up-todate information is going to assume a greater value. Besides, for Paper II,
Civil Services Examination, the rigorous examination across the world as it is known, is moving towards more specifics to take care of the changing trends in the society as well as the economy. The changes introduced now aim to test the problem solving, analytical, logical reasoning and decisionmaking skills of the aspirants. The outgoing pattern was really effective but it had a very little stress on testing managerial skills in the examination. The government has remodelled the Civil Services Examination with an idea of making the Civil Services jobs more attractive and making it a new economy job. The new pattern is bound to attract highly talented and brilliant students with specialised skills towards Civil Services as the changes in our economy have created a need for specialists at various jobs.
Learn new skills and way of thinking
Earlier, candidates with excellent preparation in his/her subject were able to make it in Preliminary Examination despite average preparation in General Studies. Now, the rule of the game is going to change at the first stage of examination. If you look at the outgoing pattern, the candidates were focused more on the optional paper which had higher weightage (300 marks) and with a little less attention on General Studies (150 marks) with the aim to get average score which safely can take them to next level. With new changes, now, Paper I which actually is General Studies as known earlier is going to get due respect and importance it always deserved. This should play the vital role as you are aware of the examiner’s expectations and can read the trend.
Preliminary Examination : CSAT has Finally Arrived
If you ask me, in my view UPSC had adopted the soul of the changes introduced now a little earlier. Why to go back, even a glance at Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2010 would reveal that UPSC has done away with the conventional things and has moved towards analytical approach and applications. The questions on current affairs are not at all directly based on facts and figures but test your observation, grip on your information and general awareness. Even, the General Studies papers of Civil Services (Mains) Examination 2009 coagulate the belief that UPSC has moved from mugging to clear understanding of the topics.
CSAT
(Upkar’s Useful Books)
UPKAR’s CSAT-Civil Services In Preliminary Exam. (Paper-II) Press ,, CSAT Logical Reasoning and Analytical Ability 60/,, Multi-Dimensional Reasoning 265/,, Data Interpretation, Analysis & Sufficiency 65/,, Civil Services Science and Technology (By : Vimal Kumar Singh) 210/,, Quicker Objective Arithmetic 199/,, Comprehension and Precis Writing 85/,, Correct English How To Write It 195/-
“The brain with a problem is the one with the solution” a simple philosophy
Paper II is all about Aptitude that aims to test intelligence, aptitude or
Coaching Institutes : Same Game; Different Names
Coaching for Civil Services Examination has come a long way. It is not easy for anyone to guide Civil
Continued on Page 1029
PD/December/2010/1022
“Force is all-conquering, but its victories are short-lived.”
IBSA : An Emerging Forum for South-South Cooperation
—Arunoday Bajpai IBSA or India-Brazil-South Africa Dialogue Forum has emerged as a potential forum for relaunching a viable process of South-South cooperation. IBSA was established in 2003; initially, as a mechanism for trilateral cooperation between the three regional powers and emerging economies representing the three continents, where majority of the poor and developing countries are located. Within a span of seven years IBSA has displayed the potential to emerge as a platform for cooperation among developing countries. During the Millennium Development Goals Summit Sept. 20-22, 2010 held at the United Nations, IBSA was awarded the 2010 United Nations Millennium Development Goals Award for South-South Cooperation. This is the international recognition of its role as a forum of South-South Cooperation. The significance of IBSA is also highlighted due to a number of regional and strategic factors. First, the three member states of IBSA namely India, Brazil and South Africa are regional, middle ranking powers in their respective regions like India in South Asia, Brazil in Latin America and South Africa in Southern Africa even entire Africa. Secondly, these three member states are emerging economies with a viable infrastructural and technological base. This viability enables these countries to initiate and manage various projects and programmes of development in poor countries without external assistance. Thirdly, due to their size, strategic location and level of technological and economic development, the three member states are also part of G-5 outreach countries which hold annual consultation with G–8 group of rich countries. Mexico and China are other two members of G–5 out-reach group. Besides, these three countries are also important members of G–20 group of countries, which is destined to play an important role in the management of global economic architecture and other global issues. Observers predict that sooner or later, the G–20 is going to replace the G–8 group of rich countries. As larger developing countries, the members of IBSA occupy a middle ground between the developed and developing poor countries. This enables them to articulate and coordinate the view-points of poor countries on various global issues such as climate change, financial reforms or trade negotiations at the forums dominated by rich countries. The fourth factor of IBSA's potential emerges from the complementaries between the three members. For example,
if Brazil has advanced technology in the field of ethanol and bio-fuels, South Africa is ahead in mining and coal liquification technologies and India has gained ground in the field of Software small and medium enterprises and wind energy. These complementaries can be exploited for the mutually beneficial trilateral cooperation among the three members of IBSA.
South-South Cooperation
South-South cooperation has been a pet ideal of developing third world countries since 1970s. The establishment of NAM (Non-Aligned Movement) in 1961 and UNCTAD in 1964 emphasised the need for mutual cooperation among developing countries. It should be noted that since majority of developing and poor countries are located in the Southern hemisphere of the globe, the mutual cooperation among them is known as South-South Cooperation. On the other hand as all rich countries are located in the Northern hemisphere, the cooperation and dialogue between the developed and developing countries is known as North-South Dialogue.
Price : Rs. 475/-
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“He can compress the most words into the smallest ideas of any man I ever met.”
As developing countries have been largely the producers and exporters of primary commodities and raw material, the terms of international trade have been against these countries. UNCTAD helped these countries in the field of trade promotion and policy. Also, initially the scope for mutual cooperation among developing countries was limited to exchange of primary commodities with few exceptions. The Non-alignment raised the voice of South and demanded the establishment of the New International Economic Order (NIEO) which was passed by the UN General Assembly in 1974. The NIEO was intended to promote the emergence of a global financial and economic order which was t o be fair, equitable and inclusive. But due to the protectionist and intransigent approach of the rich countries, the idea of NIEO could not be given practical shape. However, the NAM, as a result of failure of NEIO, initiated some concrete majors to promote South-South cooperation, which was intended to achieve the goal of
self-reliant growth in developing countries. In its 1989 Summit NAM decided to establish South Commission to promote the cooperation among developing countries. The South Commission was established in 1990 with Dr. Manmohan Singh as its first Secretary-General, but it could not achieve the desired success. In 1990s, the onslaught of globalisation has adversely affected the trade, investment and economic development of poor countries. In fact, majority of the poor African countries have been marginalised in the process of globalisation. Also, the NAM became less significant in economic spheres as its leaders looked to the west in their own interest and survival. Thus, in the post-cold war era, the idea of South-South cooperation became redundant. It is in this moment of history that the initiative of IBSA by large developing countries is poised to play a historical role in South-South cooperation. The developing countries of 1990s are not the same as the developing countries of 1970s. Now many of them, particularly the members of
IBSA : Some Important Facts
Origin
IBSA emerged on June 6, 2003 when the foreign ministers of India, Brazil and South Africa signed ‘Brasilia Declaration’, which, among other things, expressed desire for closer cooperation among three countries on regular basis on various bilateral, regional and global issues. It also incorporated common perspective of developing countries on some pressing issues such as opposing trade protectionist policies of rich countries, demanding the restructuring of UN Security Council or making the process of globalisation more inclusive and humane. Organisational Structure : The organisational structure of IBSA consists of three organs. First the Summit meeting which is held on annual basis and is attended by the Presidents or Prime Ministers of three member states. Summit is the highest decisionmaking body of IBSA, which deliberates upon the common policies and approach of the organisation. So far following four Summit meetings of IBSA have been held : S. N. First Second Third Fourth Place Brasilla (Brazil) Tshwane (S. Africa) New Delhi Brasilia (Brazil) Time/Year 2006 2007 Oct. 2008 April 2010 The second important organ of IBSA is trilateral commission in which the foreign ministers of member countries are represented. It also holds its meeting on annual basis. The major responsibility of trilateral commission is to monitor the implementation of joints projects of cooperation and development as decided in the Summit till date, 6 meetings of trilateral commission have been held. The commission also holds its preparatory meeting before the Summit meetings.
The third, structural mechanism is known as ‘Focul Point’ which consists of the senior officials of the member states. It is responsible for making proposals of various programmes and schemes of cooperation for mutual cooperation among the member countries. The focul point also coordinates the implementation of these programmes and schemes.
Objectives
IBSA does not have a Charter and has not laid down its objective as such. However, by going through the various issues and approaches raised by it in various declarations, the following objectives of IBSA may be identified : (A) The primary objective of IBSA appears to be to promote economic cooperation among three countries and facilitate trade and investment in the three regions— Asia, Africa and Latin America. (B) It also strives for promoting cooperation among developing countries popularly known as South-South cooperation. (C) IBSA articulates, coordinates and presents the collective viewpoints of developing countries on various global issues at different international forums. (D) It aims to achieve the target of inclusive and humane social and economic development and to strive for the removal of hunger and poverty in member states as well as developing countries.
Areas of Cooperation
IBSA has identified certain areas of cooperation among member states as well as the nodal countries to initiate and facilitate such Cooperation. So far 16 sectoral areas of cooperation have been identified. These are : Agriculture, Climate Change and environment, culture, defence, education, energy, health, human settlement, information technology public administration, science and technology, social development, tourism, transport and trade and investment. In order to give concrete shape to the programmes of cooperation, 16 working groups have been set—one for each area of cooperation. Also, on the basis of level of expertise gained by member states, each one has been designated as lead country in certain areas to coordinate and initiate schemes for mutual cooperation. For example, in energy sector, Brazil has been declared lead country in ethanol and bio-fuels, South Africa as lead country in coal liquification and India as a lead country in the field of solar and wind energy. Similarly, in the field of science and technology, India has been designated lead country in subfields in nano-technology and HIV/AIDS, South Africa in biotechnology and T.B. and Brazil in the field of oceanography and Malaria. India has also been declared as lead country in the field of education. Again, many tripartite memorandums of understanding (MoU) have been signed to advance the cooperative efforts.
PD/December/2010/1024
“I will prepare and some day my chance will come.”
IBSA have much diversified economic and technological base. The three countries of IBSA are placed in better condition to represent the voice of South to the rich countries' forums and negotiate a better term of deals. Accordingly, IBSA has initiated many measures to promote South-South Cooperation. In 2003 itself, IBSA launched the IBSA Fund Facility for Alleviation of Poverty and Hunger. With the help of this facility, a number of development programmes have been launched in developing countries like Burundi, Cape Verde, Guinea Bissau, Haiti, Laos and Palestine. These development programmes are likely to bring developing countries in the ambit of IBSA initiated South-South cooperation. Besides, IBSA has proposed trilateral trade agreements among regional blocks of developing countries. In 2009 April and June respectively, the preferential Trade Agreements (PTA) between SACU (Southern African Customs Union) and MERCOSUR and India and MERCOSUR were signed. MERCOSUR is a trade block of Latin America, which was created in 1991 with the membership of Argentina, Brazil, Uruguay and Paraguay by the treaty of Asuncion. At present, the trade negotiations are at advanced stage for agreement between India and Southern Africa Custom Union (SACU). The SACU is the Custom Union of Botswana, Lesotho, Swaziland, Namibia and South Africa. This agreement will further expand the scope of trade cooperation among the developing countries. It should be noted that the present phase of South-South cooperation as envisaged by IBSA is distinct from earlier such phase of 1980s and 1970s because it is more pragmatic and realistic in the present era of globalisation.
tries. They also hoped the early conclusion of Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA) between India and Southern African Custom Union. 5. Leaders also welcomed the signs of recovery of global financial crisis. They hoped that the measures of financial recovery would also reflect the concerns of developing countries. They also demanded the expansion of finances of multilateral development Banks in the interest of developing countries. 6. On Climate Change, the declaration reflected the concerns of developing countries as articulated in the Copenhagen conference organised in Dec. 2009. The leaders again emphasised that the climate change negotiations should be completed on the basis of the principle of ‘Common but differentiated responsibility’. These negotiations should be inclusive and transparent and rich countries should bear the historic responsibility in the mitigation of climate change crisis. 7. On political issues the IBSA declaration expressed concern over the progress on the front of nuclear disarmament. It demanded a comprehensive, impartial and verifiable process of abolition of nuclear weapons. They condemned terrorism in all its manifestations and termed it as the gravest danger to the international peace and security. They demanded the early conclusion of the comprehensive UN convention on terrorism and resolved to cooperate to fight this menace.
Brasilia Declaration : April 15, 2010
The fourth IBSA Summit was held at Brasilia on April 15, 2010 and the declaration signed by top leaders of India, Brazil and South Africa reflect the scope and breadth of activities and approach covered by this organisation. The major highlights of the 45 points Declaration are given below : 1. On global issues, leaders reiterated their demand for the UN Security Council to make it more representative to the needs of developing countries. This mainly includes the expansion of membership of the Security Council in both permanent and non-permanent category. Similarly, IBSA declaration demanded the democratic reform of Bretton Woods institutions like World Bank and International Monetary Fund (IMF). 2. The declaration resolved to achieve the goal of inclusive Socio-economic development under globalisation in the interests of poor people and poor countries. 3. Leaders welcomed the formation of Human Rights Council for the better enforcement of human rights at global level. They also demanded the abolition of all forms of descrimination against women and emphasised on the goal of comprehensive process of women empowerment. 4. On international trade negotiations, IBSA demanded early conclusion of Doha round of trade negotiation with focus on development. They resolved against the protectionist policies followed by the rich coun-
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“If I were two-faced, would I be wearing this one ?”
8. IBSA recognised South-South cooperation as an essential and specific mechanism for development. They further resolved to deepen the process of SouthSouth cooperation in technological and economic fields. They viewed South-South cooperation as a partnership for development among participating countries based on the principles of equality and respect for the Sovereignty of the nations. The three leaders reiterated their commitment to collectively contribute at least one million U.S. dollars per annum to the IBSA Fund Facility for the Alleviation of poverty. 9. The leaders also passed resolutions on certain regional issues like Afghanistan, Haiti Ginea Bissau etc. 10. IBSA declaration also called for expediting the process of cooperation among three countries on various areas such as education, agriculture, culture, health, energy etc. They also reiterated their resolve to encourage the interaction among three countries through various non-official channels. 11. It was decided that the 7th meeting of trilateral commission shall be held in Delhi at the end of 2010 and the 5th Summit of IBSA shall be held in South Africa in 2011. The perusal of above points proves that IBSA has emerged gradually as a voice of South at global level and it has the potential to act as a forum for South-South Cooperation.
Thirdly, the magnitude of global problems such as poverty, hunger or ill health has assumed such magnitude and complexity that it cannot be solved without the global efforts. In brief, in this era of globalisation, the national problems have also assumed global dimensions. For examples, observers feel that the ongoing global financial crisis is likely to have more negative impacts on poor people and their livelihood.
What are Millennium Development Goals or MDGs ?
The Millennium Development Goals or MDGs were determined by the world leaders in 2000 at the Millennium UN Summit organised by the UN General Assembly. The Heads of States/Government of 147 countries participated in this millennium Summit. The Summit produced Millennium Declaration which was signed by the representatives of 189 countries. The Millennium Development Goals are the part of this Declaration. There are eight Millennium Development Goals with 21 targets and 60 indicators to assess their progress. These goals were to be achieved within a period of 15 years. In brief, these goals cover major issues involved in the socioeconomic development of poor countries or poor people of the world. The eight millennium development goals and their targets are given below : Goal 1 : Eradicating Extreme Poverty and Hunger— This goal includes three targets : (a) The proportion of people in the globe shall be less than half, those who live on the daily income of less than one U.S. dollar. (b) Achieving decent employment for women, men and young people. (c) The proportion of people who suffer from hunger should be less than half by the year 2015. Goal 2 : Achieving Universal Primary Education— The target is that by the year 2015, all children both girls and boys should complete a full course of primary schooling. Goal 3 : Promoting Gender Equality and Empowerment of Women—The target is to eliminate gender disparity in primary and secondary education preferably by the year 2005 and at all levels by the year 2015. This also includes ensuring the seats held by women in National Parliaments of different countries. Goal 4 : Reducing Child Mortality Rate—The target is to reduce child mortality (under five years of age) rate by two-third between 1990 and 2015. Goal 5 : Improving Maternal Health—The target in this goal is to reduce the maternal mortality ratio by threefourth between 1990 and 2015. The second target in this category is to ensure universal access to reproductive health by the year 2015. Goal 6 : Combating HIV/ AIDS, Malaria, and other Diseases—The first target under this goal is to reverse the spread of HIV/AIDS and halting their spread by the year 2015. The second target is to ensure universal access to treatment for AIDS/HIV by the year 2010 for all those who need it. The third target under this goal is to reverse the incidence of malaria and other major diseases and halting their incidence by the year 2015.
MDG Review Summit 2010 : Hope and Despair
The second Millennium Development Goals Summit was held at UN General Assembly on Sept. 20-22, 2010, which was marked by rhetoric of hope and optimism amidst pessimistic realities. The Summit was attended by 140 heads of states or governments. India was represented by her External Affairs Ministers Shri S. M. Krishna. The obvious purpose of the Summit was to take the stock of the success and failures in the achievement of eight Millennium Development Goals, which were outlined by the UN General Assembly ten years back in 2000. This Review Summit was the second such exercise as the first summit was held in 2005. The Millennium Development Goals are the most ambitious programme of the United Nations since its establishment in 1945. These goals aim at the comprehensive targets of socio-economic development at global level, particularly in poor developing countries of Asia and Africa. Gradually, it has been realised by the global policy makers that in a large part of the world population suffers from hunger, poverty, poor health or socioeconomic degradation, it poses grave threat to the global peace and security. Secondly, the ongoing process of globalisation has resulted in the marginalisation of large chunk of poor people in developing countries. If this marginalisation continues, the objective of sustained global socio-economic development could not be realised.
PD/December/2010/1026
“If this is coffee, please bring me some tea; but if this is tea, please bring me some coffee.”
Goal 7 : Ensuring Environmental Sustainability— This goal has four targets. The first, is reversing the loss of environmental resources and integrating the principles of sustainable development into the national policies and programmes. The second target is to reduce the proportion of people by less than half by the year 2015, who do not have sustainable access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation facilities. The third target is to make significant reduction in the biodiversity loss by the year 2010. The fourth target is to achieve a significant achievement in the lives of at least 100 million slum dwellers by the year 2020. Goal 8 : Developing a Global Partnership for Development—The first target under this goal is to develop further an open, rule based, predictable, non-discriminatory trading and financial system. The second target is to address the special needs of the least Developed countries. The third target is to address the special needs of the land locked developing countries and small island developing countries. The fourth target is to deal comprehensively with the debt problems of developing countries through national and international measures in order to make their debt sustainable in the long term. The fifth target is to provide access to affordable essential drugs in developing countries with the help of pharmaceutical companies. The 6th target is to make available to developing countries the benefits of new technologies especially the information and communication technologies with the cooperation of private sector. A careful perusal of these goals indicates that the first seven goals are the measures of socio-economic development of poor people and the 8th goal is the major instrument to achieve the above objectives.
estimated that by the year 2015, 12 lakh children will suffer child mortality in addition to earlier figures. Additionally, by the year more than 3·5 lakh children would not get access to primary education and 10 crore additional people would not get safe drinking water. The food crisis of 2008 is not over and it may require to double efforts to eliminate this crisis. It is now well recognised that additional 40 to 70 billion dollars shall be needed to achieve the MDGs by the year 2015. The mobilisation of these resources depends upon the commitment of extra resources by developed countries as official Development Assistance. In 1970, the United Nations determined that the developed countries would transfer 0·7 per cent of their GDP as official Development Assistance to developing countries. But that has not actually happened. At the first Review Summit 2005 and G–8 Summit at Gleneagles in 2005 the rich countries agreed to increase their ODA by $ 50 billion at 2004 prices and to double their aid to Africa by the year 2010. However, the donor countries could not advance additional financial assistance and their ODA amounted just $ 119 billion in 2009 which was 0·31% of their GDP. This is less than half of the UN target of 0·7 per cent. In the current terms, the ODA has actually fallen by more than 2 per cent over previous years. If we leave aside Scandinavian countries, all developed countries failed to meet their Official Development Assistance (ODA) targets. Besides the lack of financial resources, there are other factors also responsible for poor progress of MDGs in
Assessment of Progress
The progress in the achievement has been uneven. Some countries and regions achieved considerable progress, while others lagged behind. It is estimated that China has been successful in reducing the number of people below poverty line from 452 million to 278 million in the first 10 years’ period. India has achieved some success in percentage term in poverty reduction due to economic development. On the other hand, the countries of Sub-Saharan have not been able to reduce poverty and face the risk of not achieving the target by the year 2015. According to the estimates of the World Bank, the rate of poverty was 52% in 1981, which came down to 25% in 2005 and 18% in 2009. For the Bank, the major factor in increasing the number of poor people is the lack of success in poverty reduction in African countries. With increasing population and due to ongoing global financial crisis, the efforts for poverty reduction have faced setback. Consequently by the year 2010 the absolute number of poor people in the globe has increased. According to a World Bank study, nearly 6·4 crore more people have come under poverty line by the year 2010. The per day income of these people is less than one dollar. It is
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“If you would win a man to your cause, first convince him that you are his sincere friend.”
developing countries. These are curruption in administrative inefficiency, lack of effective monitoring and lack of political will. Besides the lack of progress in poverty and hunger reduction other MDGs are also not likely to be achieved by the year 2015. For example, 25% of children below the age of five years are underweight, mainly due to lack of
The Millennium Development Goals Report 2010
As a backgrounder of the MDG Review Summit, the UN has released Millennium Development Goals Report-2010, which recognises that the progress in achieving MDGs has been uneven. It claims that without a major push forward, many of the MDGs targets are likely to be missed in most regions of the world. Old and new challenges threaten to further slow progress in some areas or even undo successes achieved so far. The major highlights of this report are : 1. The report is optimistic about meeting the poverty reduction targets. Though an estimated 1.4 billion people were living below the poverty line in 2005, by the year 2015 this number is likely to be 920 million which is 15% of the total population and half the percentage of poor people in 1990. 2. Due to improvement in health facilities, child deaths have reduced from 12·5 million in 1990 to 8·8 million in 2008. 3. The progress in the field of fight against HIV/AIDS and malaria and universal primary education appears to be satisfactory. 4. Though the rate of deforestation is still high, it has slowed down in comparison to previous years due to the success of tree planting schemes. 5. Increased use of safe drinking water has reduced the gap between rural and urban areas as the 94% people are covered under the schemes of safe drinking water. 6. The mobile telephony continues to expand as 52% people have become subscribers to mobiles by the end of the year 2009. The climate change would have major impact on vulnerable sections of society. Arms conflict and natural disasters continue to increase the population of refugees as in 2009, 42 million people have been displaced, fourfifth of them are from developing countries. The progress has been slow and tardy in the field of gender equality and women empowerment in all fronts from access to schooling to political decision-making.
quality food, inadequate water, sanitation and health services and poor care and feeding practices. Gender equality and women empowerment, which are essential for reducing poverty and hunger, have made poor progress; with inadequate opportunities for schooling of girls and poor access of women to political authority. Even, in India, the women reservation Bill has become controversial and is not likely to be passed by Parliament in near future due to lack of political consensus.
MDGs Review Summit : The Outcome Document
At the end of the Review Summit (Sept. 20-22, 2010) the 65 the session of United Nations General Assembly adopted the 32 page outcome Document which expresses the commitment of world community to achieve these goals by the year 2015; makes assessment of progress of realisation of MDGs; outlines the Action Agenda with respect to each goal to achieve the success within the given time limit. The main highlights of the outcome documents are given below : 1. The outcome document emphasise on the commitment of the world leaders to achieve these goals. “We are committed to making every effort to achieve the MDGs by 2015, including through actions, policies and strategies defined in the document in support of the developing countries…we are convinced that the Millennium Development Goals can be achieved, including in the poorest countries, with renewed commitment, effective implementation and intensified collective actions by all member states and other stakeholders at both the domestic and international levels.” The outcome document describes that the MDGs have achieved uneven progress with respect to different goals and different regions of the world. It also lists the challenges faced by these goals in future. According to this document, successe have been made in combating extreme poverty, improving school enrolment and child health, reducing child deaths, expanding access to clean water, expanding access to HIV/AIDS prevention treatment and care and controlling malaria and other diseases. However, the document notes that the progress has been uneven among regions and between and within countries. There has been a slow progress in reaching full and productive employment and decent work for all, advancing gender equality and empowerment of women, achieving environmental sustainability and providing basic sanitation etc. 3. The outcome document also proposes an Action Agenda to achieve the MDGs by the year 2015.
2.
7.
8.
The report is sensitive to the gaps in the achievement of progress between the rich and the poor people as well as regions of the world. This disparity is also visible in terms of rural and urban areas. For example, while 77 per cent of the population in 20% of the richest households use improved sanitation facilities, the share is merely 16 per cent with respect to poorest households. Similarly in South Asia, 60 per cent of children in the poorest areas are underweight compared to 25% of children in richest households. In developing countries, the girls in the poorest 20% of households are 3·5 times more likely to be out of school than the richest households. The reports calls for devising suitable measure so bridge the gap between the rich and the poor to achieve the Millennium Development Goals.
9.
The major points suggested in the Action Agenda are promoting and strengthening national ownership and leadership of development as key determinants of progress; devising the rules based regime of international economic order based on recognition of interdependence
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“It has been my experience that folks who have no vices have very few virtues.”
of nations; mobilisation of extra financial resources and their effective utilisation as a central point of global partnership of development, fulfilling the financial commitment by rich countries, modernisation of international financial institutions, improving the policy coherence for development at all levels; developing trade as an engine of growth and development, promoting sustained, inclusive and equitable growth, fighting corruption at both national and international level, making regional efforts including South-South cooperation to achieve MDGs, effective deployment of UN funds and specialised agencies and working with all stakeholders including private sector in strengthening partnership to achieve these goals. The Action Agenda also suggests measures with respect to each specific goals. Whatever may be the progress of MDGs so far, it is no mean achievement that the global community led by the United Nations is vitally concerned with the socioeconomic development of poor countries of the world. This assumes special significance in view of the negative impacts of the globalisation in the poor regions of the world. The very declaration of the Millennium Development Goals by the world body and the concerns to achieve them have serious implications for the global P.Darpan socio-economic development.
Sensing an opportunity, many Civil Services coaching institutes have introduced the CSAT Courses. But, it is very difficult for single man to do justice with the areas Preliminary Examination syllabus covers. For special needs you require specialist who can bring in important insights.
Understand, and Face it Effectively
The scene is clear now and you need to do something to figure out your requirements relating to new pattern of Preliminary Examination. It is time to get ready to absorb the information and make good decisions. It is time for action ; get organized and move towards your dreams and objectives. My effort has always been to make a minor contribution to breaking the shackles of apprehensions that surround this examination. If you have some specific queries, doubts relating to this examination, you can always reach me at [email protected] In the next issue, we will come up with detailed analysis of areas under Paper I and Paper II and how you can prepare these effectively. The non-serious seems to have all the time in the world and can wait for step-by-step announcements for commencing preparation. If you aim to appear in Civil Services Examination 2011, it is time to work out systematic plan covering the complete scheme of the examination as for some serious aspirant time appears to be perpetually running out.
P.Darpan
Continued from Page 1022
Services candidates as this examination is getting creative as well as innovative. Only those who have rich experience and insights about the Civil Services Examination can track the trends and spot the evolving requirements of the candidates. Howsoever concerned the UPSC or government may be about the role of coaching institutes, the fact that the changes occurred in past few years have really unnerved many a serious candidates. More so, now, with CSAT in place, those who were preparing for quite some time suddenly are faced with new challenges which put them at par with fresh candidate. This is an unending tussle and UPSC would continue to bring in rapid changes to the Civil Services Examination to cater to evolving needs and the institutes would keep on adjusting and working out the solutions to these modifications from time to time. Coaching is known to be all about raising the level of candidate’s show in examination and focussed on preparation that helps candidate to perform to the best of their ability. If you need support, be sure to find the right coaching institute as your decision would certainly decide your chances of success in Preliminary Examination.
New Edition
(Including Previous Years’ Solved Papers)
By : Dr. Lal & Jain Code No. 444 Rs. 135/-
Main Features
? Previous Years’ Solved Papers ? General Awareness ? English Language ? General Intelligence and General Aptitude ? Numerical Aptitude
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Great Opportunity for New Entrants : Party for some; Pain for others
The present scenario is again a boon for many as introduction of Paper II is sure to bring in many new players who were operational in an arena of one-day examinations where aptitude tests are an integral part of the syllabus.
UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2
? E-mail : [email protected] ? Website : www.upkar.in
PD/December/2010/1029
“Most folks are about as happy as they make up their minds to be.”
Personality Development
Communication is to Personality What Light is to Beauty
—Sanjay Dosaj
Listening
Listening skills—According to Allan and Barbara Pease ‘The ability to read a person’s attitudes and thoughts by their behaviour was the original communication system used by humans before spoken language evolved’. Thus we see that receiving information was the primitive communication system. The importance of listening can thus very easily be understood. God has given us two ears to listen while only one mouth to speak. Clearly with an intention, that we should speak less and listen more. There are distinct advantages of speaking less and listening more. Firstly, if we speak less we will have more time to think and fewer words to select in the same time. Thus, there will be fewer chances of mistake and also we can prepare better language to convey the message. Hence there are better chances of achieving the purpose of communication, less energy consumed and better result achieved. Listening is one of the most difficult arts of communication process, most of us are not ready to accept that we do not listen, or at least do not listen to the extent that we actually should. Most of the times when we feel that we are listening, we are only hearing. There is a huge difference between hearing and listening. Hearing is with senses, listening is with the mind—While on the move on the road or elsewhere, or doing some other important work, we may hear something but very little of what we hear in this way is retained and is washed off our memory in a short time, because we have not made a conscious attempt to store it for a longer time. Thus we see that hearing may be sub-conscious. On the contrary, listening is always conscious, we have to make a conscious attempt to listen. We have to
concentrate on the speaker, our mind simultaneously works to analyse the data as we continue to listen. Listening is a means of interpersonal oral exchange and is an active process of eliciting information, ideas, attitudes and emotions. Fallacies about listening—There are many fallacies attached to listening, we usually carry a good image about ourselves and do not readily accept our mistakes, hence we carry an attitude that ‘I do not have listening problem’. Listening is not my problem—I always pay attention to what is being talked about and if I have not been able to perceive something, it is the fault of the speaker who was not able to convey it clear enough. Listening and hearing are the same—We often consider listening and hearing to be the same thing and hence while somebody is talking, our mind tends to be drifting to something else. We continue to hear but the mind stops working on the received data, the retention is less and for a shorter duration, we are not able to perceive enough of the data and the communication is failed. Good readers are good listeners—Good readers may not necessarily be good listeners. There is no relation between being a good reader and a good listener. While reading, your absolutely different senses are at work i.e., eyes, on the other hand while listening, your ears are at work. The brain however is utilized during both but the data is processed in different centres of the brain. Smarter people are better listeners—Smarter people may be more effectively able to conceal their weakness of not listening, but it is not necessary that they are better listeners. Better listening requires proper training of the mind which is entirely different from being smart.
Listening improves with age— This again is a myth, the brain needs to be trained continuously for good listening otherwise the quality may deteriorate. Learning not to listen—When we have a different opinion or we are not convinced with the speaker, we tend not to listen to his point. Thinking about what we are going to say rather than listening to the speaker—This is one important reason why people tend not to listen to the speaker. Talking when we should be listening—In case when we are not convinced with the speaker, we tend to interrupt and present our logics to not being so, this interferes with listening process. Hearing what we expect to hear rather than what is being actually said—Presuming what the speaker is going to say is another reason why people tend to get distracted and fail to listen. Not paying attention—There may be innumerable reasons for not paying attention like disinterest, not being convinced etc. Preoccupation—Thinking something else, while the other person is talking. Prejudice—Due to some prejudice, we decide consciously or subconsciously not to listen to what is being said. Barriers to active listening— Besides the above there may be several barriers to effective listening. Environmental barriers—Extra noise in the vicinity will hamper the hearing and hence the perception of the message. Physiological barriers—If the person listening has some physiological problems like he is hard of hearing, premature or under developed to understand the message.
Continued on Page 1038
PD/December/2010/1030
“Nearly all men can stand adversity, but if you want to test a man’s character, give him power.”
?????????????????? Inspiring Youth ????????????????????
“Intelligent hardwork, perseverance and 100% faith in myself are the secrets of my success.”
—Ashique Karattil Toppers—Indian Economic Service Exam., 2009 (3rd Rank)
‘Pratiyogita Darpan’ arranged an exclusive interview with Ashique Karattil who has been selected in Indian Economic Services 2009 and has achieved 3rd rank. He deserves all admiration and our heartiest congratulations on his splendid success. This important, thought provoking and highly inspiring interview is being presented here in its original form.
PD—Achieving top slot in the IES Examination is no small feat : accept our heartiest congratulation on your splendid success. Ashique—Thank you very much for your wishes. PD—Can you recall the exact moment when you realized the importance of IES ? Ashique—I was aware of the importance of Indian Economic Service during the period of my post graduation. But I thought that only those candidates having excellent academic background could succeed in such exams. PD—Finally, at what point of time did you make up your mind to make career in IES. Ashique—I was an underachiever in my academic life (Had only minimum pass marks for most of the exams). Since I didn’t get admission in any college, I did my B.A. and M.A. through private study. I couldn’t even apply for many competitive exams because of requirement of minimum marks for qualifying exams. It was out of these tough and desperate situation that I made up my mind to make a career in IES. PD—You must have read IAS Toppers’ interviews in newspapers/ magazines : what inspired you the most ? Any particular success story which your journey to this result ? Ashique—Many of civil service topper interviews have vicariously motivated my mind. I appreciate you for providing such inspiring success stories for the aspirants. PD—Was IES a planned decision or your parent’s wish ? Did you keep in mind some time frame, for the examination preparation and number of attempts ? “Pratiyogita Darpan is one of the best magazines in the country that focusses on competitive examination. The contents are reliable, upto date and presented in attractive style PD helped me a lot in my preparation. PD Extra Issue on Indian Economy is perhaps the best of PD family. PD Year Book is also very good covering all important national and international events in an attractive manner.”
—Ashique Karattil
Ashique—It was a planned decision of mine backed by my wife. Though my parents were oblivious of civil service and its importance, I had their blessings. PD—Were you confident of your success in this examination and how did you react to the news of your success ? Ashique—Yes, I had 100 per cent confidence in my potential and believed that hardwork will be paid off. When I knew that I got 3rd rank, I was elated. PD—In how many attempts have you achieved this success ? How do you visualize your preparation/previous attempts ? Ashique—I succeeded in my first attempt. PD—While the changing economic environment offers immense lucrative career opportunities in various sectors, still what kept you motivated towards IES ? Ashique—For a candidate like me, not having a good academic profile, there was hardly any lucrative career opportunities. My desire to participate in policy making of the country also motivated me. PD—In your opinion at which Educational Level should one start preparing for IES and what should be the minimum period of time required to prepare for IES ? Ashique—After post graduation in economics, one can aspire for IES, I think a dedicated and consistent preparation of one year is good enough. PD—What is the importance of medium of examination for exams like CSE ? Ashique—Indian Economic Service Exam is conducted in English medium only. PD—Does the educational, financial and demographic status of the family of an aspirant have any impact on the preparation ? Ashique—Yes, To some extent we are the victims of our environment. However, if we are determined we can be the architect of our fortune. PD—In your opinion what role do the Competition Magazines play when you are preparing for an examination like IES ? Ashique—Standard textbooks, magazines and newspapers were the guide in my journey towards success. Good competition magazines are better source of reliable information encapsulated in an attractive manner. It saves a lot of time and energy.
PD/December/2010/1031/5
“I do not want people to be agreeable, as it saves me the trouble of liking them.”
Bio-Data
Name—Ashique Karattil Father’s Name—Hamza K Mother’s Name—Fathima N Wife’s Name—Shafeekha Son—Ryan Age—30 years Educational Qualifications— 10th—46% (1995), Kerala Board GBHSS, Tirur Pre-Degree—45% (1997) Calicut University, TMG College, Tirur B.A. (Eco.)—51% (2001) Calicut University, Private Registration M.A. (Eco.)—55% (2003) Kerala University, Private Registration B.Ed.—61% (2006) Calicut University, MCTE Kuttayi, Tirur M.Ed.—65% (2008) Calicut University, DAMTEC, Chelembra NET in Education and Economics.
Ashique—Intelligent hardwork, Perseverance and 100 per cent faith in myself are the secret of my success. PD—To whom would you like to give the credit for your successes ? Ashique—To my parents, wife, brother, sisters-in-law and parents inlaw. I want to thank PM institute of Civil Service Exam, Farook College Calicut and its principal Prof. Kuttialikutty and other faculties who helped me a lot. I am also grateful to assistant Prof. Thomas Mathew and my friends Shameer, Noushad, Rashid, Chacko, Munir, Abdu and others. My success is my gift to my son Ryan.
PD—Any suggestion/advice you would like to give future aspirants. Ashique—I would like to suggest the future IES aspirants that keep faith in your potential. If you are determined to succeed, no one can stop you. Intelligent hard work will be paid off. I wish best of luck to all the aspirants.
Personal Qualities
Favourite Person—Mahatma Gandhi, Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru and Manmohan Singh. Strong Point—Determination and intra-personal intelligence Weak Point—Poor hand writing Hobbies—Playing football, Arm wrestling and watching movies.
MY STRATEGY FOR SUCCESS
FOR INTERVIEW
My experience as a teacher in a private parallel college helped me in sharpening my skill of communication. My interview was held on August 11, 2010 in the board of Vijay Singh. It went for around 30 minutes. The Chairman and board members were very cordial. During the course of interview Chairman encouraged me through his non-verbal communication. Since my hobby was football, questions were asked about World Cup Football 2010. The questions asked in the interview were related to following areas— 1. RBI autonomy and fiscal dominance of monetary policy. 2. IPL twenty-twenty; its economics and politics. 3. The impact of poverty alleviation programmes on rural economy 4. The correlation between economic and social indicators of development. 5. Euro zone Debt Crisis.
PD—According to a recent report published by a reputed survey agency, PRATIYOGITA DARPAN (Hindi) is the largest read and the only Career & Competition magazine in top four magazines in India. How do you find Pratiyogita Darpan ? Ashique—PD is one of the best magazines in the country that focusses on competitive examination. The contents are reliable, upto-date and presented in attractive style. P.D helped me a lot in my preparation. PD—Please give your comments on the PD Extra Issues Series on ‘General Studies’ and a few Optional Subject ? Ashique—PD extra issue on Indian Economy is perhaps the best of PD family. PD—Did you refer to Pratiyogita Darpan-Year Book ? What is your option about the contents, size and the time of publishing ? Ashique—I have read PD Year Book. It covers all important national and international events in an attractive manner. PD—What is the secret of your success ?
Time Management
From my past life experience, I realized that time and tide wait for none. I used to study 8 hours a day during my one year thorough preparation. P.Darpan
List of Books
Micro Economics—Pindyck & Rubinfeld, H. L. Ahuja. Macro Economics—Dorn Bush & Fisher, Mankew. International Economics— Salvatore, H. G. Mannur. Development Economics—Todaro, Thirlwall, Lekhi. Public Finance—H. L. Bhatia. Environmental Economics—Katar Singh and Shishodia. Indian Economy—Uma Kapila, Mishra & Puri. Mathematics for Economics— Mehta-Madnani.
PD/December/2010/1032
“One half of the world cannot understand the pleasures of the other.”
?????????????????? Inspiring Youth ????????????????????
“Intelligent hardwork and support of my family are the secrets of my success.”
—Anurag Chaudhary Topper—Civil Services Exam., 2009 (34th Rank)
‘Pratiyogita Darpan’ arranged an exclusive interview with Anurag Chaudhary who has been selected in Civil Services Examination 2009 and has achieved 34th rank. He deserves all admiration and our heartiest congratulations on his splendid success. This important, thought provoking and highly inspiring interview is being presented here in its original form.
PD—Achieving top slot in the CS Examination is no small feat; accept our heartiest congratulations on your splendid success. Anurag—Thank you very much for the wishes. However much of the credit goes to people around me especially my parents, my brother, other family members, teachers, friends, seniors and most importantly GOD without whose grace I could not have achieved this success. PD—Can you recall the exact moment when you realized the importance of Civil Services ? Anurag—Actually during my School, College days, while I was growing up I saw many things around me which agitated me. And I thought that I should do something about it. Civil Services gives me opportunity to bring about a positive change in the lives of many people. PD—Finally, at what point of time did you make up your mind to make career in ‘Civil Services’ ? Anurag—I started the preparation during final year of my graduation. PD—You must have read IAS Toppers’ interviews in newspapers/ magazines; What inspired you the most ? Any particular success story which influenced your journey to this result ? Anurag—This was one of the reasons why I started preparing early. I really liked the interview of Mr. S. Nagarajan (Rank 1, 2004). Later I contacted him personally. Here I would like to thank him as he helped me change my optional from Physics to Sociology and throughout the preparation he helped me with his inputs.
“Pratiyogita Darpan is a very good magazine. I have read PD Economy Extra Issue. It is very important for better understanding of economic issues. It is extremely well written and is updated regularly. Almost everyone preparing around me used to follow it for the preparation. ”
—Anurag Chaudhary
PD—Was CSE a planned decision or your parent’s wish ? Did you keep in mind some time frame, for the examination preparation and number of attempts ? Anurag—Right since my childhood my father always wanted me to be an IAS. However when I entered IIT Kanpur and met many seniors who were in the service, I decided to start preparing for it. I always wanted to clear, it in 1st attempt itself, however I made many mistakes and therefore, it took nearly 3 years and 4 attempts to clear Civil Services. Last year in CSE 2008 I was also selected and presently I am undergoing training at Income Tax academy in Nagpur. PD—The first step is the most difficult; how to prepare ? Which optionals ? What to read ? How much to read ? Many such questions come to your mind when you really get serious about Civil Services Examination ? From where did you get the right advice ? Anurag—(a) Read Topper’s Talk—I have been following this right after I thought to prepare. I knew what books they were reading, what mistakes they made. Basically you should not try to reinvent the wheel. (b) Talk to seniors—There would be someone from your town, college who has got through, try to talk to help. People are very generous and share things with you don’t hesitate to ask, it may save lot of your time. I asked help from innumerable seniors and friends. PD—Were you confident of your success in this examination and how did you react to this news of your success ? Anurag—Yes I was confident of clearing the exam. However I did not think that I would get such a good rank. It was a pleasant surprise. I was very happy to know the result. PD—In how many attempts have you achieved this success ? How do you visualize your preparation/previous attempts ? Anurag—This was my 4th attempt. In last attempt also I cleared the exam and currently I am in IRS. In the first 2 attempts I made many mistakes like not proper selection of optional etc. therefore, I was not successful in the first 2 attempts. PD—Were you preparing for other career opportunities as well while preparing for your ultimate goal i.e. Career in Civil Services ? Anurag—No this was the only exam I was preparing for with full
PD/December/2010/1033
“Silly things do cease to be silly if they are done by sensible people in an impudent way.”
dedication. However in order to have backup career I appeared in other exams as well. I got 99·7 percentile in CAT-2007 and 4th Rank in Indian Engineering Service, 2008. PD—While the changing economic environment offers immense lucrative career opportunities in various sectors, still what kept you motivated towards Civil Services ? Anurag—I believe that the Civil Services gives me opportunity to bring about a positive change in the lives of many people. Actually during my School, College days, while I was growing up I saw many things around me which agitated me. And I thought that I should do something about it. I was extremely lucky that people around me always cheered me up and motivated me. I am extremely thankful to my parents for that who asked me to concentrate on exams and do not worry about anything else.
(b) Compatibility between GS, Essay and Optionals (Geography and Sociology are very helpful in GS and essay preparation). (c) It would be better if your graduation subject and optional is one and same. It would help and reduce much effort. (In my 1st interview I got only 75 marks because I could not answer many basic questions on my graduation. Retrospectively I believe that I should have given proper attention to my Background.) PD—What were your optional subjects ? Give the basis of selecting them. Anurag—Prelims : Physics Mains : Geography & Sociology PD—Did you keep the same optional subjects in all your attempts ? Anurag—No in my 1st attempt I had Physics and Geography in Mains. Later from 2nd attempt I left Physics and took Sociology. PD—In your opinion at which Educational Level should one start preparing for Civil Services and what should be the minimum period of time required to prepare for Civil Services Examinations ? Anurag—Ideally one should utilize the graduation period to start the preparation process. One should also choose such graduation subject which apart from providing job security, would be relevant for Civil Services Preparation and Job ahead. One should prepare for at least one year ahead before planning to write the exam. PD—What is your opinion regarding the general view that science subjects have better chance to score than Humanities ? Anurag—In my case I had brushed my chances both with science and humanities. However I turned out that I did not choose my optional well. In my view both science and humanities are equally good and it should be one’s interest and availability of guidance to select the right optional. I have friends from both streams making it to the top.
Personal Qualities
Favourite Person—My Father. Strong Point—Strong Determination and Will Power. Weak Point—Impatience. Hobbies—Reading, Travelling, Meeting people and to learn from their experiences. PD—What is the importance of medium of examination for exams like CSE ? Anurag—Basically choice of medium is important to express your ideas well. Apart from this medium of exam doesn’t matter at all in this exam. PD—Does the educational, financial and demographic status of the family of an aspirant have any impact on the preparation ? Anurag—I believe that it does. If you have well-to-do family your task is simpler, you just have to study and in other cases candidate would also think about how to survive in an environment where both stay and coachings are getting expensive day by day. In my opinion one can go back to one home town after getting basic guidance. I also did find Delhi to be very expensive and I prepared from my home town only as soon as my coachings were over. PD—In your opinion what role do the Competition Magazines play when you are preparing for an examination like Civil Services ? Anurag—They play a very important role. Long before preparation I used to borrow the magazines from my cousins and seniors and used to go through topper’s column. It helped me to decide from where to prepare, how to prepare and what to study, what to leave and how to avoid mistakes that your seniors made. Later on magazines play an important role in understanding various issues, bringing various points that you missed while reading the newspapers. In fact even after getting through the exams one should read them for being in touch with current happenings. PD—According to a recent report published by reputed survey agency, PRATIYOGITA DARPAN (Hindi) is the largest read and the only Career & Competition magazine in top four
Bio-Data
Name—Anurag Chaudhary Father’s Name—Dr. Ram Karan Chaudhary Mother’s Name—Smt. Nirja Chaudhary Date of Birth—15-9-1983 Educational Qualifications— B. Tech (Civil Engg.)—20022006, IIT Kanpur, 7·5/10 (75%) 12th—(2001) U.P. Board, Mahanagar Boys’ Inter College, Lucknow (71%) 10th—(1999) U.P. Board, Mahanagar Boys’ Inter College, Lucknow (83%) Previous Selections— 1. Civil Services Exam., 2008— Indian Revenue Service (Income Tax) 2. Engg. Services Exam., 2008— 4th Rank 3. CAT 2007—99·69 percentile 4. BPCL in 2006 (as campus placement). PD—While making final choice for optional subject/s, what's important and what's not ? Share your thoughts and opinions. Anurag—(a) Your Interest in the subject (I found Geography and Sociology extremely interesting).
PD/December/2010/1034
“A large income is the best recipe for happiness I ever heard of.”
magazines in India. How do you find Pratiyogita Darpan ? Anurag—It is a very good magazine. Although I was not able to follow it regularly as I am from English medium, yet I always made it a point to book my copy when topper’s interview used to come in that issue. PD—Please give your comments on the PD Extra Issues Series on 'General Studies' and a few Optional Subjects? Anurag—I have read PD ‘Economy’. It is very important for better understanding of economic issues. It is extremely well written and is updated regularly. Almost everyone preparing around me used to follow it for the preparation. PD—Did you refer to Pratiyogita Darpan—Year Book ? What is your opinion about the contents, size and the time of publishing ? Anurag—No I haven’t gone through it. But would like to see it if I have chance. PD—What is the secret of your success? Anurag—Intelligent hardwork and support of my family. PD—What preference in services have you opted for? Anurag—IAS only. PD—To whom would you like to give the credit for your success ? Anurag—Most importantly God Almighty and my parents. Apart from them my brother Abhishek, friends esp Deepak, Nishant, Pankaj and IIT friends and my Teachers esp. Shashank Sir, Upendra Sir, Devdutt Sir, and my seniors in IIT in Delhi and some candidates like Nagarajan who throughout my preparation provided me valuable source for guidance and kept me motivated. PD—Any suggestion/advice you would like to give to the future aspirants. Anurag—1. Give everything you have for the exam. 2. Have a backup career. It would help you in lean phase. 3. Don’t run after coachings. Join them only if you feel you can’t do without them, and before joining them ask your seniors.
4. Have faith in you. Don’t be deterred by small failures. You have chosen a right career. Have confidence in your efforts, your talents,
Workhard and success would be yours. Best of Luck. Thank You very much and wishing you all the best for your future endeavours.
MY STRATEGY FOR SUCCESS
FOR PRELIMS
As I had Physics in the PT, I did not face any problem as I was a science student. However I made it a point to thoroughly read all NCERTs especially History, Geography and Biology from 6th to 12th which helped me make my knowledge base broader. Apart from that I was regular with the newspapers and magazines. I devoted equal time to both GS and my prelims optional. As for negative marking I did not face any major problem in this regard. 1st of all negative marking reduces scope of guess work so I was able to concentrate my energies on questions which I knew well and 2nd I had already had experience of appearing in negative marking exams before like IIT entrance etc. the essay before writing. Well structured essay would fetch you more marks. Try to make your essay by bringing in various examples. I chose the Health essay and I chose it because only a week before I had gone through issue of Yojana which was about the same. This topic fetched me 130 marks.
List of Books
Prelims Optional : Physics 1. 2. 3. 4. Beiser BS Agarwal (for various parts) Last 15 years question papers HC Verma (both part 1 and 2) Mains Optional I : Geography 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 1. 2. 3. 4. 6th to 12th NCERTs ALS Class Notes and Printed Material Goh Cheng Leon R. B. Bunnet Penguins’s Dictionary for Geography (Physical and Human) Khullar’s Indian Geography Mazid Hussain’s Models and theories in Geography Past 15 year questions Important places in news (from all the magazines) Orient Longmann Atlas Optional II : Sociology George Ritzer (for Thinkers) M. Haralambos 11th and 12th NCERTs India : Development and Participation (Amartya Sen and Jan Dreze) Nadeem Hasnain’s book on Indian Society IGNOU MA Notes (for topics that were not covered in the above material)
FOR MAINS
The key to mains is clear understanding of concepts. The subject should be very clear to you. The help in this regard can be taken from NCERTs in Geography and Sociology. Apart from that taking guidance from good teachers and consulting your seniors made a big difference. Once this was done, hardwork and constant practice would see me through the Mains. The Current Affairs should cover the period from January 2010 to Aug. 2010. I didn't join any Test Series. What I did was to solve last 15 years’ papers…and I continuously improved upon those answers till I was satisfied..thats all.
FOR ESSAY PAPER
Essay paper requires you to have a clear view of things around you. So if you are in touch with newspapers and magazines then it would help you. Pick the topic you are comfortable with. Then at least spend around 50 per cent of the time formulating
5. 6.
Continued on Page 1038
PD/December/2010/1035 “Everybody likes to go their own way–to choose their own time and manner of devotion.”
?????????????????? Inspiring Youth ????????????????????
“Hardwork, perseverance, belief in God are the secrets of my success.”
—Rahul Dwivedi Topper—Civil Services Exam., 2009 (40th Rank)
‘Pratiyogita Darpan’ arranged an exclusive interview with Rahul Dwivedi who has achieved 40th rank in Civil Services Exam., 2009. He deserves all our admiration and our heartiest congratulations on his splendid success. This important, thought provoking and highly inspiring interview is being presented here in its original form.
PD—Achieving top slot in the CS Examination is no small feat; accept our heartiest congratulations on your fantastic performance and splendid success. Rahul—Thank you very much. It is the blessings of my parents and the Almighty God that enabled me to reach here. PD—Can you recall the exact moment when you realized the importance of Civil Services ? Rahul—Actually thanks to my family I have always been knowing about civil services but it was when I was working in my company I saw the movie Swades when I realized the importance of public service and working for my country and its people. PD—Finally, at what point of time did you make up your mind to make career in ‘Civil Services’ ? Rahul—That I have to write this examination was always in my mind but it was only in 2006 when I seriously started thinking about making career in Civil Services. PD—You must have read IAS Toppers’ interviews in newspapers/ magazines; what inspired you the most ? Any particular success story which influenced your journey to this result ? Rahul—I used to read the interviews of IAS toppers especially in Pratiyogita Darpan in childhood. Each was an inspiration in itself. PD—Was CSE a planned decision or your parent’s wish ? Had you kept in mind some time frame, for the examination preparation and number of attempts ? “I have known Pratiyogita Darpan (Hindi) since my childhood when I used to read this just know about the toppers. That this magazine is the largest read magazine is a testimony to the fact that it is liked by the majority of the aspiring candidates. PD Extra Issues are quite informative and act as a supplement to the standard course of preparation. In Pratiyogita Darpan–Year Book all aspects are fairly good.”
—Rahul Dwivedi
Rahul—It was a planned decision and fortunately I found my parents on the same side. I did not have any particular time frame in my mind. My only effort was to improve my performance in the current attempt over the previous one. By the blessing of God I have been successful in that. PD—The first step is the most difficult; how to prepare ? Which optionals ? What to read ? How much to read ? Many such questions comprehend your mind when you get really serious about Civil Services Examination ? From where did you get the right advice ? Rahul—I don’t disagree with that. In fact I could not get any proper guidance in the first attempt because the exam pattern had undergone a sea change and all my relatives were not aware of this ! Only when I landed up in Delhi did I get the right guidance as to which optionals to choose, what to read and more importantly what not to read. PD—Were you confident of your success in this examination and how did you react to this special news of your success ? Rahul—Honestly speaking somewhere in the back of my mind I knew that I could make it. But then there were equally good number of candidates who were preparing for the examination. So when I got the news through my friend at NADT, my first reaction was : ‘don’t lie !!’ PD—In how many attempts have you achieved this success ? How do you visualize your preparation/previous attempts ? Rahul—This was my fourth and last attempt. I got into Indian Revenue Service (Income Tax) in my previous attempt (Rank 226). The first attempt was like unguided missile and the result was that I landed nowhere. PD—Were you preparing for other career opportunities as well simultaneously till you achieved your ultimate goal i.e., Career in Civil Services ? Rahul—No. I already had the experience of working in private sector and had the chance to go to US when I had left that job. So there was no point I could have thought of other avenues. PD—While the changing economic environment offers immense lucrative career opportunities in various sectors, still what kept you motivated towards Civil Services ?
PD/December/2010/1036
“The enthusiasm of a woman’s love is even beyond the biographer’s.”
Rahul—Diverse nature, social prestige, greater interaction with the people and the power to bring about change. PD—While making final choice for optional subject/s, what's important and what's not ? Share your thoughts and opinions. Rahul—The most crucial aspect is whether you are able to generate interest in that optional because you have to study that for at least 1.5 years. The other crucial aspects are recent scoring pattern, syllabus and its utility for General Studies.
Bio-Data
Name—Rahul Dwivedi Father’s Name—Shri Ram Murti Dwivedi Mother’s Name—Smt. Subhadra Dwivedi Date of Birth—August 15, 1983 Educational Qualifications— 10th—1997, U.P. Board, GIC Allahabad (86%, 18th Rank in all over the state with highest marks in Mathematics 100/100). 12th—1999, U.P. Board, GIC Allahabad (76%). B. Tech—2004, IIT Madras (7·1/10). Previous Selections—IRS (IT) in CSE 2008, Rank 226. PD—What were your optional subjects ? Give the basis of selecting them. Rahul—Prelims : Mathematics Mains : Mathematics and Pali Literature PD—In your opinion at which Educational Level should one start preparing for Civil Services and what should be the minimum period of time required to prepare for Civil Services Examinations ? Rahul—There is no hard and fast rule though if one is determined to go for civil services only then one must start it in the final year of graduation and as a general rule at least one year before one is actually going to take prelims. PD—What is your opinion regarding the general view that Science subjects have better chance to score than Humanities ? Rahul—I think reverse is true given the current scenario.
PD—What is the importance of medium of examination for exams like CSE ? Rahul—Does not matter much. One should choose the medium one is comfortable with. However if one is comfortable in both one’s mother tongue as well as English then English should be preferred. PD—Does the educational, financial and demographic status of the family of an aspirant have any impact on the preparation? Rahul—To some extent yes. It affects the availability of guidance. I think I am lucky enough not to have such adverse situations against me. However, one should not be deterred under such circumstances and must give the best shot. PD—In your opinion what role do the Competition Magazines play when you are preparing for an examination like Civil Services ? Rahul—They help the candidates by keeping them abreast of the current affairs as well as the changes that are taking place in the examination. They also act as a supplementary tool. PD—According to a recent report published by reputed survey agency, PRATIYOGITA DARPAN (Hindi) is the largest read and the only Career and Competition magazine in top four magazines in India. How do you find Pratiyogita Darpan ? Rahul—I have known this magazine since my childhood when I used to read this just to know about the toppers. That this magazine is the largest read magazine is testimony to the fact that it is liked by majority of the aspiring candidates. PD—Please give your comments on the PD Extra Issues Series on 'General Studies' and a few Optional Subjects.
Rahul—They are quite informative and act as a supplement to the standard course of preparation. PD—Did you refer to Pratiyogita Darpan—Year Book ? What is your opinion about the contents, size and the time of publishing ? Rahul—I went through some of the topics. I think all aspects are fairly good.
Personal Qualities
Favourite Person—No one in particular. I like many : Buddha, Mahatma Gandhi, Abraham Lincoln, Swami Vivekanand etc. Strong Point—Hardwork, Perseverance and not comparing myself with others. Weak Point—Too Idealistic. Hobbies—Playing Keyboard, Reading, Lawn Tennis. PD—What is the secret of your success ? Rahul—Hardwork, Perseverance, belief in God and not worrying about the result especially in the last attempt. PD—What preference in services have you opted for ? Rahul—Since I was already into IRS(IT) the preference was IAS followed by IPS. PD—To whom would you like to give the credit for your success ? Rahul—The blessings of my parents and God. PD—Any suggestion/advice you would like to give to the future aspirants. Rahul—Believe in yourself, have positive attitude, there is no substitute to hardwork. Success usually comes to those who are too busy to be looking for it.
MY STRATEGY FOR SUCCESS
FOR PRELIMS
Since I am from Engineering background I devoted more time to GS than Mathematics. For GS I went for more exhaustive reading while for Mathematics it was more about practice. As for negative marking I avoided blind guessing and I went first for those questions whose answers I was sure about. After that I went for those whose answers I could find by eliminating other options.
PD/December/2010/1037 “We have all a better guide in ourselves, if we would attend to it, than any other person can be.”
FOR MAINS
I believe that quality is much more important in mains than quantity. So I stressed a lot on writing practice and preparing my own notes on important topics so as to avoid last moment panic and to have faster revision.
Poor motivation—The speaker is unable to generate enough interest in the listener due to badly prepared subject or poor/unclear language. How to become an effective listener ? Here are the steps to be followed to improve your listening. Steps to be followed to improve listening— ? ? Hearing—Conscious effort made for attentive hearing. Focussing on the message— Instead of the language or the way of presentation, the focus should be on the subject of the message. Comprehending and interpreting, analysing and evaluating— Simultaneous analysis in the brain and storing the message after well understanding the meaning and the purpose of the speaker. Responding—Interaction with the speaker on points where you are not clear. Remembering—Making a conscious effort to remember the message and the purpose of it.
Take notes effectively—Notes help you for later reference and hence better retention. Be a physically involved listener—Interact with the speaker, ask questions, clear your doubts and ensure understanding. Avoid negative mannerism— Avoid prejudice or not listening attitudes. Excercise your listening muscles—Make a conscious effort to listen and pay attention. Follow the golden rule—That if you will listen to others, they will feel obliged and interested in you and reciprocate in the same way. P.Darpan
FOR ESSAY PAPER
I chose some relevant topics, wrote essays on those and got those evaluated from my friends and a teacher. In the exam I wrote essay on ‘Are we a soft sate’ because it was relevant topic, had no dearth of facts and I had the feeling of the direction in which I had to write the essay .
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FOR INTERVIEW
I formed the group of likeminded people. Kept abreast of current affairs and attended as many mocks as possible. I again faced the board of Dr. K. K. Paul. It lasted for 35 minutes. The questions asked were mainly opinion based like issue of smaller states, naxalism, executive Vs. judiciary. Why I wanted to leave IRS, why I went to IIT Chennai when I am from typical Hindi heartland region etc.
Continued from Page 1035 FOR INTERVIEW
Dress well, have enough number of mocks, appear confident, listen to all questions attentively. Be indifferent to marks in interview, it would help you to be your natural self in Interview. I faced Madam Shashi Uban Tripathi Board on 27th March Morning Session. It lasted around 30 minutes. My first question was why you want to leave IRS (they interrupted me many times in between). In fact that question went up to 5 minutes. Then they asked me what changes I would like to bring myself in the system. Why we should take you over others. Then there were few questions from my optionals (Geography and Sociology), then some questions on my Background (Civil Engg), NCC program and other extra activities that I have done.
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How can you achieve the above steps ? Prepare to listen—No body can claim that he knows everything about any subject, hence, prepare yourself mentally to listen, believe in the fact that even if you know more than the speaker, he might have to offer something which you do not know. Adjust to situation—If there are any environmental barriers, correct them or adjust to them. Focus on ideas or key points— Focus on the subject matter of the message instead of trying to find faults with the language or the presentation. Accept responsibility for understanding—Accept the speaker and the message along with its demerits. Encourage others to talk— Encourage other to talk so that you get a more elaborated message to achieve a better understanding of it. Establish eye contact with the speaker—This helps in achieving better attention.
List of Books
Prelims—The Hindu, Pratiyogita Darpan Economics Special Issue, Special Issues on Current Affairs, Brilliant Tutorials prelims notes and other standard books. For Mains all the standard books.
Time Management
Definitely time management is very crucial. My strategy was to study GS and both optionals every day by giving them time as per the P.Darpan requirement.
Time Management
As one of the major reasons for candidates scoring less is time management (esp. in GS). I used to attempt 50 marks in every 30 minutes. So I never have to leave any topic unanswered. Further, attempt those questions 1st with which you are most comfortable. Do statistics in middle. Due to my rigorous practice and revision during preparation I was able to handle this problem with ease. P.Darpan
Continued from Page 1030
Selective listening—Some problems may be self generated like we tend to hear only what we want to or what we are interested in. Negative listening attitudes— Same thing applies when we do not want to listen to the speaker because we presume that he does not know or that we are better than him at the subject being handled.
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“Friendship is certainly the finest balm for the pangs of disappointed love.”
Civil Services Examination
Aptitude and Ethical Decision-Making
—Rajendra Ghuge
As and when the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) adopts the new pattern, the Scheme of the Civil Services Examination may change in its orientation. The overall pattern and purpose could appear as represented in the diagram below : judgement. In this process, everyone (even those remotely connected) claim authoritative information, at times making the justification appear more authentic than perhaps even the UPSC can imagine. It is somewhat like watching cricket, in which each becomes a source of solace. I can speak from experience that the ‘unstopables’ will get through, no matter what the challenges or even impediments. In fact, when I ‘cracked’ the IAS exam, the content pattern of the Optional Subjects questions was radically changing. I felt then that the more complex or innovative the UPSC makes the system, we can make it easier for the UPSC to decide who it wants in the system, by intelligent adaptation to the changed situation. In fact the essence of a dynamic bureaucracy is innovation and improvisation in order to manage reality and change, be it in the country or abroad. That is the spectrum of Civil Service ‘role & responsibility’, considering that the CSE is a mechanism for recruitment to services as different in nature from each other like IAS, IFS, IPS, IRS, etc. So what is the significant common factor for having a common examination ? In the answer to this question is the answer to solving the puzzle called Aptitude Test, as the primary ‘filter’ or screening level. The Prelim Test may not count as a score input for the final result, but it is the first level that rejects so many aspirants and selects so few of them to be eligible for the next level i.e. Main Examination. In this consequence shall be the importance of C– SAT (in fact the entire CSE-P.T). I remember, sometime last year, our Prime Minister having stated in one of his speeches that he expects administrators to be role models and lead from ahead .........(not an exact quote but the sense is correct). This automatically implies no ‘back-seat’ driving shall be acceptable. This idea alongwith the concept of ‘performance audit’ gives us a logical clue as to what the C–SAT is likely to investigate/evaluate as Aptitude Quotient for Civil Services. Soldiers don't make Generals, generals make soldiers; followers don't make leaders, leaders make followers; ... and this applies to the
INTERVIEW Evaluates :
6 Attitude
Intellect Confidence 6 Compatibility 6 Communication Skills 6 Officer-Like Qualities (OLQs)
6
6 Aptitude 6
MAIN EXAMINATION GENERAL STUDIES : Assesses extensive knowledge and the ability to cope with a diversity of subjects and issues.
G
OPTIONAL SUBJECTS : Assesses intensive knowledge and proficiency in subjects of personal choice.
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ESSAY : Assesses perspective & intellect.
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PRELIMINARY TEST GENERAL STUDIES : Evaluates extensive knowledge and general awareness.
G G APTITUDE
& ETHICAL DECISION-MAKING: Aim is to assess orientation & intelligence along with reasoning ability (within a limited time frame).
We can now proceed to focus on the Aptitude and Ethical decisionmaking aspects of the examination, which is the theme of this series of articles in P. D. The 1st Part of this article attempts to examine the Aptitude aspect while the 2nd Part deals with Ethical Dimensions of Decision-making. It is quite ironical that every time the UPSC contemplates some alteration in the CSE pattern, the issue becomes the hot-spot of debate, then rationalization and finally profound
one of us becomes a ‘virtual’ player, umpire and commentator. To an extent it may be a positive phenomenon, as an indicator of our involvement, but can become a negative one too if we happen to misinterpret the issue on the basis of Speculation. Extending the logic, for the ‘unaware’ CSE candidates or IAS aspirants, it is a zone of confusion, since the pattern is still a suspense and therefore a cause for anxiety. This is why even unsolicited advice
PD/December/2010/1039/6
“Great ideas need landing gear as well as wings.”
Bureaucracy as well. This is what the C–SAT would be expected to assess viz. clearly defined ‘OFFICER-LIKE QUALITIES’ (OLQs), which have a 10-POINT INDEX. This interesting concept/index will be deeply discussed in a later episode of this series since it is a vast domain in itself. The C-SAT has nothing to do with any subject-specific knowledge. In an aptitude test you have to basically comprehend, de-construct, and resolve the problem by choosing from the given alternatives, in a limited time-frame. The entire exercise is to evaluate Psychological orientation, Professional alignment and Intellectual capability of the candidate. It does not mean that there is no scope for enhancing ‘response value’ and ‘reaction time’ to overcome aptitude test ‘firewalls’. One theory is that given enough time, most aptitude questions can be solved correctly. Even if this is assumed to be true, do we get all the time we need for answering questions in the CSE (?)—No ! there is always a sense of urgency and paucity of time. As significantly, and this is my experience with aptitude tests, the more time you give a question, the more are the chances that you would get confused are immense. This is not an issue about correct or incorrect, it is about confusion ...........inability to decide even if you are ‘fairly sure’ about the correct choice. The psychological pressure of an examination environment can compound the problem. Let us now proceed to sample problems of an aptitude test : Ex. 1 Instruction : Arrange in the order of logical decision-making— (A) Possibility (B) Probability (C) Variability (D) Certainty Choice : (i) ABCD (ii) CDAB (iii) ACBD (iv) DCBA Ex. 2 Instruction : Arrange in the order of priority— (A) Food (B) Clothing (C) Shelter (D) Freedom Choice : (i) ABCD (ii) DABC (iii) ABDC (iv) BDAC
Ex. 3 Instruction : What should be the priority order for an ethical civil service— (A) Fidelity (B) Honesty (C) Efficiency (D) Integrity Choice : (i) ABCD (iii) DBCA Ex. 4 Instruction : What should be the priority of mechanisms as instruments of effecting positive/constructive change— Choice : (A) Economic (B) Political (C) Social (D) Psychological For Development : (i) ABCD (ii) ACDB (iii) ABDC (iv) BACD For Growth : (i) ABCD (iii) ADBE For Progress : (i) BACD (iii) BCDA Ex. 5 Instruction : If personal ethics clashes with state ethics, what should be the basis of executive decisions— Choice : (i) Personal Ethics (ii) State Ethics (iii) Evasive Tactics (iv) None of ‘A’, ‘B’, & ‘C’ (Answers and justification will appear in next P.D. Issue) The various types of questions in aptitude tests will be taken up with sample questions in this series, to include ‘fallacies’, ‘paradoxes’, ‘differentials’, ‘functionals’, ‘relationals’, ‘inductive-deductive logic’, ‘reasoning & extension’, ‘permutation & combination’, ‘probability equations’, ‘statement jumbles’, ‘data interpretation’, etc. In effect the aptitude test along with certain elements of the psychometric test is an intelligent combination which “The impossible is often the untried.” (ii) ADCB (iv) BACD (ii) BCAD (iv) ACBD (ii) ADBC (iv) CADB
attempts to guage the ability and propensity of candidates in identifying the problem, analysing the problem, exploring options at resolving the problem and at times chosing the ‘best possible’ answer under the situation defined in the problem. We can now proceed to the 2nd part of our theme—Ethical and Moral Dimensions of DecisionMaking. In this section, we shall examine the individual factors that influence moral philosophy and values. Over a larger context, these factors come to constitute a national psyche. So when we talk of ethical decision-making we have to consider these factors as important determinants of the value system on which ethical decision-making is based. Although there are some universal principles of humanity, we cannot overlook the prevalence of ethical relativism to quite an extent. A systematic method to understand these specific factors and the influence on ethical values is to categorise them into ‘conditioning’ (‘which’ and ‘how’ influences shape human thinking and morality) and ‘antecedents’ (the background and direct inputs that form human attitude and personality). Conditioning factors such as historical legacy or the shared past that a group of people have gone through is an important influence on the behaviour of people. This is the reason why there is response variation to any situation in different groups of people. This creates problems for response expectation ........... which can be seen in the differing or diverse answers to the same aptitude test question. So is the case with geographical factors which reflect in group cohesion within a certain territory and diffusion between various groups belonging to different territories. In this manner, even the other conditioning factors do create response variation to situations. That is why a safe strategy for C-SAT would be to understand what the UPSC expects its civil services officers to be. If this is done, much of the problem in answering aptitude and ethical decisionmaking would be solved. The point is to come out of our prejudices and preconceived notions and look at aptitude questions dispassionately.
PD/December/2010/1040
INDIVIDUAL FACTORS, MORAL PHILOSOPHY and VALUES
Conditioning and Antecedents
Historical Geographical Cultural Social Economic Political Religious Legal Experience Education Inter-personal Community Cross-Cultural Circumstances Psycological Attitude Influences
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All these influence human thinking and human response to situation. It needs self discipline to maintain scientific objectivity. ? Moral compulsions and legal compunctions—These also influence choices and at times people pretend to be different from what they are, in answering aptitude questions. ? Psychological association between conduct, morality and ethereal or divine response based on reciprocity and proportionality. When people link these, they are seeking to find
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answers to ethical decisionmaking in prayer or luck factor. this is a delution. Religion as an influential factor in determining morality and values through concepts such as conscience, sin, God's justice, good and evil, heaven and hell, etc. however, in ethical decisionmaking of the ethical criteria for state decisions may be at variance with individual morality. it is the state view that must prevail. State – Civil Society - Welfare Factors Matrix : IndividualSociety-State—A considerable interplay o ethical eriteria and social justice takes place and generally social justice is assimilated into ethics. Community Castigation Vs. Community Recognition—This issue emerges when progressive and conservative ethics come face-to-face on any issue. Community influence & public authority—This is an extension of the preceding point. If the traditional community is unable to influence progressive public authority, it tries to be obstruc-
tionist and confront public authority. It is a matter of what are the perceived ethical criteria. Public authority is not personal and it has public concerns and interests. Therefore sectarian ethics has to be superseded by secular ethics. All these issues would constitute questions on ‘Ethical and Moral Dimensions of Decision-making’. An interesting angle to these questions is that at times a question is rephrased and repeated with many other questions in between. So, if a candidate has made a contrived choice once, he/she is likely to forget the response and make a contradictory choice the second time. This exposes the intention of the candidate and it would lead to losing marks. Finally, once we get into the Q&A mode, the candidates would surely attain the expected level of proficiency. Prior to that stage, we need to have our concepts in perfect order, in fact to reach that stage itself.
The author is a former diplomat bureaucrat and is presently associated with guiding CSE aspirants.
P.Darpan
PD/December/2010/1041
Economic and Social Development
United Nations Summit on Millennium Development Goals
—Dr. Amresh Chandra
United Nations Summit on the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) concluded on 22 September, 2010 in New York with the adoption of a global action plan to achieve the eight anti-poverty goals by 2015 target date. It followed announcement of major new commitments for women’s and children’s health and other initiatives against poverty, hunger and disease. The outcome document of the three-day Summit – Keeping the Promise : United to Achieve the Millennium Development Goals – reaffirms world leaders’ commitment to the MDGs and sets out a concrete action agenda for achieving the Goals by 2015. Based on examples of success and lessons learned over the last ten years, the document spells out specific steps to be taken by all stakeholders to accelerate progress on each of the eight Goals. It also affirms that, despite setbacks due to the economic and financial crises, remarkable progress has been made on fighting poverty, increasing school enrolment and improving health in many countries, and the Goals remain achievable. They include eradicating extreme poverty, reducing child mortality rates, fighting disease epidemics such as AIDS, and developing a global partnership for development. These are the goals and targets : 1. End poverty and hunger— Over the years, we've been inundated with the statistics and the pictures of poverty around the world, so much so that many people in both the North and South have come to accept it as an unfortunate but unalterable state of affairs. The truth, however, is that things have changed in recent years. The world today is more prosperous than it ever has been. The technological advances we have seen in recent years have created encouraging new opportunities to improve economies and reduce hunger. will be able to complete a full course of primary schooling. 3. Gender equality—Poverty has a woman's face. Global prosperity and peace will only be achieved once the entire world's people are empowered to order their own lives and provide for themselves and their families. Societies where women are more equal stand a much greater chance of achieving the Millennium Goals by 2015. Every single Goal is directly related to women's rights, and societies where women are not afforded equal rights as men can never achieve development in a sustainable manner.
The Target
Eliminate gender disparity in primary and secondary education, preferably by 2005, and in all levels of education no later than 2015. 4. Child health—One of the darkest characteristics of poverty is that is seems to prey on the vulnerable and defenceless. In lowincome countries, one out of every 10 children dies before the age of five. In wealthier nations, this number is only one out of 143.
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The Targets
Halve, between 1990 and 2015, the proportion of people whose income is less than one dollar a day. ? Achieve full and productive employment and decent work for all, including women and young people. ? Halve, between 1990 and 2015, the proportion of people who suffer from hunger. 2. Universal education—Every human being should have the opportunity to make a better life for themselves. Unfortunately, too many children in the world today grow up without this chance, because they are denied their basic right to even attend primary school. A sustainable end to world poverty as we know it, as well as the path to peace and security, requires that citizens in every country are empowered to make positive choices and provide for themselves and their families.
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Background of MDGs
When 189 Heads of State and government from the North and South, as representatives of their citizens, signed onto the Millennium Declaration at the 2000 UN Millennium Summit, there was a palpable sense of urgency. Urgency to "free our fellow men, women and children from the abject and dehumanizing conditions of extreme poverty, to which more than a billion of them are currently subjected.” Since then many events have been unfolded while trying to meet those goals. The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) are eight international development goals that all 193 United Nations member states and at least 23 international organizations have agreed to achieve by the year 2015.
The Targets
Reduce by two-thirds, between 1990 and 2015, the under-five mortality rate. 5. Maternal health—Many people consider the day their child was born the happiest day in their life. In poorer countries, the day a child born is all too often the day its mother dies. The lifetime risk of dying in pregnancy and childbirth in Africa is 1 in 22, while it is 1 in 120 in Asia and 1 in 7,300 in developed countries.
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The Targets
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The Targets
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Ensure that, by 2015, children everywhere, boys and girls alike, “Desire creates the power.”
Reduce by three quarters, between 1990 and 2015, the maternal mortality ratio [MMR].
PD/December/2010/1042
Achieve, by 2015, universal access to reproductive health [UARH]. 6. Combat HIV/AIDS—Malaria, together with HIV/AIDS and TB, is one of the major public health challenges undermining development in the poorest countries in the world. Malaria kills an African child every 30 seconds. Many children who survive an episode of severe malaria may suffer from learning impairments or brain damage. Pregnant women and their unborn children are also particularly vulnerable to malaria, which is a major cause of prenatal mortality, low birth weight and maternal anaemia.
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By 2020, to have achieved a significant improvement in the lives of at least 100 million slum dwellers.
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The Targets
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Have halted by 2015 and begin to reverse the spread of HIV/ AIDS. Achieve, by 2010, universal access to treatment for HIV/ AIDS for all those who need it. Have halted by 2015 and begin to reverse the incidence of malaria and other major diseases.
8. Global partnership—The Millennium Goals represent a global partnership for development. The deal makes clear that it is the primary responsibility of poor countries to work towards achieving the first seven Goals. They must do their part to ensure greater accountability to citizens and efficient use of resources. But for poor countries to achieve the first seven Goals, it is absolutely critical that rich countries deliver on their end of the bargain with more and more effective aid, more sustainable debt relief and fairer trade rules, well in advance of 2015.
In cooperation with the private sector, make available the benefits of new technologies, especially information and communications.
Outcome of the Summit
General Assembly adopts the following outcome document of the High-level Plenary Meeting on the Millennium Development Goals— We, Heads of State and Government, gathered at United Nations Headquarters in New York from 20 to 22 September 2010, welcome the progress made since we last met here in 2005 while expressing deep concern that it falls far short of what is needed. Recalling the development goals and commitments emanating from the Millennium Declaration and the 2005 World Summit Outcome we reaffirm our resolve to work together for the promotion of the economic and social advancement of all peoples. They (participants) were convinced that the Millennium Development Goals can be achieved, including in the poorest countries, with renewed commitment, effective implementation and intensified collective action by all Member States and other relevant stakeholders at both the domestic and international levels, using national development strategies and appropriate policies and approaches that have proved to be effective, with strengthened institutions at all levels, increased mobilization of resources for development, increased effectiveness of development cooperation and an enhanced global partnership for development. In the summit emphasis was put on a broad based policy formulation and its execution–they recognize that all the Millennium Development Goals are interconnected and mutually reinforcing. Therefore the need is to pursue these Goals through a holistic and comprehensive approach. Outcome document call on civil society, including non-governmental organizations, voluntary associations and foundations, the private sector and other relevant stakeholders at the local, national, regional and global levels, to enhance their role in national development efforts as well as their contribution to
The Targets
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Develop further an open, rulebased, predictable, non-discriminatory trading and financial system. Include a commitment to good governance, development and poverty reduction both nationally and internationally. Address the special needs of the least developed countries Includes : tariff and quota free access for the least developed countries’ exports; enhanced programme of debt relief for heavily indebted poor countries (HIPC) and cancellation of official bilateral debt; and more generous ODA for countries committed to poverty reduction. Address the special needs of landlocked developing countries and small island developing States (through the Programme of Action for the Sustainable Development of Small Island Developing States and the outcome of the twenty-second special session of the General Assembly). Deal comprehensively with the debt problems of developing countries through national and international measures in order to make debt sustainable in the long term. In cooperation with pharmaceutical companies, provide access to affordable essential drugs in developing countries.
7. Environmental sustainability—Reducing poverty and achieving sustained development must be done in conjunction with a healthy planet. The Millennium Goals recognize that environmental sustainability is part of global economic and social well-being. Unfortunately exploitation of natural resources such as forests, land, water, and fisheriesoften by the powerful few have caused alarming changes in our natural world in recent decades, often harming the most vulnerable people in the world who depend on natural resources for their livelihood.
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The Targets
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Integrate the principles of sustainable development into country policies and programmes and reverse the loss of environmental resources. Reduce biodiversity loss, achieving, by 2010, a significant reduction in the rate of loss. Halve, by 2015, the proportion of people without sustainable access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation
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PD/December/2010/1043
“You must do the thing you think you cannot do.”
the achievement of the Millennium Development Goals by 2015, and commit as national Governments to the inclusion of these stakeholders. In an effort to achieve those goals some of the important steps taken by different stakeholders are :
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Initiative for maternal, newborn and child health adopted at the G8 Summit.
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The European Union [EU] offered funding amounting to € 1 billion to the most committed and needy countries to make progress on the goals they are furthest from achieving. The World Bank announced an increase in the scope of its results-based health programmes by more than $ 600 million until 2015 to scale up essential health and nutrition services and strengthen the underlying health systems in 35 countries, particularly in East Asia, South Asia and sub-Saharan Africa. The World Bank will increase its support to agriculture to between $ 6 billion and $ 8 billion a year over the next three years, up from $ 4.1 billion annually before 2008, under its Agriculture Action Plan to help boost incomes, employment and food security in many low-income areas. France announced funding of $ 1.4 billion to the Global Fund to Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis and Malaria for 2011-2013, an increase of 20 per cent. The United States announced a commitment of $ 50.82 million over the next five years for a Global Alliance for Clean Cook stoves, a public-private partnership led by the United Nations Foundation seeking to install 100 million clean-burning stoves in kitchens around the world. The United Kingdom announced a tripling in its financial contributions to fight malaria, increasing its funds for malaria from £ 150 million a year to £500 million by 2014. Canada reaffirmed its commitment to mobilize more than $10 billion from G8 and non-G8 leaders, key donors and private foundations over the next five years through the Muskoka
Belgium pledged € 400,000 for the Fourth United Nations Conference on Least Developed Countries, to take place in Istanbul, Turkey, in 2011.
Challenges of MDGs
Although developed countries' aid for the achievement of the MDGs has been rising over the recent years, it has shown that more than half is towards debt relief owed by poor countries. As well, the remaining aid money goes towards natural disaster relief and military aid which does not further the country into development. According to the United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (2006), the 50 least developed countries only receive about one third of all aid that flows from developed countries, raising the issue of aid not moving from rich to poor depending on their development needs but rather from rich to their closest allies. Many development experts question the MDGs model of transferring billions of dollars directly from the wealthy nation governments to the often bureaucratic or corrupt governments in developing countries. This form of aid has led to extensive cynicism by the general public in the wealthy nations, and hurts support for expanding badly needed aid. The recent announcements of help and aid by the developed world and other donor institutions to the third world countries are welcoming steps but how it unfolds on the ground is critical in achieving the main objective.
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While underlining the importance of a comprehensive approach to meet the MDGs, Indian Prime Minister, Dr. Manmohan Singh said, "The Millennium Development Goals that we have set for ourselves cannot be met unless governments are proactive. No government in any civilized society can ignore the basic needs of people. The goal of the development process must be to include every last member of our society in that process". Member countries of the UN and other participating bodies in the summit reiterated their commitment towards the MDGs. We request the General Assembly to continue to review, on an annual basis, the progress made towards the achievement of the Millennium Development Goals, including in the implementation of the present outcome document. Ten years after the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) agreed by world leaders became the greatestever commitment for a ‘more peaceful, prosperous and just future’, progress is slow and many hardwon achievements have been undone after the global food, fuel and economic crises. Unless an urgent rescue package is evoloved to accelerate fulfilment of all the MDGs, we are likely to witness the greatest collective failure in history and thus alarmingly endangering the well-being of future generation. P.Darpan
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Conclusion : Pro-activism of all Required
In the words of UN Secretary General Ban Ki-Moon—this Summit has laid a solid foundation for the progress we need in our quest to achieve the Millennium Development Goals by the internationally agreed deadline of 2015. Through the participation of a large number of Heads of State and Government as well as leaders from civil society, the private sector and the philanthropic community, this event has galvanized worldwide attention.
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PD/December/2010/1044
“Your goals, minus your doubts, equal your reality.”
Sociological Article
Changing Face of Indian Women : From Vedic Period to Modern Age
—Pooja Sehrawat, M.S.W. M.Phil
Introduction
Indian women have seen many ups and downs in their life from the beginning of the world. In primitive times (pre stone & post stone age) she was living a happy life with her male partner and children. The vedic period was the golden period for the women. They had all privileges and enjoyed a happy socio-economic, religious, political and cultural life. During post vedic period, gradually the status of women started declining and she was deprived of her social, economic, religious and political rights. The medieval time filled her life with agony. It was the worst time for women. They were confined within the four walls of the house and treated as slaves. During the British rule the position of Indian women started improving and with the cooperation of prominient social reformers women succeeded though slowly, to regain their socio-economic and political rights of which they were deprived in earlier times.
in the performance of religious rites. The educational opportunities were also open for women and they were free to study vedic literature. Gargi and Maitreyi can be named as welleducated women of this period. In this period women were not restrained in purdah system. They were not confined within the four walls of the house. The women had considerable freedom in selection of their life partners through the system of ‘Swayamvara’. During this period the wives proved good companions and partners of their husbands in their social and household activities. In those times widow remarriage was allowed. Widows were not treated inhumanely by the society in the name of custom, tradition and belief. On the whole it can be said that women enjoyed all freedoms during vedic period. They had equal participation in all the spheres of life with men without any difference of sex, caste, creed, religion etc.
stopped. All these restrictions and suppression resulted in decline of women’s status and position in the society and men started treating her as his slave and consumable commodity.
Status of Women in Medieval Period
With the Muslim invasion in India during medieval period the status of women further declined. In this period certain ill practices like Sati, Child marriage, Devdasi system, purdah system, ban on Widow remarriage became part of social life in India. The Muslim emperors captured the wives of defeated Hindu Kings and kept them in their herums. In order to escape from humiliation the Queens of defeated Hindu Kings burnt themselves alive before the coming of mughals in their palace e.g. Rani Padmavati burnt herself alive before Aurangzeb reached in her palace. Child Marriage became common in those days because the Hindu masses in order to save their daughters from muslim’s humiliation got their daughters married at an early age. Purdah system closed the doors of education for women. Polygamy also became popular in these days. Hindu women were strictly instructed by their husbands to remain in Purdah (in veil) all the times. Though the above practices were adopted in order to protect the women from muslim invaders, gradually they took the shape of custom and tradition. Inspite of these adverse conditions some women viz. Razia Sultana, Chand Bibi, Noor Jahan, Jija Bai took active part in politics and showed their excellence and ability.
Status of Women in Vedic Period
The vedic period in Indian history is considered as golden period with regard to the status of women in society. In this period women were enjoying a very specific and respectful position in their homes and in society. During this period she was considered even greater than gods as is said, ?tuuh tUeHwfe'p LoxkZnfi xjh;lh? and ?;( ukfjLrq iwT;Urs r( jeUrs
Status of Women in Post Vedic Period
In post vedic period the status of women started declining with the emergence of Smritis (especially Manu Smriti). In this period ‘Manu’ emerged as law maker of Hindu society and he equated women with shudras and slaves. Manu clearly said that women must be kept under control. “In childhood a woman must be subject to her father, in youth to her husband and when her lord is dead to her sons”. Women were expected to follow men as his shadow and at that time strong emphasis was laid on faithful and uncomplaining wife. Women had no separate identity. And they were known as weak, helpless, powerless and dependent member of society. The women were also not allowed to make participation in social, economic, religious and political spheres of life. Women education was banned. The system of widow remarriage was “Thought is behaviour in rehearsal.”
nsok#? She was enjoying her social life
equal to men and sometimes even higher to men. Men and women were just like the two sides of a coin. Without one the other was incomplete. Both of them were just like the two wheels of a house cart in which the importance of both the wheels was equal. Women were free to participate in social, economic and political activities equally with men. They were also free to participate equally
Status of Women in British Period
From the beginning of 19th century, prominient social reformers started a struggle for the revival of
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rights and freedoms of women in Indian society and they succeeded in their mission to a great extent. A few of the social reformers were Raja Rammohan Roy, Inshwar Chandra Vidyasagar, Jyoti Rao Phuley, Maharishi Dayananda Saraswati, Swami Vivekananda etc. Raja Rammohan Roy raised voice against Sati Pratha (system) and by his efforts in 1829 British Government enacted ‘Sati Prevention Act’. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar supported widow remarriage and in 1856 succeeded in getting passed ‘Widow Remarriage Act, 1856’ Jyoti Rao Phuley and Maharishi Dayananda Saraswati were great supporter of women education and Maharishi Dayananda Saraswati opened separate schools and colleges for women’s education. Swami Ramakrishna Paramhansa and Annie Besant were few other prominient social reformer of this time. On the other side, in political sphere Rani Laxmi Bai, Kittur Chennamma and Begum Hazrat Mahal showed their knowledge, skill, capacity and power against the British rulers. In 1917, the first women’s delegation met the secretary of the state to demand women’s political rights supported by the Indian National Congress. The All India Women’s Education Conference was held at Pune in 1927. Bhikaji Cama, Vijay Laxmi Pandit, Kamla Nehru, Kasturba Gandhi, Aruna Asaf Ali, Sucheta Kriplani, Sarojini Naidu were famous freedom fighters who actively participated in India’s struggle for Independence with Mahatma Gandhi and Pt. Nehru.
(iii) Equality of opportunity to all individuals without any discrimination of caste, sex, religion as per Article 6 (iv) Right to adequate means of livelihood as per Article 39(a) (v) Equal pay for equal work as per Article 39(d)
(vi) Just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief as per Article 42 Apart from these articles of Indian Constitution several Acts also have been enacted by Government of India with the objective to protect women’s rights and also to protect them from sufferings and exploitation. The important Acts are as under— (i) (ii) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and
(iii) The Hindu Minority Guardianship Act, 1956
(iv) The Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 (v) The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961
(vi) The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 (vii) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 (viii) The Domestic Violence Act, 2005 Due to all these legal and constitutional efforts and also because of expansion of education, liberalisation and globalization the ideology of Indian society towards women has changed. The modern Indian woman has became a significant part of society and she is playing a vital role in the country's public life. The women of today have opted for new horizons and paths to satisfy her quest for self expression and creativity. The women are taking active part in all spheres of life i.e. political, social, economic, religious etc. The Census of India 2001 has registered 25·60 per cent of female population as workers numbering 127·22 million out of a total female population of 496 million.
Smt. Rabdi Devi in Bihar, Nandini Satpati in Uttar Pradesh were successful chief ministers of their respective states. Smt. Pratibha Devisingh Patil is holding the office of the President of India. Meera Kumar is holding the post of Speaker of the Lok Sabha, Smt. Sheila Dixit has been continuously ruling over Delhi since 1999. Besides this, women are holding key posts in almost all the departments of central and state governments. Not only in civil areas but in defence also they are doing excellent jobs. Sania Mirza, Saina Nehwal. P. T. Usha, Malleshwari, are some of the prominent figures of games and sports. They have earned name and fame in sports. Mother Teresa had done extraordinary work in the field of health. Lata Mangeshkar and Asha Bhonsle are the famous singers of India and world also. Arundhati Roy and Medha Patekar are the famous social activists. Nirupama Roy is holding the post of foreign secretary in the Ministry of External Affairs. Indian woman, today and without any difference of caste, creed, religion, sex etc. are enjoying all human rights and freedoms. However, 33 per cent reservation bill for women in Indian Parliament and state legislative assemblies is waiting for clearance in Lok Sabha. P.Darpan
Status of Women after Independence
After Independence of India certain legal, constitutional and developmental efforts were made to revive/raise the status of women and also to protect women from torture, suppression and exploitation. The Constitution of India guarantees— (i) (ii) Equality before law as per Article 14 Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, sex, caste and creed as per Article 15(I)
Conclusion
After Independence Indian women progressed speedly particularly in Indian politics. Mrs. Indira Gandhi ruled over the country for 14 years, Smt. Jaya Lalita in Tamil Nadu, “Goals are dreams with deadlines.”
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Legal Article
Section 497 IPC Must be Amended
—Sanjeev Sirohi
It would certainly amount to an exaggeration if we say that Section 497 IPC pertaining to adultery must be abolished but certainly we won't be overstating or exaggerating if we state that it needs to be amended suitably at the earliest to meet the present circumstances because we are now living in 2010 and not in 1810 or 1910. We are totally dumbstruck to see that even after so many years of independence, this most discriminating section in not only IPC but in our entire criminal law which imposes punishment on men alone even though women fully consented to it or even lured him as an abettor still remains untouched after so many years. What a pity! Section 497 says : “Whoever has sexual intercourse with a person who is and whom he knows or has reason to believe to be the wife of another man, without the consent or connivance of that man, such sexual intercourse not amounting to the offence of rape, is guilty of the offence of adultery, and shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to five years or with fine, or with both. In such case the wife shall not be punishable as an abettor.” It is beyond at least our comprehension why a married women alone has been given a blank cheque of open exemption to indulge in free sex with as many men as she likes and yet not be punishable as an abettor even though notwithstanding that it was she who lured them and they all will be punishable for being men ? Can on earth there be any such discriminatory law which openly discriminates between men and women and punishes men alone even though women abetted it ? We know that even in England itself adultery is not a criminal offence because IPC is their creation. In some European countries, adultery is mildly punished. For instance, in France, a wife guilty of adultery is punishable from minimum three months to maximum two years of imprisonment. The husband, however, has discretion to end her sentence and take her back. The adulterer is similarly punished. In Malaysia, Singapore and Hong Kong, adultery is not punishable. In US, 6 states do not punish adultery at all, in 20 states both transgressors are guilty and in 8 states both transgressors are guilty. If the woman is married but if she is single then only man is guilty. In Pakistan and most Islamic countries, adultery can be punished with death also. In Philippines it is the married woman who is alone liable for adultery. Just recently, Justice S.N. Dhingra of Delhi High Court said : “We are living in an era of equality of sexes. The Constitution provides equal treatment to be given irrespective of sex, caste and creed. An unemployed husband who is holding an MBA degree cannot be treated differently to an unemployed wife who is also holding an MBA degree.” Does this concept of equality not apply in case of adultery also ? A crime is a crime whether it is murder, theft or adultery. If a woman can be punished for murder, theft and other offences then why not for adultery also ? Time has come when this gross injustice perpetuated on men is rectified. To be brutally honest, if there is one section in the IPC which we detest the most—it is obviously Section 497. This we say not beings men but as human beings. No other section of IPC so blatantly discriminates between men and woman with men here being at the receiving end and women being at the gaining end. No men can ever even stare continously at a women without her consent, leave alone the question of having physical relationship. Don't get us wrong. We are not against women rather we strongly support equality demanded by them with men in all spheres including permanent commission in armed forces. We are just saying why “Dare to be naive” adultery should be a special exception ? Either there should be no punishment at all both for men and women or both should be awarded equal punishment or only that individual who is married and breaks the faith of his/her spouse by indulging in it should be held liable irrespective as to whether he/she is a men or a women. We must learn something from Ranbir Penal Code 1932, s. 497 applicable to Jammu & Kashmir under which both are equally punished. Similarly, in Korea, both husband and wife are equally punishable for adultery under article 241 of the Korean Criminal Code. But in Uganda adultery is criminal for women and not for men. The Fifth Law Commission of India in its 42nd Report, 1971 had recommended the retention of Section 497 in its present form with the modification that, even the wife, who has sexual relations with a person other than her husband should be made punishable for adultery. It also recommended for revision of the current punishment for the same, which is five years, as it felt that it is, “unreal and not called for in any circumstances.” The suggested modification was not accepted by the legislature. Joint Selection Committee suggested equal culpability of both the sexes for their promiscuous behaviour, but it was of the view that the old punishment of five years should be retained as it is. The Committee on Reforms of Criminal Justice System in 2003 recommended : “In view of the fact that an adulterous relationship cannot take place without the consent of the married woman, it is highly discriminatory to hold only the man guilty of the offence without making the adulterous woman liable for her infidelity.” Even the Apex Court in Sowmithri Vishnu Vs. Union of India AIR 1985 SC 1618 held : “It is commonly accepted that it is the man who is the seducer and not the woman. This position may have
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PD/December/2010/1047
Career Article
SSB : For Three Wings of the Armed Forces What ? How ? and Why ?
—J. B. Mall, Psychologist
Liberty and full freedom to describe yourself.
S. D. T.
Self Description Test
You have to appraise yourself within bind and bounds.
Two negatives can’t make one positive, for that the contents of the bottle is to be seen not the label. Label may or may not justify the contents but contents can justify the label.
Electronic/print media duly backed by the environmental freedom has complicated and made the assessement of human personality a difficult task. Due to ever changing dynamics of socio-economic cum cultural values of the society we live in. The assessors need to be conscious of the current status of the candidates who are reporting to the centre being influenced by the above. The environmental liberty and competitive pressure is projecting a thorough knowledge with a technical know-how, to fabricate, cook, manifest and camouflage the responses and the behavioural pattern with full of impression management which the parameter of selection system does not require. Saying that my handwriting is weak, I lack in speaking, I want to improve my English, I hesitate to speak before the audience. Gentlemen, these are skill not the weaknesses. Weakness requires action where as skill requires interaction. Action is an individual component whereas reaction is social. In a broad term reaction becomes interaction. Saying that I hesitate to talk with the strangers. I want to enlarge my social circle. I want to mix up easily. This is part of your social intelligence. You can make the effort and improve upon. Not the weaknesses. Small people talk about other people, mediocre people talk about things; great people talk about ideas. Similarly, when you write that my sister gets annoyed when I increase the volume of T.V. Gentleman this is reaction not the weakness. You close the door and the same will not happen. Again some one writes my mother gets annoyed when I bring a bunch of friends. Gentleman this is again not a weakness. You inform earlier and it will not happen.
An individual is the product of his environment and sorroundings. The word his environment and sorrounding denotes his liberty to pick and choose the people and society he wants to. An individual is the product of ‘his’ environment and sorroundings in which he lives in. The word ‘his’ denotes his choice of choosing his environment. The further interpretation of ‘his’ environment is; heredity + environment. For heredity no system of the universe will take otherwise or penalise you. As you do not have your control on heredity, for the example, it is the decision of the God where
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“The greatest dreams are always unrealistic.”
you will be born who your parents will be ? Who will your siblings be ? But where as your environment is concerned, it is you who choose the friends, guides, society and surrounding. Therefore, you may not be held responsible for heredity but certainly you will be made accountable for the environment you choose to. In other kind of answers you may find some thing and sometime nothing but in this particular answer you will find every thing. I will request you to analyse and introspect the above answer. The focal point of that answer is climate, environment, society and finally a well defined life style. Please realise and answer my question ? When summer comes don’t you feel fed-up ? Don’t you get annoyed, feel uncomfortable and
uneasy ? Similarly when spring comes it brings pleasantness, happiness and cheerful climate and environment and finally it stimulates you to make eager to move any where to work and enjoy more energetically. This ‘Self Description Test’ is the 4th among the battery of your psychological test. This psychological test is based on inferential technique. The interpretation of this technique is : psychologist reaches his evaluation on the basis of inferences. To draw the inferences neither he studies on the line nor above the lines but studies between the lines. He is not interested what you are writing rather, from where you are writing. In the G.T.O. series of testing or in the group testing officers’ technique, if
you have not been able to speak in G. D. (Group Discussion) then the situational condition will not stimulate the G.T.O. to find out why you have not spoken. Because, this technique is only observational not the inferential. But the scientist does it. Interviewing officer does it, as both these techniques are an inferential one. If you consider the above diagram you will acknowledge that out of these three techniques, some technique is powerful in some factors, but weak in other factors. Therefore all these three techniques are made to correspond independently to find out a suitable saviour or a leader of crisis for the Armed forces. Because of this combination and comprehension, this technique is known as scientific and fool-proof. Meaning thereby it cannot be befooled.
Kinds, Function, Nature and the Strength of these Three Techniques
Status of these techniques What does it find out ? Psyche Technique Interviewing officer Technique What does it find out ?
Your Social Adjustment and casual behaviour
Group Testing Officer Technique
Your Defence Mechanism Stress resistence and, Emotional Stability
What is the Nature of this Technique ? Inferential Technique What is the strength of this technique ?
What does it find out ? Your Group Effectiveness, Group Dynamics and Practical Effective & Efficient Intelligence. What is the Nature of this Technique ? Observational Technique What is the strength of this Technique ? What is the Nature of this Technique ? Inferential Technique What is the strength of this Technique ?
This technique is very much powerful in factor IInd that is Social Adjustment. It can easily find out factor IIIrd that is leadership and factor Ist that is intelligence but weak in factor IV that is Dynamism.
This technique is strong in factor IV that is Dynamism, factor Ist that is intelligence and it can easily find out factor IIIrd that is leadership but weak in factor IInd that is Social Adjustment.
This technique is strong in factor IIIrd that leadership, factor Ist that is intelligence and it can also find out factor IV that is Dynamism but weak in factor IInd that is Social Adjustment.
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“Don’t expect mangoes when you plant papayas.”
Explanation—It is purely a psychological based selection which consists and energetic behaviour, consider me more mature as they give more responsibility, seeing my maturity they fully depend on me. Write Written Psychology Field Psychology Interview Psychology directly, according to my parents I am a mature one. Use simple words when you are reporting directly about Thought Process Action Content of words your self. Defence mechanism is used when there is failure or something The sound interplay and homogeneous mix of all the above three goes against your ego—For example techniques will produce/project/display a suitable personality which if your % of marks in intermediate will be recognised and recommended as saviour or a leader of crisis. is less than high school then do This Self Description is known points as well as his ability to analyse not criticise teachers, examination papers, schools or do not say my by three ways the (1) is known as Self himself impartially and objectively. mother was ill, father used to remain Description (2) is self-story writing out of station. Admit and confess and (3) is self-appraisal. This is the May I ask you not to go on favourite method being exercised by fabricated, cooked and manipulated directly that I have wasted time with the psychological tests to get to know and guided description. Gentleman, friends, seeing pictures etc. Say that it is a gross failure on my part. Now I more about the individual and to this is a very good test and you will have become aware and I have done obtain information to confirm the keep on enjoying if you learn to write this and that and even I am following finding already recorded in the earlier honestly and in a genuine way. the strict schedule these are like this tests. and will do this within this much of Status of Self Description time. of—
Highlighting your achievements. “In terms of your special attitude and skills. One particular quality should not start dominating every aspect.” Do not begin with your description. For example I am youngman, get up early or I am strong man of aged 23, 24 or 25 and I am smart, smiled and humbled. Sorry not required Strong points & Weak points : “Denial is the worst form of the defence mechanism.”
“A reliable time table with reasonable follow up of ups and down to upgrade the educational track records, sports and other tie-ups in games and other activities with obedient and natural acceptability of dark and light areas with innocent confession gives rise to honesty and innocense which become the backbone of recommendation.” It is the technique which matters. Experience pays not the strength. Human beings have certain weaknesses and good points. There are three kinds of people in the word—
Third kind Second kind Who know, realise and take proper steps timely to rectify them.
Then what is required ? 1 Intellectual 2 Social 3 Leadership First kind A lot of people who do not know their weaknesses. Neither they try to know nor they understand. 4 Dynamism
The Importance of Self Description—In the first instance, this task provides valuable information regarding the candidate to the Psychologist and the interviewing officer that too at the time of the conference. The Psychologist may assess and evaluate the individual on the basis of the details obtained by this technique. Secondly, he would use these particulars to obtain confirmation for his findings, by seeking corroboration. In either case, it may be applied in creating the impression of the candidate on the minds of these examiners about achievements, ambitions, attitudes, ethics, emotions and the character. They come to know of candidate’s strong and weak
Who know the weaknesses but do not take steps to rectify them.
These above qualities should be described through action, incidents, emotions, relations and interactions. Facts and opinions are to be spelt balancly. Please be plain in explaining facts and opinions. To many words do not communicate properly. Write specific, precise and direct description not with too much adjective like : My parents see my dynamism
Admitting fault is strength not the weakness. Ego is disastrous instinct which damages the balance, creat clashes. I will exemplify with following descriptions; I will take the example of three words which may have different aspects, notions and even can create clashes. These three words—
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“For every mountain there is a miracle.”
Convey a Does not carry any risk, responsibility does not require any skill, experience and even the knowledge of the components of behavioural pattern. b You ask Suresh that on the way to your house you will find Gaurav’s house. Convey my message that examination notes are ready. He may come and collect it. Neither you are more serious nor Suresh. But, when message is received by Gaurav he will take it seriously and will come and collect it.
Converse a Converse is interactional a reciprocal behavioural pattern is required. If you are humble, polite and having a capability to stand specific then certainly it will bear good fruits. b Converse requires sensitivity, humour or a good behavioural pattern backed by value, ethics and social norms. c Converse imposes more responsibility than yourself.
Communicate Requires group, knowledge, experience and skill I will exemplify as here under— a Message conveyed : send the reenforcement we are advancing. Message received : send the refreshment we are dancing. b When a conveyed message is received it becomes communication. Due to lack of skill or grasp it may flop and even may cause c Communication requires sense of responsibility.
Interpretation—All the above three components require a balanced personality otherwise any of the above or even all three may create ego, clashes, havoc etc.
The role and the character of the mirror can be truely compared with the ‘Self Description’. This test does not require any literature or preparation or practice. The main thing stands. How to write ? and ‘What to write’ ? only.
Before coming ahead to how to write and what to write I will first explain
What does under take to write the Self Description ? Ask yourself. What will amount to a very good life ? Leading life ? successful life ? happy life ? a trouble free life ? The answer is family, teachers/employer, friends, yourself and finally what you want to be ? and what would you like to inculcate and how ? The composite, compound and comprehensive mix of all the aforesaid components when balanced applied and described it becomes the ‘Self Description’ or ‘Self Appraisal’ or ‘Self Story Writing’.
The family becomes the Ist unit, basic initial intiation factor and the point to inculcate, incorporate, condense, expand the span and depth of behavioural pattern to constitute a desirable and not desirable personality. Opinion formation is long drawn and time taking process. This is the reason why the psychological tests are evaluated through inferential technique.
It the element of honestly and transparency is compromised the assessement will not got in your favour.
Under the changing or varying situations if you spell transparency and on other occasions if you turn to become ambiguous, then selection parameter will bounce your certainty. Basically a child is taught, nurtured by her mother, father and even
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“In the middle of difficulty lies opportunity.”
by other family members under the joint family system. Since your childhood, if you have been good in your routine, commitment, sports, home work and you never developed any bad habit or any kind of habit of being reminded except in some cases like when cricket match comes on T.V. then you lose studies. When you play cricket on Sunday or holidays then you are always brought back from the play ground by your family members. And finally your family members become annoyed when you feel pain in your stomach due to overeating specially when non-veg. is cooked or served in any function. When you are grown up and become the aspirant of IMA, OTA, specialised entry, service entry or TA. (Territorial Army entry) at the laterstage of life. Then the method remains the same but the contents are changed. Sometimes your contents become more mature. Most probably with good sense of duty, sense of discipline, sense of responsibility and even with high sense of responsibility. With two or three examples, you will learn to write the S. D. of any stage. More specifically, if any drastic turn you have confronted in your past life then how to write ? and what to write ? Suppose your father has expired then your mother’s opinion will only exist. Similarly, in case of mother’s death your father’s opinion will exist. Sorry to say gentleman in case your parents are not alive you may write that since my parents are no more therefore, parents’ opinion will not exist. Better you ask the duty officer— In case parents are not alive, you may ask
the technical officer, psychologist or scientist who so ever is conducting the psychological test. Sir, my parents are not alive, should I write that my parents’ opinion does not exist or I should write their opinion whatever they had before their death. Parents opinion for CDSE and specialised entries—According to my parents I am open and friendly with them. I do understand their financial limits and compulsion. Even I have taken a part time job as teacher and have also started giving tuitions to support the education of my siblings. I have made my parents free of their responsibility to care and share with my siblings. My parents become annoyed sometimes when I scold my siblings to make them serious for their studies. And again my parents point out to care for my future. Parents opinion for service and TA. Entries—(Service entries would hereby mean the army personnel who are already in the service and do apply for the commissioned jobs. And TA entries would mean that who are in service either in civil or in private profession and do apply for this entry for that the age limit is 42 years). The parents’ opinion for this entry would run as hereunder—According to my parents I am too sincere to follow them as they want. In their opinion I am responsible, caring and do understand them and their limits. I extend financial support without their hint as I understand the need and occasions. Most of the times I give the full support because I do realise that they need it. I do understand the family and its need and do what is required. My parents some times point out to care myself and my family.
Teachers/employers opinion— Honouring teachers is like honouring self and the blessing we receive in return is above all. Teachers always have been the best guides, philosphers and friends. They are known to give the best and usable turn to the lives of their disciples. They understand you better and whatever they speak, they speak honestly and impartially. The relations between the teachers and taught vary from individual to individual. With some teachers you become very close, familiar and friendly. Seeing your Dynamism, active participation, motivation and interest in various fields your teachers assign you work and task in the interest of the organisation. On some occasion teachers need right people for the right jobs. Selection of men depends on their suitability. Teachers know who can do what ? How much time and kinds of resources a task requires ? Some job requires challenges and risk. When a particular mission or task is accomplished that too with or without hurdles then opinion is formed. In closing address when commendation is given and certificates followed by prizes are awarded with a due briefing about the achievements and remarkable performances then what happens. Continued to be Next Issue
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undergone some change over the years but it is for the legislature to consider whether s. 497 should be amended appropriately so as to take note of the ‘transformation’ which the society has undergone.” The National Commission of Women had also criticized the British era law of being anti-feminist as it treats women as the property of their husbands and has consequentially recommended deletion of the law or reducing it to a civil offence. The 14th Law Commission in its 156th Report also recommended reformation of the criminal law of adultery and changes in relevant sections of Cr PC also. At least now our government must act and initiate necessary changes in it be either making it gender neutral or decriminalising it entirely! Media should also play its part in this regard by debating it more vigorously and prominently to draw the attention of our law makers in this regard. P.Darpan
PD/December/2010/1052
“It is surmounting difficulties that makes heroes.”
Self-Motivations Article
A TALISMAN for Civil Services’ Aspirants
—A. P. Bhardwaj
From smallest to grandest, from materialistic to metaphysical, from this worldly to other worldly, there is only one talisman; Jaggo, Khojjo, Samjho, Pao and for that there is only one Mantra : Be Realist and Try the Impossible. The first and foremost thing to be taken into consideration and to be pondered upon Sincerely and Honestly is whether you really aspire to be a civil-servant. Try to find out its answer from deep down within yourself. Is it your own aspiration ? Isn’t it an imposition ? Isn’t it an imitation ? Aren’t you going to try this venture without having the knowledge of the risks involved ? Though it is the most prestigious service of the country and everybody has the right to try for them, yet it is not necessary that everybody would have filament of that type. Everybody cannot have the basicity. Some may have poorer basicity; many may have richer. Moreover it is a matter of : Attitude and Approach Priorities and Potential Talents and Tastes. CSE is not just like any other examination. It is an entirely and altogether different from other examination in its nature, scope and determination. You will be able to achieve your goal only and only if your aspiration is : Real, Honest, Sincere, True, Infallible, Unwavering, Concrete. Try to understand the meaning, intent and content of these words. You normally use these words innumerable times in a day. But you don’t make use of these words almost throughout your life. Ramshackled and borrowed aspiration, floundering attitude; rancid thoughts, shaky spirits, rickety approach and random, tottering and dilapidated preparation cannot bring you success. Your aspiration should be yours. Your efforts should be sincere and honest. Preparation must be concrete, consistent, relentless and focussed. your weakness and strengths. Remove the weakness. Improve the strengths. To give ourselves a reasonable prospect of success, we must realize what we wish to achieve and for that make the best of opportunities; Use of Time is Most Important. Don’t Forget the CSE is not just like any other examination. It is an entirely and altogether different. It is not the test of your one or two years’ preparation. It is not the test of your bookish knowledge only. It is the test of your own self. It is the examination of your overall development. In addition to knowledge, it is the test of your certain fundamental, basic, elemental and phenomenal characteristics such as your capacity to Perceive, Conceive, Think and Analyse the things in Wider; Grander, Higher and Holistic perspective. Apart from and in addition to all said and done required, five things are indispensable to be an IAS and all in equal measure : 1. Basic intelligence 2. In depth knowledge/hardwork 3. Over all development 4. Considerable command over the language 5. Role of invisible forces such as God, Divinity, Luck, Nature and Destiny. The basic intelligence means the capacity to; understand, analyse, grasp and apply the things. It also requires the inquistitive mind to know the things; to learn the things from wherever you can learn, whatsoever you can learn; howsoever you can learn. It means you shouldn’t remain confined to books only. Newspapers, journals, magazines, cinema, TV, seminars, workshops and even interactions should be the other sources to sharpen your intelligence. You should be reasonably prudent, logical, rational and pragmatic, and
Keep Regurgitating
? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? jaggo, khojjoo, samjoo, pao aspire and achieve strive and strike be realist and try the impossible avoid myths and misconceptions procrastination robs you off opportunity will planning perseverance lead to excellence use of time is very important utilization of energy and resources is more important introspect, investigate, examine and evaluate yourself consider and reconsider; decide and resolve; don’t falter and recoil arise, awake and stop not till the goal is achieved arise, awake or perish
Avoid Myths and Misconceptions
Try to be right here and right now. Forget the end; try to concentrate upon the means. The path to achieve this end is really very lengthy, tedious, cumbersome. There is no short cut. So before plunging into this battlefield, consider and Reconsider your Decision as Many Times as you can. But once considered and reconsidered, pondered upon & deliberated upon honestly and sincerely, then decide and resolve. Once decided and resolved, then don’t falter and recoil. Then go ahead; then don’t Boomrang and Backfire. Then don’t delay; delay means defeat.
Procrastination Robs you off Opportunity
Remember all succeed who deserve. You have to strive to deserve. So, Aspire and Achieve for that Strive and Strike. Will Planning Perseverance Lead to Excellence—Weigh yourself. Evaluate your potentials. Identify
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“Troubles, like babies, grow larger by nursing.”
philosophical as well as empirical and practical. Knowledge and Hardwork are the backbones of CSE. There is no escape route to it. There is no substitute to it. In order to gain requisite knowledge, everybody has to put in basic minimum requisite-labour proportionate to his/her basic intelligence. Knowledge simply doesn’t require donkey studies putting in unaccounted number of hours and going through a no. of books. No ! it is a widely prevalent misconception about CSE. It is a deeply embedded Myth. Knowledge means accumulation, assimilation and application of knowledge. For that it requires : Strategic, Guided, Qualitative, Organized, Consolidated studies. It can be accumulated and assimilated through mountainous labour, volcanic zeal, cyclonic spirits, never give up attitude rather do or die approach.
You can use it in different colours. You can’t anticipate the result. You cannot experience the intensity and gravity. For that avoid—Diversions and Deviations, Myths and Misconceptions, IFS and Buts, Triffles and Triffling People, Meaningless and meandering discussions, Gibberish Talk, Self conceit and self deceit, complacency. Be particular about—Company Association, Interaction. It can produce unimaginable results negative as well as positive.
Utilization of Energies and Resources is Very Important
Everyone is born with a different background. Everyone is brought up in different atmosphere, in a different manner. Everyone has got different educational background. So to say the family, social, economic, educational, mental background of everybody differs from other people. So everyone has to start his preparation from a different Plank. So the planning, strategy, amount of labour, span of preparation for everyone would be different. So you should be able to rationalize and differentiate the things which are within your control & which are not within your control. So you should remove your weaknesses and improve your strengths. You should try to make the best optimum use of your energies and resources and time at your disposal. For that avoid—Moaning and groaning, bragging and boasting, frailities and fluidities, frivolities and fallibilities, flickering and flippant attitude, flirt approach, insouciant spirits. Rather Make—Do or Die efforts. Make full, frantic and relentless efforts. Best use of time. Learn whatsoever you can : from wheresover you can; howsoever you can. Over all Development is the Most Fundamental Requisite of CSE. Your over all development; apart from and in addition to your bookish knowledge, constitute a number of things such as : Your thought process, Personality traits, Personal idiosyncrasies, Perceptions, Convictions, Vision. “You cannot have success without the failures.”
Assimilation is More Important than Accumulation
Lakhs of candidates accumulate knowledge. But few hundreds assimilate and apply knowledge and get selected. Mere rattafication cannot suffice. Donkey labour cannot yield the desirable results rather produce undesirable results. So for strategic, guided, qualitative, organized and consolidated studies you require Selfcontrol. Self-control basically constitutes : Utilization of time, channelization of energies and resources, avoiding diversions and perversions. Utilization of time means to put in your efforts effectively and properly. It requires systematic, disciplined, consistent preparation which further requires : Regularity, Punctuality, Honesty, Sincerity, Single mindedness, Whole heartedness, Devotion and dedication. These words are used indiscriminately; intentionally or unintentionally; advertently or inadvertently but you never make use of these words. Once you apply these words in letter and spirit and translate these into action, your life can get transformed. It can get a new meaning.
For that you require—Maturity, originality, simplicity, clarity, profundity, intensity, multidimensionality, multifunctionality of thoughts. And in order to develop such thought process try to conceive, perceive, think and do the things in grander, higher and holistic perspective. Avoid—Superficiality, Artificiality, Complexity, Hollowness, Foppishness, Pretensions and affectations. Rather try to be—Clear, intense, rich and profound in ideas and thoughts. Make healthy, prudent, logical, rational and deliberative discussion. Strictly avoid—Riffraff and rag tag. Seeking suggestion from each Tom, Dick and Harry. Intermingling with each and everybody. All it requires Repeated, Rational, Regular; Self introspection, Self evaluation, Self investigation, Self examination. Try to strike a balance in order to develop a Blend, harmony synthesis for composed, integrated, intense, multidimensional, multifunctional, versatile personality. Language is the only tool of expression in CSE. To have any substitute to it is simply impossible. From your common parlance up to CSE, language is invaluable and indispensable. Language simply doesn’t mean language, which is good for nothing. It means a language with good, considerable command over it. For that one has to develop virtual fascination for it. Only then it can be learned and commanded. With superficial knowledge of language you can’t command it rather you get commanded which can land you in no man’s land. Rather you have to make special efforts for that. CSE requires coherence of thought and language. For that you require well-grounded language with ample vocabulary in order to use appropriate words and terminology for appropriate ideas, views and things. Pithy and Profound language requires : Reading and Repetition. Writing and practice. Speaking Skill and their continuous practice for Rhetorical Finesse.
Continued on Page 1057
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International Relations Article Relation
United States and Iran : Relations of Unease
—Dr. Amresh Chandra
The contemporary relationship between United States and Iran is full of vicissitudes. Their foreign policies towards each other stem from decades of complex historical and political events. The Islamic Republic of Iran, a resource-rich and labour-rich country in the Middle East, is a central focus of U.S. national security policy. The United States asserts that Iran is a state sponsor of terrorism and that Iran’s uranium enrichment activities are for the development of nuclear weapons. Amid new calls for Washington to attack Iran’s nuclear facilities if its diplomatic efforts at curbing Tehran’s uranium-enrichment programme fail, the United States on 29 September, 2010 imposed unilateral sanctions against eight senior Iranian officials whom it accused of committing “sustained and severe violations of human rights”. This is a clear indication of hardening stand US is in all likelihood to take against Iran on account of its clandestine nuclear programme and alleged abetting to terror activities in Middle East and working against US interests elsewhere. On the sidelines of UN summit on the MDGs [Millennium Development Goals] bitter remarks from both the sides further vitiated the bilateral relationship. Iranian President Mohamoud Ahmadinejad told the U.N. General Assembly on 23 September, 2010 that U.S. statesmen were isolated in saying that al Qaeda militants carried out the suicide attacks that brought down New York's World Trade Center and hit the Pentagon outside Washington and called for a U.N. investigation. He said most Americans and others around the world believed the United States orchestrated the September 11, 2001 attacks to rescue its declining economy, to reassert its weakening grip on the Middle East and to save Israel. These comments prompted the U.S. delegation, all 27 European Union member states and several other delegations to assembly hall in protest. leave the arbitrary rule," which led to the ‘deeply anti-American character’ of the 1979 revolution. The 1979 Revolution—The 1979 Iranian Revolution, which ousted the pro-American Shah and replaced him with the anti-American Supreme Leader Ayatollah Khomeini, surprised the United States government, its State Department and intelligence services, which consistently underestimated the magnitude and longterm implications of this unrest. Six months before the revolution culminated, the CIA had produced a report, stating that Persia is not in a revolutionary or even a pre-Revolutionary situation. The Islamic revolutionaries wished to extradite and execute the ousted Shah, and Carter refused to give him any further support or help return him to power. The Shah, suffering from cancer, requested entry into the United States for treatment. The American embassy in Tehran opposed the request, as they were intent on stabilizing relations between the new interim revolutionary government of Iran and the United States. Despite agreeing with the staff of the American embassy, Carter agreed after pressure from Kissinger, Rockefeller, and other pro-Shah political figures. The move was used by the Iranian revolutionaries to justify their claims that the former monarch was an American puppet, and this led to the storming of the American embassy by radical students allied with the Khomeini faction. When Mohammad Khatami, a moderate leader, came to power in 1997, it was expected that the nuclear programme in Iran would receive less attention because of his interest in engaging Iran more in the international stage and in particular with the US. However, Iran worked on its nuclear programme more seriously during this regime and its drive became unrelenting in the post-2002
In response, US President Obama lashed out at Ahmadinejad for the latest of what the White House called a long list of outrageous comments that would deepen Tehran's isolation from the international community. "It was offensive and hateful," Obama said "And particularly for him to make the statement here in Manhattan, just a little north of Ground Zero, where families lost their loved ones, for him to make a statement like that was inexcusable." he said further.
Background
For over 100 years imperialist domination of Iran has been enforced by the U.S. and other powers through covert intrigues, economic bullying, and outright military assaults, even invasions. During World War II, Iran served as an important strategic partner for the U.S. and allied powers to defeat Nazi Germany. Following the war, the popular nationalist Prime Minister Mohammed Mossadeq ascended to power and took measures that threatened the Western powers’ interests in the nation and led them to fear a communist takeover in the nation. For instance, Mossadeq nationalized the Britishowned Anglo-Iranian Oil Company and limited the powers of the proWest Shah. With the help of the British, the United States staged a coup in 1953 that overthrew Mossadeq, returned the Shah to power, and ensured a pro-Western, anti-Soviet government in Iran. Prime Minister Mohammed Mossadeq was overthrown by a Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)-organized coup, in what has been called "a crucial turning point both in Iran's modern history and in U.S. Iran relations." Many Iranians argue that "the 1953 coup and the extensive U.S. support for the Shah in subsequent years were largely responsible for the Shah's
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“A casual stroll through the lunatic asylum shows that faith does not prove anything.”
period due to very prominent hostile foreign policies of the US directed against Iran. Iran’s new hardliner President Mahmoud Ahmadinejad came to power in 2005 and only a strong personality like him could keep the country focused on its nuclear goal. The US-Iran relation saw a new setback after he took over the regime. His hard-line rhetoric against the US and Israel, along with his determination to move along with its nuclear activity made Iran’s relationship with the US even more hostile. The Americans repeatedly warned Iran of military confrontation in the event that its resolve to build bombs continued. Today tension continues between them as Iran remains defiant with respect to the nuclear issue and America moves closer to a military strike on the former. Their Ties in the Recent Past— Iran’s protracted conflict with the United States started since the end of the Shah period and the Islamic revolution in the country in 1979. During this period, Iran’s leaders perceived the United States as the principal enemy of the Islamic states which supported their main enemyIsrael. Thus, in addition to having two protracted conflicts since the late 1940s and early 1950s with Israel and Iraq respectively, Iran developed a new protracted conflict with the US in 1979. Since then Iran had three enemies Iraq, Israel, and the US for the next 27 years. Although Iraq and Israel’s nuclear weapons programmes alarmed Iran and the Islamic Republic became anxious to develop a deterrent capability against Iraq with whom it fought one of the longest wars in the region, and Israel, whose existence in the Middle East Iran denies, the pace of its nuclear weapons programme was relatively slow till 2000. With the US administration taking aggressive foreign policies towards Iran since 2000, the latter’s security concern intensified. The Bush administration’s declaration of Iran as part of the axis of evil states severely threatened and humiliated Iran; the threat exacerbated with the administration’s war on Iraq on the pretext that it was in possession of weapons of mass destruction. A society that was and still is split on
many of the important domestic issues including democratization, modernization, and westernization, the Iranians remained united on the issue of nuclear weapons acquisition after the war on Iraq. US decision to attack Iraq without the approval of the United Nations proved that in the absence of a nuclear deterrent capability, Iran would soon be in the same position as Iraq and would be the US next target in the Middle East for being one of the axis of evil states. Consequently, Iran became relentless in its drive to acquire nuclear weapons and boldly announced its decision to enrich uranium so that the US is not confused about its possession of the nuclear capability. Improved and non-aggressive US policies towards Iran, which can be instrumental to ending the prolonged Iran-US conflict, can convince Iran to renounce its nuclear weapons ambition but it seems elusive. Even the new regime of Obama with some constructive intent towards Iran is unable to convince it [Iran] on the renunciation of nuclear programme. Obama Administration and Iran—The Obama Administration has adopted the long-standing assessment of Iran as a “profound threat to U.S. national security interests.” This threat perception is generated not only by Iran’s nuclear programme but also by its military assistance to armed groups in Iraq and Afghanistan, to the Palestinian group Hamas, and to Lebanese Hezbollah. In its first year, the Obama Administration altered the previous U.S. approach by expanding direct diplomatic engagement with Iran’s government and by offering Iran’s leaders an alternative vision of closer integration with and acceptance by the West. To try to convince Iranian leaders of peaceful U.S. intent, the Obama Administration downplayed discussion of potential U.S. military action against Iranian nuclear facilities and repeatedly insisted that it did not seek to change Iran’s regime. It held to this position even at the height of the protests by the domestic opposition ‘Green Movement’ that emerged following Iran’s June 12, 2009, presidential election. Iran’s refusal to accept the details of an October 1, 2009, tentative agreement to lessen concerns about its nuclear inten-
tions—coupled with its crackdown on the Green movement—caused the Administration, in 2010, to shift toward building multilateral support for strict economic sanctions against Iran. The Administration efforts bore fruit on June 9, 2009 when a U.N. Security Council was adopted (Resolution 1929) that required countries to take a number of significant steps against Iran, including banning major arms sales to Iran, and authorized a number of additional significant steps. The European Union, in July 2010, subsequently announced multilateral sanctions against Iran that use much of the authorities of Resolution 1929 and which also supports elements of U.S. legislations passed in June 2010 (the Comprehensive Iran Sanctions, Accountability, and Divestment Act). The new sanctions represent a rejection of a May 17, 2010, agreement brokered by Brazil and Turkey to implement major features of the October 1, 2009, agreement. Many observers assess that the U.S., U.N., and EU sanctions enacted in June and July 2010 are pressing Iran economically. However, because the sanctions have not caused Iran to fundamentally alter its commitment to its nuclear programme and might not ever achieve that objective, the Administration reportedly has revived deliberations of possible military action to try to set Iran’s nuclear programme back. Other options include methods to contain Iran if it does become a nuclear armed power. Some believe that only domestic opposition in Iran, which in late 2009 appeared to pose a potentially serious challenge to the regime’s grip on power, may provide a clear opportunity to reduce the potential threat of a nuclear Iran. Obama Administration officials appear to believe that the opposition’s prospects are enhanced by a low U.S. public profile on the unrest. Congressional resolutions and legislation since mid-2009 show growing congressional support for steps to enhance the opposition’s prospects. Others maintain that the prospects for the domestic opposition, which has been largely absent from the streets in 2010, are poor, and that other options are fraught with risks, and that the Administration should return to a
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“At times one remains faithful to a cause only because its opponents do not cease to be insipid.”
focus on reaching a nuclear agreement with Iran. What Washington fails to understand is that Tehran may be willing to renounce its nuclear programme if the former makes concessions and changes the course of its foreign policies pertaining to the Middle East in general and Iran in particular. Experts of the region are of the opinion that America “would need to fit the issue into a wider Middle East picture and find ways of making Iran feel less threatened. In return for cessation of uranium enrichment, or for more effective guarantees that it would not be used for a weapons programme, Washington could offer not only to lift all sanctions but also to drop calls for regime change and undertake not to meddle in Iran's domestic affairs; pull back its military presence in the region; and pressure Israel into surrendering or scaling down its nuclear arsenal. Israel talks about its defense against annihilation, but it might be such wider consequences of an Iranian nuclear programme that it really fears.”
doing. Instead, a congenial atmosphere must be created to have bilateral discussions between the two states to attain the nonproliferation goals and in exchange Iran must get security assurance from the US, stipulating that the Americans have no intention of attacking the Republic or imposing Washington’s terms on Tehran’s ideologically-driven government. These things can only happen if the US gives the Iranians a sense of security through changing its hostile policies. Times have changed and the US policy-makers must understand that sticks may not be the answer to some of the security problems in today’s world. Mistrust between the United States and Iran’s Islamic regime has run deep for almost three decades. Some argue that, no matter who is in power in Tehran, the United States and Iran have a common long-term interest in stability in the Persian Gulf and South Asian regions. According to this view, major diplomatic overtures toward the regime might not only help resolve the nuclear issue but yield fruit in producing a new, constructive U.S.-Iran relationship. Others argue that U.S. concerns stem first and foremost from the character of Iran’s regime. Those who take this view see in the Green movement the potential to replace the regime and to integrate Iran into a pro-U.S. strategic architecture in the region. Many argue that a wholesale replacement of the current regime would produce major strategic benefits beyond reducing the threat from Iran’s nuclear program, including an end to Iran’s effort to obstruct a broad ArabIsraeli peace. Others argue that many Iranians are united on major national security issues and that a new regime would not necessarily align with the United States. Some believe that many Iranians fear that alignment with the United States would produce a degree of U.S. control and infuse Iran with Western culture that many Iranians find un-Islamic and objectionable. For different reasons, the U.S. even more so must be judged by its performance, not its words. While Washington talks peace, it is fighting in Iraq, Afghanistan, Pakistan, and Yemen, vastly increasing its drone
attacks, and is now deploying Special Operations forces in 75 countries, 15 more than last year. And while Obama usually speaks softly he constantly wields—directly in Ahmadinejad's face—the big stick of a potential crushing attack by the U.S. and Israel, later an enemy of the whole Arab World. No state in today’s interdependent world wants to be treated unfairly and feel left out. It is the natural right of all states to protect its sovereignty, keeping in mind not to jeopardize international peace and stability which US should be mindful about. P.Darpan
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For that—Learn the fundamentals of grammar, try to develop a good sentence structure, improve your vocabulary as much as you can, consult the dictionary as many times as you can, keep the maximum thrust on reading. Apart from books of syllabi read journals, magazines, and newspapers. Practise writing, pen down the things from different sources, refresh them repeatedly. Try to develop communication skill in isolation if you hesitate to speak publicly. Once you get command over the language, then and only then you would understand the beauty and intensity of the language. It would give you a great boost. It would literally decorate your thought process. It beautifies your behaviour. It embellishes your expression and virtually transforms you. All of us have been assigned different roles by the nature to be performed at different stages of life in different walks of life. The nature is fundamentally and intrinsically good, fair and just. It believes in fairness, justice, goodness, fair play and equity. For that retribution of justice gets applied. We get what we sow. Labour never goes waste and honesty pays in the long run. These are aphorisms with deep hidden meaning of universal application. If you make honest efforts and put in requisite labour then you are bound to get the corresponding results. Just have faith in nature/God/Destiny and try to give the impeccable performance. You would definitely get impeccable results. P.Darpan
Conclusion : Need to End Protracted Conflict
As long as the US does not fashion a different style of foreign policy pertaining to Iran and terminate the protracted conflict with the former, it is unlikely for Iran to relinquish its nuclear weapons programme. While Iran may be compelled to suspend its programme due to international pressure and the fear of being subjected to more serious sanctions that might affect the civilians, such suspension will only be temporary and a permanent solution to this problem will only be a function of the termination of Iran-US protracted conflict [A general definition of protracted conflict (PC) given by Edward Azar is : Protracted conflicts are ‘hostile interactions’ which extend over long periods of time with sporadic outbreaks of open warfare fluctuating in frequency and intensity. They are conflict situations in which stakes are very high] The US policies need to be restructured based on this notion. It is no point putting pressure on Iran to suspend the programme. Neither is it a good idea to threaten Iran of war, which the Bush administration was
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“Be careful when you fight the monsters, lest you become one.”
Environmental Article
Environment and Sustainable Development
—Dr. Ram Naresh Thakur
Environment means everything that surrounds us. It includes places where we live in and things we depend upon. Our natural environment has both living and non-living things, sun, moon, sky, air, water, soil, rivers, mountains, land, forests besides plants and animals. All these things affect us and we depend on them directly or indirectly, as many other life-forms. Since environment is the basic source of life we must conserve and protect environment for the safety of our lives as well as its proper exploitation for the development of economy. constituents are found in certain quantity and ratios as well as there remains equilibrium within different constituents (elements). In special circumstances effects of undeserving, evil and injurious constituents increase. Consequently the environment becomes polluted and the creatures have to face its bad effects. The simple meaning of pollution is being polluted the environment or being fundamental change in the rational (coherent) structure of nature. With a view to definition, “Pollution means that undeserving change of air, water, soil (land) and sound (noise) etc. in their physical, chemical as well as bio-characteristics and in which there becomes harm to human beings along with other useful bio-creatures, animals, insects, trees in addition to plants. Healthy environment is the disciplined and balanced form of nature. Furthermore the disturbance of this discipline and balance gives rise to pollution.” Kinds of Pollution—Generally the classification of pollution is made on the basis of environment. It is divided as— (1) Air Pollution (2) Water Pollution (3) Soil (Land) Pollution (4) Sound (Noise) Pollution etc. Sustainable Development—Sustainable development is a pattern of resource use that aims to meet human needs while preserving the environment so that these needs can be met not only in the present but also for future generations. The term was used in 1987 by the UN’s Brundtland Commission which coined what has become the most oft-quoted definition of sustainable development as development that “meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of further concern for the carrying capacity of natural systems with the social challenges facing humanity.” As early as the 1970s sustainability was employed to describe an economy in equilibrium with basic ecological support system. Ecologists have pointed to ‘The limits to Growth’ and presented the alternative of a steady state economy in order to address environmental concerns. Environmental Sustainability— It is the process of making sure current processes of interaction with the environment are pursued with the idea of keeping the environment as pristine as naturally possible based on ideal-seeking behaviour. An ‘unsustainable situation’ occurs when natural capital (the sum total of nature’s resources is used up faster than it can be replenished. Sustainability requires that human activity only uses nature’s resources at a rate at which they can be replenished naturally. Inherently the concept of sustainable development is intertwined with the concept of carrrying capacity. Theoretically, the long-term result of environmental degradation is the inability to sustain human life. Such degradation on a global scale could imply extinction for humanity. The idea of sustainable development grew from numerous environmental movements in earlier decades Summits such as the Earth Summit in Rio, Brazil, 1992, were major international meetings to bring sustainable development to the mainstream. However, the record on moving towards sustainability so far appears to have been quite poor. The concept of sustainability means many different things to different people and a large part of humanity around the world still live without access to basic necessities.
Global Concern for Environmental Conservation
There are many global concerns for environmental conservation that may make our economy resourceful and prosperous in the long run. (a) Land (Soil), Water, Air, Sound (Noise) Pollutions and its Management (b) Environmental Awareness Programmes (c) Conservation Movements (d) Informal Environmental Education (e) Diversity of Flowers, Crops, Animals (f) Sustainable Development—How and Why ?
If we do not beware of these dangers as ecological imbalance, decreasing number of species etc. then natural imbalance will prevail. We will have to invite destruction in place of progress or development. Environmental Pollution and Human Life—All creatures depend on balanced environment for their growth, development and well arranged lives. In environment different constituents are found in certain quantity and ratios as well as there remains equilibrium within different constituents (elements). In special circumstances effects of different
Dimensions of Sustainable Development and Environment
The field of sustainable development can be conceptually divided into three constituent parts— (i) Environmental sustainability, (ii) Economic sustainability and (iii)
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“In heaven all the interesting people are missing.”
Socio-political sustainability. The Concept has included notions of weak sustainability, strong sustainability and deep ecology. Sustainable development does not focus solely on environmental issues. Consumption of Renewable Resources
(a) (b) (c) More than nature’s ability to replenish Equal to nature’s ability to replenish Less than nature’s ability to replenish
needs of the future generations. It is a process in which development can be sustained for generations. It affords to the future generation the same, if not more, capacity to prosper as the present generation has. In other Sustainability
Not sustainable Steady state economy Environmentally sustainable
State of Environment
Environmental degradation Environmental equilibrium Environmental renewal
Economists have focussed on viewing the economy and the environment as a single interlinked system with a unified valuation methodology. Intergenerational equity can be incorporated into this approach, as has become common in economic valuations of climate change; economics ruling out discrimination against future generations and allowing for the possibility of renewable alternatives to petrochemicals and other non-renewable resources, efficient policies are compatible with increasing human welfare, eventually reaching a golden rule steady state. Thus, the three pillars of sustainable development are interlinkages, intergenerational equity, and dynamic efficiency. The term ‘Sustainable Development’ is being widely used, as the world today has become very much concerned about the factors adversely affecting ecology and environment. The related issues like global warming, ozone layer depletion, droughts, floods, scarcity of fuel, fodder, pollution of air and water, soil erosion and deterioration of soil health, lowering of ground water and the like are engaging serious attention of people all the world over. India is no exception to the global phenomenon of ecological and environmental degradation. Among the various factors responsible for increasing ecological disturbance and imbalance and environmental pollution, unsustainable exploitation of natural resources is a major factor. Sustainable development may be defined as development towards meeting the needs of the present generation without compromising the
words the future generations should have at least the amount of resources for development as the present generation has. Thus, sustainable development focusses on ‘intergeneration equity’ in the exploitation of development resources and opportunities. The ultimate goal of all development is to bring about improvement in the quality of life in society. The task is to convert available resources into goods and services needed by society for improving its quality of life. Every generation of mankind ‘creates’ as well as ‘destroys’ certain amount of resources for its development purposes but the nature and rate of development in such that the rate of destruction of resources is greater than that of creation. If this trend continues beyond a century or so, it is apprehended that there would be not only no further development, but also there might be economic stagnation or even disaster. This is often referred to as ‘the limits to growth’. Thus, the present generation should either drastically curtail the exploitation of non-renewable resources or recycle at least as much amount of resources as it uses up so that the future generation also has equal chance to develop. The concept of sustainable development has another dimension environment conservation. Sustainable development is one which conserves nature and maintains ecological order—bio-diversity, thereby making life on the earth possible in future as at present. The problem of sustainability of development is a part of wider ecological problems which threaten life in general on the earth
today. It is not merely a problem of finding necessary resources for generation to come, but a problem of making human beings live in better harmony with Nature. After 20 years of the Stockholm conference, the Earth summit was held in June 1992 at Rio de Janeiro (Brazil) under the auspices of the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED). Thus, the Rio Earth Summit marks the twentieth anniversary of the setting up of the UNEP and it has thrown enormous light on the impending environmental disaster and has called for urgent action to avert it. For economists the concept of sustainable development is not a new one, but its reinterpretation in the context of environment protection is a fairly recent one. “The World Commission on Environment and Development” (WCED—popularly known as the Brundtland Commission) 1987, laid down the foundation for a debate on the meaning of ‘sustainable development’ and the role of environment on development. The commission defined the term ‘sustainable development’ in six different ways which were found to be conflicting to each other. However, the consensus emerged on “meeting the needs of the present generation without compromising the needs of future generations” as a basic definition of ‘sustainable development’. This is a simple but holistic concept of sustainability. It goes beyond the concept of environmental protection for the sake of future generations. Nobel Laureate Robert Solow who had embraced the nation of sustainability and defined it as making sure the next generation is as well-off as the current generation and ensuring that this continues for all time. Key to this view is that manmade capital (machines, buildings) and knowledge are substitutes for natural capital, particularly natural resources. The above approach to define ‘sustainable development’ is highly inadequate as it takes input sustainability as the basic and only require-
PD/December/2010/1059
“In truth, there was only one Christian, and he died on the cross.”
ment for the sustainable development of an economy. The other dimension of sustainability are not being speltout. Also, there is little convergence in the literature on sustainability. For example, according to Little and Mirrlus (1984, 1980)—“this (i.e., sustainability) is more a buzz word— probably derived from the environment lobby—than a genuine concept. It has no merit whether a project is sustainable (for over ?—just for a long time ?) has nothing to say whether it is desirable. If sustainability were regarded as a reason for rejecting a project, there would be no mining and no industry” (Little and Mirrlus, 1986, 1990). When we consider the total development process, the problem of environmental pollution and conflict between industrial development and environmental degradation become very serious. Combating poverty, improvement in demographic structure, change in consumption patterns, health, human settlement, pollution control, energy management, treatment of industrial wards, control of hazardous materials, and after all the input sustainability are the vital requirements for overall sustainable development of nations. Several countries have announced plans for emission cuts (Brazil, EU, Indonesia, Japan, Russia, South Korea, the US) or carbon intensity reduction (China, India). There are however, opening gambits to guess how far others would go. For instance, China’s offer of 40–45% reduction in carbon intensity by 2020 is a continuation of its already existing policy, which began in 2006. If other countries had expected more, China was not going to oblige. By 2020 the US aims to reduce emissions by 17% relative to 2005, which is way below desired levels (using the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change’s 1990 baseline, this means only 4% reduction). For rich countries as a whole, the IPCC recommends reductions of 25–40% by 2020; offers on the table amount to only a 12–19% cut. The absence of internationally enforceable mitigation commitments
means that the burden on climate finance will increase. Unilateral promises will depend on whether sufficient financing is available to achieve the scale of actions needed. So, who will pay ? The commonwealth Head of Government backed a BritishFrench proposal for a $ 10 billion fund to help developing countries reduce emission and adapt to a changing climate. Our View Point—In this way billions of rupees were spent over “Ganga Safai Pariyojna (The Ganges Sanitation Project)” by the government of India, but no discernible success came in hand. During the period of planned economic development not only in India but in the whole world, specially in developing nations, economic activities remained the causes for pollution of environment. But, no doubt, the economy itself remained its victim too. Both the people and the government have to search for measures and remedies to remove its causes at broader level.
The economy on the whole has the comprehensive responsibility in this respect. The Vision for the Nation— After about 60 years of planned economic development, the aspirations are mounting that India should become a developed country. How can we prepare ourselves to face this challenge ? The next 20 years is a period of technological transformation in India. New emerging economic and technological situations where there will be many new innovations, which can help us to develop. India is now standing at the gate of the knowledge society and with our skill development in the field of information technology what we need is an entrepreneurial as well as environmental push and an increase in our competitiveness. Our former President, A.P.J. Abdul Kalam appealed to the youths to plant at least 5 trees along with other devices. We can move the most powerful forces on the earth, under the earth and above the earth. P.Darpan
PD/December/2010/1060 “Insanity in individuals is something rare–but in groups, parties, nations and epochs, it is the rule.”
Indian Polity and Constitution
? Who said that Indian Constitution is a ‘bargaining federalism’ ? —Morris Jones
Indian National Movement
? The British Prime Minister Atlee
announced the withdrawal of the Britishers in the House of Commons from India on : —February 20, 1947 ? Who said, ‘India is for Indians’ ? —Dayanand Saraswati Who said, “One Country One God, One Caste, One Mind Brothers all of us Without Difference, Without Doubt” ? —V. D. Savarkar United India House organised Unity among Indians in the United States of America in : —the year 1910 Who in the year 1907 unfurled the first national flag at the International Socialist Conference in Stuttgart (Germany) ? —Madame Bhikaji Cama In 1906, to protest discrimination against Indians in S. Africa Mahatma Gandhi started : —Satyagraha at Johannesburg Subhash Chandra Bose was elected the President of the Indian National Congress : —in 1939 at its Tripuri Session Bal Gangadhar Tilak began his drive for new awakening among the Indians by publishing two newspapers in 1881 i.e., : —The Maratha (English) and Kesari (Marathi) Whom did the Britishers call ‘the Father of Indian disaffection and the biggest traitor’ ? —Bal Gangadhar Tilak Who established in 1893 the Society for the Removal of Obstacles to the Hindu Religion ? —The Chapekar Brothers
? In 1699, Guru Gobind Singh—
one of the prominent gurus and tenth guru of Sikhs established : —The Khalsa The founder of Sunga dynasty was : —Pushyamitra Sunga Which British Prime Minister sent in 1942 Cripps Mission to India ? —Winston Churchill Anekatavada is a core a theory and Philosophy of which religion ? —Jainism During the Indian Freedom Struggle why did Rowlatt Act passed in 1919 arouse popular indignation ? —It authorized the government to imprison people without trial Who founded the Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association ? —Mahatma Gandhi In the context of the Indian freedom struggle October 16, 1905 is well known for which event ? —Partition of Bengal Where did the Tebhaga peasant Movement occur in 1946 ? —Bengal Who was the first editor of the Yugantars ? —Barendra Ghosh
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? The Parliamentary System as
opted for by the Constitution of India is based on the principle of : —Cooperation and coordination between the legislative and executive organs
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? The chapter on Fundamental
Duties covered by Article 51-A under Part IV-A was added by : —The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976
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? Indian Constitution Envisages :
—A Dual Polity (Centre and States)
? Under which Article is the right
to freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion mentioned ? —Article 25 The duties of a Chief Minister with regard to the furnishing of information to governor are provided in : —Article 167
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? Part XX of the Constitution of
India covered by Article 368 mentions : —Amendments of the Constitution
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? Powers, authority and responsibilities of municipalities are laid down in : —Schedule Twelfth of the Constitution of India
Economic Affairs of India
? Whose name is associated with
formulation of Planning Strategy in Second Five Year Plan ? —Prasant Chandra Mahalanobis Bank Rate is the rate at which : —Reserve Bank of India lends money to Commercial Banks Who maintains foreign exchange reserve in our country ? —Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Which constitutional body is appointed by the President under Article 280 every five years to review Centre State financial relations ? —Finance Commission
? Concurrent List, freedom of
trade, commerce and joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament are the provisions mentioned in Indian Constitution. They have been borrowed from : —Australian Constitution “The State does not owe loyalty to any particular religion as such; it is not irreligious or antireligious; it gives equal freedom to all religions.” The definition as given by P. B. Gajendragadkar—a former Chief Justice of India is of : —Secularism
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History and Culture of India
? The founder of Sikh religion
Guru Nanak Dev was born in : —the year 1469
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PD/December/2010/1061
“It is hard enough to remember my opinions, without also remembering my reasons for them !”
? In November 2007, the Finance
Commission constituted by the President of India was : —Thirteenth
Science & Technology
? In the context of CO2 , emission
and Global Warming, what is the name of a market driven device under the UNFCC that allows developing countries to get funds/incentives from the developed countries to adopt better technologies that reduce greenhouse gas emissions ? —Clean Development Mechanism
? Central Institute of Agricultural
Engineering is located in : —Bhopal
? Borlaug Award is associated
with : —Agriculture
? The India Institute of Advanced
Studies is located in : —Shimla Meera Seth Committee was associated with : —the development of handloom industry As the census 2001, the population of India, on March 1, 2001, stood at : —102·87 crore located ? —Dewas (M.P.)
? The plant group which yields
Taxol belongs to : —Gymnosperm Poly house is used for : —Growing Plants
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? Second Green-revolution is related to : —Bio-technology Gandak Project is a joint project of : —Bihar and Uttar Pradesh For which desirable character is the transgenic crop golden rice produced ? —Vitamin A Rainbow Revolution is related with : —Green Revolution, White Revolution and BlueRevolution least quantity ? —Zinc
? In a dry cell (battery), which are
used as Electrolytes ? —Ammonium Chloride and Zinc Chloride
? Where is the Bank Press Note
?
Geography
(India and the World) ? The Himalayas were uplifted
from the : —Tethys Geosyncline
? Which types of waves are used in
a night vision apparatus ? —Infrared waves
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? Nitroglycerine is used as :
—an explosive
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? In the structure of planet Earth,
below the mantle, the core is mainly made up of : —Iron In the context of Indian wild life, the flying fox is : —Bat Pearl is mainly constituted of : —Calcium Carbonate
? In India the percentage of population below poverty line is : —Less than 30%
? Which is taken up by plants in ? Where was 1st Agriculture
University of India established ? —Pantnagar
? Sundarban was declared a World
Heritage Site because of its : —Mangroves Forests and Biodiversity
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? The Greenhouse effect gases trap
only the feat of : —Solar Radiation Cotton in India grows best on : —Black Soil
? By which process can the sea
water be converted into pure water ? —Reverse Osmosis The symbol of World Wildlife Fund is : —Red Panda an electric bulb because : —in a tube electrical energy is almost fully converted to light
Sports and Games
? Sanya Richards—a world famous
athlete is associated with : —Sprint
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? Lignite is a type of : ?
—Coal One horned rhinoceros is found in the states of : —West Bengal and Assam the Aravalli and the Vindhya ranges ? —Malwa Plateau Green Index has been developed by : —United Nations Environment Programme rivers which merge with : —Yamuna
?
? Who won the Rajeev Gandhi
Khel Ratna Award in 2008 ? —M.S. Dhoni (Cricketer)
? A flourescent tube is preferred to
? Free-style, Back stroke and
Butterfly are the styles of : —Swimming
? Which plateau lies between
? Who became the first Indian
woman Chess player to cross 2600 ELO rating ? —Koneru Humpy
? The inexhaustible
source energy of the stars is due to :
of
?
—Conversion of Hydrogen to Helium
? Archery is the national sport of :
—Bhutan
? Vinegar is an aqueous solution
of : —Acetic Acid
? The national sport of Indonesia
is : —Badminton
? Ken, Betwa and Chambal are the
Agriculture
? Apart from quinine, which other
herbal drug is used to cure malaria ? —Arteether “Man is the cruelest animal.” is associated with :
? Ambedkar Stadium in New Delhi
—Football
? Project Tiger in India was started
in : —the year 1973
PD/December/2010/1062
? Battery, Bunting and Catcher are
the terms associated with : —Baseball Gurmit Memorial Trophy is associated with : —Hockey (India) Gold Cup is associated with : —Football
? In which state is the Buddhist
Tabo Monastry located ? —Himachal Pradesh ? The Nobel Peace Prize 2007 was awarded to : —Rajendra Pachauri and Al Gore ? The Constitution of India is : —Partly rigid and partly flexible
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? Jawaharlal Nehru International
? The East India Company secured
the Diwani from : —Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II (1728–1806) ? Who wrote Raghuvansam, Kumarsambhavam, Malvikgnimitram and Abhigyan Sakuntalam ? —Kalidasa
Miscellany
? The founder of World Economic
Forum is : —Klaus Schwab
? Who established Hindu College
at Calcutta ? —Raja Rammohan Roy
? With which movement is the
slogan ‘Do or Die’ associated ? —Quit India Movement (1942)
? Who was defeated at Kannauj at
the hands of Sher Shah in 1540 ? —Humayun Indian President is elected by an electoral college consisting of :
C
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? Nicholas Piramal, Pfizer and
Zydus Cadila are all famous : —Pharma Companies The author of the book ‘The Audacity of Hope’ is authored by : —Barack Obama During the freedom struggle, Aruna Asaf Ali was a major woman organizer of underground activity in : —Quit India Movement (1942) With whose permission did the English set up their factory at Surat ? —Jahangir During which Five Year Plan was the Emergency clamped, new elections took place and the Janta Party was elected ? —Fifth Five Year Plan (1974–79) news is mentioned in the context of affairs of : —Sri Lanka Cape Canaveral, the site from which space shuttlers are launched is located on the coast of : —Florida largest inland saline wetland ? —Rajasthan
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—both Houses of the Parliament and State Legislatures ? The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of : —Rajya Sabha
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? Who founded Indian Association
on 26th July, 1876 in Calcutta ? —Surendranath Banerjee and Anandmohan Bose
? Linus Pauling received his first
Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1954 and the second in 1962 for : —Peace Sanskrit University has been set up at : —Ujjain India’s first atomic power plant station is : —Tarapur Atomic Power Station United Nations declared the year 2008 as : —The International Year of Sanitation Where is the famous Finger Lake Region located ? —United States of America Author of Nyaya Darshan was : —Gautam
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? In India which state has the
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Court Judge who voluntarily made his assets public is : —Justice K. Kannan
P.Darpan
As the Latest and All Comprehensive Books for All Competitive Examinations.
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? SGX is the stock exchange in :
—Singapore
UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA–2
PD/December/2010/1063
“No price is too high to pay for the privilege of owning yourself.”
: Republica Italiana (Italian Republic) Capital : Rome Official Language : Italian Territorial Area : 301,277 square kilometre Population Estimate : 5,91,31,287 (2007) Official Name Male Population (2007) : 2,87,18,441 Female Population Density per sq km : 3,04,12,846 : 196 square kilometre
Giorgio Napolitano : Italy’s Current President Silvio Berlusconi : Italy’s Current Prime Minister
Currency Expectation of (2003) President of Italy Prime Minister
: Life : : :
Euro (since Jan. 1999) Females 83·1 years, male 76·9 years 28,529 (PPP $) Giorgio Napolitano Piedmont, Valle d Aosta, Lombarde, Trentino—Alto Adige, Bolzano—Bozen, Trento, Veneto, Liguria, Emilia Romagna, Tuscany, Umbria, Marche, Lazio, Abruzzi Molise, Campania, Puglia, Basilicata, Calabria, Sicily, Sardinia. Rome, Milan, Naples, Genoa, Venice, Verona, Padua, Turin, Palermo, Messina.
UN Population Projec- : 59·03 million tion for 2010 HDI/World Rank : 0·941/20 Annual Population : 0·1% Growth Rate National Anthem Adult Literacy Rate (As per 2004 data) Male Literacy Rate Female Literacy Total Road Forest Cover Bank of Issue : Fratelli d’ Italia (Brothers of Italy) : 98·4% : 98·8% : 98·0% : 1,75,430 km in 2005 : 9·98 m ha (33·9% of total land area) : Bank of Italy (founded in 1893)
GDP per Cpita (2005)
: Silvio Berlusconi
Major Territories/ : Regions
Major Cities
:
Brief History
As per a prevalent legend, Rome was founded on April 21, 753 BC by Romulus who declared himself king after killing his twin brother Remus. In 616 BC the Etruscan dynasty of Tarquins gained control the Romans overthrew the Tarquins in 510 and established first Roman Republic. With the establishment of this Republic, the Roman Code—a collection of principles of political philosophy enshrining the sovereign rights of Roman citizens came. With incorporation of Spain, Rome became a dominant power in the Mediterranean. Julius Caesar— emerged as a leader, conquered Gual and declared southern Britain a part of Rome in 54 BC. His disregard for the Senate led to his legions being disbanded. Despite this development, he remained popular among the masses and returned to Rome as a hero. Ultimately, he was assassinated by members of the Senate on the Ides of
Map of Italy
PD/December/2010/1064
“One must have a good memory to be able to keep the promises one makes.”
March 44 BC. After Caesar's assassination, Octavian having defeated Mark Anthony in 31 BC was crowned the first emperor of Rome in 27 BC, assuming the title Augustus. Augustus reigned for 45 years. In AD 14 Augustus was succeeded by his stepson Tiberius whose era saw the rise of Christianity. Nero—the deranged and corrupt emperor assumed power in AD 54. It was he who persecuted Christians very cruelly and set Rome on fire. With his death the Julio-Claudian era came to an end. In AD 98 the Senate elected Trajan as emperor. Trajan expanded the empire with the conquests of Dacia (Romania), Mesopotamia, Persia, Syria and Armenia. Trajan was also responsible for great architectural projects. Trajan's successor Hadrian continued this programme of huge constructions. Rome began to lose control of its empire at the start of the 3rd century AD. In 1306 constantine became emperor. The other prominent rulers of Rome were Odovacar. Theodoric, Charlemagne, Frederick II. In 1796 Napoleon Bonaparte invaded Italy and declared an Italian Republic under his personal rule and laid the basis of modern Italy. Italian revolutionaries such as Genoan, Guiseppe and Mazzini an led the campaign against foreign rule. Mazzini’s secret society ‘Young Italy’ fought against foreign dominance. During the Nineteenth century Italians succeeded in getting liberated their motherland from the foreign and thus a unified Italy emerged on the world map. During first world war in 1914, Italy remained neutral. In 1919 Benito Mussolini founded the Italian Fascist Party bringing about the era aggressive nationalism. In 1921 Mussolini alongwith 40,000 ‘Black Shirts’ marched towards Rome to liberate it from socialists. In 1924, Mussolini’s Fascist Party won elections and Mussolini came to power by assuming the title of II Duce. Opposition was expelled from Parliament, Vetican was declared an independent state and Catholicism was declared the sole religion of state. There is long history of Mussolini’s cruel rule. But in 1945 Mussolini when he was trying to flee country was captured and shot dead. During the post war period, Alcide de Gasperi, Aldo Moro, Bettino Craxo are among the prominent rulers who ruled over Italy. Currently Silvio Berlusconi is at the helm of affairs.
Geographical Location
Italy is bounded by Switzerland and Austria in the north, by Slovenia and the Adriatic Sea in the east, by Ionian Sea in the Southeast, and by the Mediterranean Sea in the South the Tyrrhenian and Ligurian Seas surround Italy from the Southwest while France lies to the West of Italy.
Climate
The climate of Italy varies with south experiencing warm temperate with little rain in the summer. The northern Italy is cool temperate with rainfall evenly distributed over the year.
Mineral and Energy Resources
Installed capacity of power was 88,345 Megawatt in 2005 and the total power generated was 309·0 bn kWh (13·9% hydroelectric). Total consumption of energy in 2005 was 309·8 billion kWh. Oil production in 2005 was 6·1 m tonnes. Proven oil reserves in 2005 were estimated at 0·7 billion barrels. The production of natural gas in 2005 was 12·0 bn. cu. metres. With proven reserves of 170 bn. cu. metres. Italy is not rich in mineral production. Only sulphur and mercury produce surplus of exports.
Agriculture and Industry
Agriculture accounted for 2·6% of GDP in 2002. As per 2002 data there were 8·29 m ha of arable land and 2·78 m ha of permanent crops. Organic crops were grown in 1·17 m ha. in 2003. It is the third largest after Australia and Argentina representing 8·0% of all farmland. It may be noted here that Italy is the second largest producer of sheep’s milk after China. The Industry accounted 27·3% and services 70·1 of GDP in 2002; the leading companies of Italy are Eni (an integrated oil company) Intesa Sanpaola (US $ 90·0 billion) and Uni Credito Italiano (US $ 89·7 billion).
Major Tourist Places
As many as 43 sites in Italy have been included in UNESCO’s World Heritage List. The major tourist places worthseeing in Italy are—The Rock Drawings Valcamonica near Brescia Santa Maria delle grazie with the Last Supper by Leonardo da Vinci San Paulo Fuori Le Maura Historic Centre of Florence, Venice and its Lagoon, the Mantua and Sabbioneta Syracuse and the Rocky Neoropolis of Pantalica, Genoa, Val d’ Orcia the city of Verona, Villa Adriana, Cilento and Vallo di Diano National Park, Su Nuraxi di Barumini, Villa Romana del Casale, Cathedral Torre Civica and Piazza Grande, Modena, Trulli Alberobello, Crespi d’ Adda, Archaelogical Area of Agrigento, the 18th centuy Royal Palace at Caserta with the Park and the Historic Centre of Rome and the Rhaetian Railway in the Albula/Bernia Landscapes. P.Darpan
Constitution and Government
The Constitution dating from 1948 declares a democratic republic founded on work. Parliament consists of the Chamber of Deputies and the Senate; the Chamber of Deputies, elected for five years consist of 630 deputies. The Senate is also elected for five years term on regional basis having at least seven senators from each region. The President is elected in a joint session of Chamber and Sentate. The Speaker of the Senate acts as the VicePresident. It may be mentioned that efforts were made to create a new Constitution in 1998 but failed. There is a constitutional court consisting of 15 appointed judges vested with wide ranging judicial powers.
PD/December/2010/1065
“Talking much about oneself can also be a means to conceal oneself.”
Annual Report, 2009-10
Progress in Animal Husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries : In a Nutshell
Undoubtedly ! Animal Husbandry and Dairy Development plays a dominent role in the rural economy in supplementing the income of rural households, particularly the landless, small and marginal farmers. The contribution of livestock sector to the food basket in the form of milk, eggs and meat has been immense in fulfilling the animal protein requirement of ever-growing human population @ 1·9% annually. However, the contribution of livestock and fisheries sectors to the total GDP during 2007-08 and 2008-09 was 5·21% and 4·07 per cent, respectively. However (2009-10) Agriculture and Allied Sectors share remained 17% in India’s total GDP (Gross Domestic Products). India is endowed with the largest livestock population in the world. It accounts for 57% of the world’s buffalo population and 14% of the cattle (cows) population. As per the last (17th) Livestock Census (2003) done at each 5 years, the country has about 18·5 crore cattle and 9·8 crore buffaloes. However, the data for 18th Livestock Census, 2008 are not yet declared/published. The research and development (R&D) activities for 4 major constraints experienced by the farmers related to breed, feed, fodder and health care i.e., 4’ ing points (Breeding, Feeding, Heating and Weeding i.e., cickout diseased/ poor cattles) are under progress by the Deptt. of AH, Dairying and Fisheries (GOI). Based on the Annual Report (2009-10) of the Department of Animal Husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries—Ministry of Agriculture, Govt. of India–GOI, several R&D programmes & initiatives have been done, those can be highlighted as : overall charge of Minister of Agriculture (GOI) and the administrative head of the Deptt. is the Secretary (A D F—Animal Husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries). The Deptt. Secretary is assisted by AHC (Animal Husbandry Commissioner), 4 Joint Secretary and 1 Adviser (Statistics).
? FOREST — Stands/gives us : F = Food, O = O2, R = Rains, E = Environmental protection, S = Soil conservation and T = Timber. ?
4 major constraints in livestock sector experienced by farmers— The 4 constraints are related to breed, feed and fodder, health care and remunerative products price. The contribution of livestock Dairying and fisheries sectors to the total GDP was remained 4·07% during 2008-09, as against 5·21% during 2007-08, indicating decreasing trend. As per the ‘17th Livestock Census-2003’ (being done at each 5 years interval, however, the data of ‘18th Livestock Census2008’ are not yet announced)— the total livestock population was 485 million numbers (and 489 million no’s poultry), of which 185·2 cattle, 97·9 buffalos, 124·4 goats, 61·5 sheep etc. (all million no’s). Central Cattle Development Organisations—CCBF (Central Cattle Breeding Farms) are 7 in no’s in India namely; at Alamadhi (Tamil Nadu), Andeshnagar (U.P.), Chiplima and Sunabeda (Orissa), Dhamrod (Gujarat), Hessarghatta (Karnataka) and Suratgarh (Rajasthan). These centres are producing good quality cattle and buffalo breeds, like; bull calves from Tharparkar, Red Sindhi, Jursey, Hostein Friesian and cross breed cattle and from Surti and Murrah buffaloes. The CFSPTI (Central Frozen Semen Production and Training Institute) Hessarghatta (Karnataka)—a premier institute, produces frozen semen of cattle and buffaloes for use in AI (Artificial Insemination). During 2008-09, this institute produced 8·66 lakh doses of frozen semen and provided training to 277 persons in Frozen Semen Technology and Andrology.
Functions—Deptt. looks on all matters relating to livestock production, preservation, protection and improvement of stocks, Dairy developments as well to Delhi Milk Scheme (DMS) and NDDB (National Dairy Development Board). Deptt. of AH, Dairying and Fisheries (under Ministry of Agriculture) came into existence on Feb. 1, 1991 by merger of 2 divisions–Deptt. of AH and Cooperation viz., AH and Dairying Deptt–into a separate Deptt. Fisheries Division was transferred to this Deptt. on Oct. 10, 1997. National Agriculture Policy 2007—This National Policy for farmers focuses on improving the socio-economic status and well being of farmers, rather than just on production through changing the old attitudes and actions by enhancing their capacity to invest in farm related activities. The main goals of the National Policy for Farmers are : to protect land and water resources, improve biodiversity, proper adoption of farming systems for sustained increase in productivity, profitability to achieve Second Evergreen Revolution through strengthening the biodiversity of crops, farm animals, fish and FOREST trees.
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Livestock/Animal Husbandry Sector
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Major Achievements / Activities and Initiatives
Organisational set-up/Infrastructure and Functions of the Deptt. of A.H., Dairying and Fisheries (Ministry of Agriculture, GOI) ? The Deptt. of A.H., Dairying and Fisheries (GOI) is under the
PD/December/2010/1066
“The irrationality of a thing is no argument against its existence, rather a condition of it.”
Present Scenario of Deptt. AH, Dairying and Fisheries (GOI)
Animal Husbandry (AH)
? India’s rank in world : * Buffaloes—1st * Cattle and Goats—2nd * Sheep—3rd * Ducks—4th * Chickens—5th * Camel population—6th ? Livestock and Fisheries : Share in GDP (2008-09)—4·07% ? Livestock population (million No’s) (17th Census 2003) : * Cattle—185·2 * Buffaloes—97·9 * Total Livestock—485 * Poultry—489 ? Employment Generation : * 7% work force (Rural Areas) * 5·8% (Rural and Urban Areas) ?
Dairying
Fisheries
? India—the Largest milk producer ? India’s rank in World— in world * IInd fresh water fish ? Milk Production (2008-09)— * IIIrd fish producer 108·50 million tonnes ? Fish Production (2008-09) ? Milk availability—(2008-09) 258 Lakh tonnes g/capita/day (265 g) world * Marine—29·72 average * Inland—46·36 ? Wool production (million kg, * Total—76·08 2008-09)—42·7 ? Fisheries Sector—14·49 ? Egg Production (2008-09)—55·6 million people–livelihood billion no’s ? Growth in Milk Production— 4·3% annual
Semen production in India has increased from 22 million straws (1999-2000) to 46 million straws (2008-09) and number of inseminations has increased from 20 million to 44 million in respective year. So also, the conception rate has also increased from 20% to 35%. NBAGR (National Bureau of Animal Genetics Resources/ Researches) is located at Karnal (Haryana). Feed and Fodder Development : ? Optimum and efficient utilization of feed and fodder resources holds key to successful commercial livestock production. ? The cultivated fodder area is nearly 4·6% of the total cultivable area. The total area under permanent pastures and grasslands is about 12·4 million hectares; besides 15·6 million hectares is under wastelands, available for grazing. Poultry Development : ? Among top three countries of the world in poultry egg production, India is producing 55·6 billion eggs in numbers (2008-09)—as per Livestock Census-2003, and Rs. 422 crore were earned through export of poultry and poultry products.
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Polyclinics / Hospitals / Dispensaries—A network of 27,562 polyclinics / hospitals / dispensaries and 25,195 Veterinary Aid Centres is existed in the country, besides 25 Disease Diagnostic Laboratories. The Livestock Insurance—A full fledged scheme was approved on Nov. 20, 2008, in newly selected districts on regular basis. This scheme covers 300 selected distts from Dec. 10, 2009.
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Since 2004-05 to 2008-09 year, the average milk growth rate is 4·3%. IDDP (Intensive Dairy Development Programme)–Scheme modified in March, 2005 is being implemented in hilly and backward areas as well as in districts, which received less than Rs. 50 lakh for dairy development under ‘Operation Flood Programme’. NDDB (National Dairy Development Board), Anand (Gujarat) set-up in 1965, is promoting and strengthening the cooperatives, animal breeding, animal nutrition and feed technology, animal health, milk quality/procurement/marketing etc. National Dairy Plan—It is strategic plan with proposed quality of Rs. 17, 371 crore to achieve a target of 180 million tonnes of milk production annualy by the year 2021-22. DMS (Delhi Milk Scheme)— Set-up in 1959, is supplying wholesome milk to the citizens of Delhi at reasonable prices to milk producers. This has a capacity of 5 lakh litres of milk per day and has also developed a website : http//dms.gov.in Operation Flood—To promote milk production, the operation flood programmes–completed in 3 phases (last phase upto 1996)
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Dairy Development
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The per capita per day milk availability was 258 g in the year 2008-09, as against 265 g world average. This has to increase, because, it is below world average. During 2008-09, the milk production was 108·5 million tonnes. India rank First in milk production in the world, as well as represents sustained growth in milk availability and milk products for the burgeoning/ever increasing population @ 1·9% of the country. Milk/Dairying sector is an important secondary source of income of millions of rural families, say; it provides employment and income generating opportunities.
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PD/December/2010/1067
“The visionary lies to himself, the liar only to others.”
were started under Dr. V. Kurean, 1st Chairman/Director of NDDB, Anand (Gujarat) and ‘Father of India’s White Revolution’ in milk sector. Fisheries Development
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Bangkok, Thailand–an organisation under FAO. Special Fisheries Package for Suicide Prone Distts In states of Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Kerala, the special programme is under process.
3. In the livestock sector, the major constraints experienced by the farmers are— (A) Breed only (B) Breed and Health Care only (C) Remunerative prices for that produce only (D) Breed, feed and fodder, health care and remunerative price for that produce—all of these four 4. The First Chairperson—as Director ‘Father of White Revolution’ of NDDB (National Dairy Development Board) Anand (Gujarat)–a premier Institute (set-up in 1965) and a statutory body corporate declared in 1987; was— (A) Dr. (Ms.) Amrita Patel (B) Dr. V. Kurean (C) Dr. B. K. Joshi (D) Dr. W. S. Lakra 5. The National Bureau of Animal Genetics Resources/Researches (Deptt. of AH, Dairying and Fisheries, Ministry of Agriculture, GOI) is located at— (A) Karnal (Haryana) (B) Kanpur (U.P.) (C) Jaipur (Rajasthan) (D) Farah, Mathura (U.P.)
CIFRI (Central Inland Fisheries Research Institute) Barrackpore Kolkata, West Bengal)—Director Dr. A. P. Sharma : Fisheries Survey of India, Mumbai; Central Fisheries Research and Training Centre (A deemed University under ICAR), Mumbai; CICEF, Bangalore; CIFNET, Cochin; NIFPHTT, Cochin (Kerala) etc. Institutes are doing research and development (R&D) programmes related to fisheries development. N F D B (National Fisheries Development Board) Hq.–Hyderabad, was established in Sept. 2006. India is the Third largest fish producer and Second largest producer of fresh water fish in the world, presently (2008-09) producing 76·08 lakh tonnes fish, that provides livelihood to 14·49 million people in the country. About 7·75 lakh hectare water area was brought under scientific fish farming and 9·39 lakh fish farmers/fishermen were also trained in improved practices and 13·19 lakh persons benefited till 2008-09 under development of Freshwater Aquaculture. 7 fishing harbours, 62 minor fishing harbours and 194 fish landing centres have been takenup for implementation in various Coastal/States/UTs.
Summary
From the above progress made under the Deptt. of AH, Dairying and Fisheries (GOI) and the new Initiatives taken during 2009-10, it can very well be summarised in a nutshell that : (i) India is the largest milk producer (108·5 million tonnes during 2008-09) in the world, with 258 g/ day/capita milk availability against 265 g world average, recording 4·3% average annual growth rate of milk. (ii) The ‘Father of Milk Revolution’ and First Chairperson of NDDB, Anand; Gujarat, was Dr. Vargese Kurean and made a good contribution in milk sector. (iii) The attention is being made on major 4 constraints of farmers namely; Breed, Feed and Fodder, Health Care and Remunerative product price. (iv) India ranks in world livestock population-I (Buffaloes), II (Cattle/Goats), III (sheep), IV (Ducks), V (Chickens) and VI-Camel and so also III (fish) and II (Fresh water fish) producer. (V) Fisheries sector provides livelihood to 14·49 million people in India. Thus, in all, the research and development activities by the Deptt. of AH, Dairying and Fisheries are quite encouraging in respective various fields of livestock/dairying/fisheries.
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Answers
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P.Darpan
Other Activities
Empowerment of Women Women are actively involve in allied fisheries activities like; fish seed collection, mussels collection, sea weeds, fish marketing, fish processing and product development etc. Deptt. of AH, Dairying and Fisheries (GOI) is giving emphasis on training to women. International Cooperation IDA (International Dairy Association) since-2007; Animal Production and Health Commission for the Asia and the Pacific (APHCA),
Objective Questions
1. The per capita milk availability (g/day) in India (during 2008-09) remained as (compared to world average 265 g/day/capita)— (A) 258 (B) 150 (C) 125 (D) below 100 2. The contribution of livestock and fisheries sectors to the total GDP (Gross Domestic Products) during 2008-09 was— (A) 2·50% (B) 3·00% (C) 4·07% (D) None of these “To forget one’s purpose is the commonest form of stupidity.”
PD/December/2010/1068
Profile
International Organisation
ORGANISATION FOR THE PROHIBITION OF CHEMICAL WEAPONS (OPCW)
Established on — Headquarters — Member States — Official Languages — Type of Organisation
The Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW) is an international organisation located in the Hague Netherlands. The organisation promotes and verifies the adherence to the Chemical Weapons Convention which prohibits the use of chemical weapons and requires their destruction. The verification consists both of evaluation of declarations by members states and on site inspections. Logo of OPCW April 29, 1997 The Hague, Netherlands 188 Member States English, French, Russian, Chinese, Spanish, Arabic weapons. It is also the most expensive aspect of the convention’s implementation. Destruction has to be carried out at highly specialised facilities by adopting state of the–art technology to ensure that the risk to people and to environment is kept to a minimum at every stage. Non-Proliferation—Each state party shall adopt the necessary measures to ensure that toxic chemicals and their precursors are only developed, produced otherwise acquired, retained, transferred or use within its territory or in any other place under its jurisdiction or control for purposes not prohibited Ahmet Uzumcu under this convention. Assistance and Protection—All Director-General of OPCW members states have pledged to provide assistance and protection to follow Member States threatened by the use of chemical weapons or attacked with chemical weapons. International Cooperation—The organisation’s international cooperation programmes focus on capacity building for the peaceful applications of chemistry in areas which are relevant to the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC). Universality—Adherence to the chemical weapons convention demonstrates a state’s commitment to disarmament and international cooperation and helps to reinforce its position in the mainstream of international politics. National Implementation—The Secretariats’ implementation support programme helps States Parties to meet their obligations under Article VII of the Convention. This includes establishing National Authorities for effective liaison with the OPCW; taking necessary steps to enact legislation including penal legislation and to take administrative measures to implement the convention.
Chemical Weapons Convention
The Chemical Weapons Convention (The Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production, Stockpiling) and use of Chemical Weapons and on their Destruction aims to eliminate an entire category of weapons of mass destruction by prohibiting the development, production, acquisition, stockpiling, retention, transfer or use of chemical weapons by State Parties. The Preamble to the convention reads—The States Parties to this Convention—Determined to act with a view to achieving effective progress towards general and complete disarmament under effective international control including the prohibition and elimination of all types of weapons of mass destruction—Desiring to contribute to the realization of the purposes and principles of the Charter of the United Nations. A unique feature of the Chemical Weapons Convention is its incorporation of the challenge inspection whereby any state party in doubt about another State Party’s compliance can request the Director-General to send an inspection team. Under the CWC’s challenge inspection procedure, States Parties have committed themselves to the principle of any time, anywhere inspections with no right of refusal.
Responsibilities of OPCW
The Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW) is the implementing body of the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC or Convention) the OPCW is given the mandate to achieve the object and purpose of the convention to ensure the implementation of its provisions, including those for internal verification of compliance with it, and to provide a forum for consultation and cooperation among State Parties.
Structure of the Organisation
The principal body is the Conference of State Parties which is normally convened yearly and in which all countries participate and have equal voting rights.
Work of CWC
Demilitarisation—The most important obligation under the convention is the destruction of chemical
PD/December/2010/1069
“When one has much to put into them, a day has a hundred pockets.”
Countries are generally represented in the conference by a permanent representative to the organisation. The conference decides on all main topics regarding the organisation (e.g., taking retaliating measures) and the convention (approving guidelines. imposing retaliating measures against members. The Executive Council is the executive organ of the organisation and consist of 41 state parties which are appointed by the conference on a 2 years term. The Technical Secretariat applies most of the activities mandated by the Council and is the body where most of employees of organisation work. The Executive Council meets regularly for sessions and meetings. The Council’s practice has been to hold four to six regular sessions annually.
full compliance by all States Parties with all the provisions of the convention are necessary to the achievement of the global ban on chemical weapons. The Action Plan on the Universality of the CWC adopted during the 23rd Meeting of the Executive Council in 2003. Some of the items mentioned in the Action Plan include the designation of points of contact by States Parties, on a voluntary and informal basis, in all regions and sub-regions relevant for the effective promotion of universality, to assist regularly in the implementation of this Action Plan and for the purposes of effective coordination.
Subsidiary Bodies
The Chemical Weapons Convention provides for the establishment of three subsidiary bodies to aid the three main organs of the OPCW in their work : The Scientific Advisory Board, the Advisory Body on Administrative and Financial Issues and the Confidentiality Commission. The Scientific Advisory Board (SAB)—a group of independent experts—are mandated to assess relevant scientific and technological developments and report on such subjects to the Director-General. As a subsidiary organ of the Conference of the States Parties the main function of the Confidentiality Commission is to settle any disputes between States Parties related to confidentiality. The Advisory Body on Administrative and Financial Issues (ABAF) meets regularly to advise both the Technical Secretariat and the States Parties on issues relating to OPCW programmes and budgets. P.Darpan
OPCW Mission Statement
The mission of the OPCW is to implement the provisions of the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) in order to achieve the OPCW’s vision of a world that is free of chemical weapons and of the threat of their use, and in which cooperation in chemistry for peaceful purposes for all is fostered. In doing this ultimate aim is to contribute to international security and stability, to general and complete disarmament, and to global economic development. There are four broad aims underlying this mission—(i) To ensure a credible and transparent regime for verifying the destruction of chemical weapons and to prevent re-emergence while protecting legitimate national security and proprietary interests; (ii) To provide protection and assistance against chemical weapons; (iii) To encourage international cooperation in peaceful uses of chemistry and (iv) To bring about universal membership of the OPCW by facilitating international cooperation and national capacity building. Two fundamental principles underline this approach. The first is the centrality of the CWC’s multilateral character. The second is the equal protection of the provisions of the CWC to all States Parties. All work is guided and supported by the internal vision of this organisation.
Decision-making
In accordance with the Rules of Procedure of the Council adopted by the conference at its First Session, the Council generally take decisions on matters of substance by a two-thirds majority vote and a simple majority of all its members shall decide on questions of procedure. The one exception concerns the Executive Councils’ power to stop a challenge inspection from going forward. That decision can only be taken by a three-quarter majority of all the Executive Council members. In practice the Council has generally been guided by the principle of consensus and thus far has resorted to the vote on only on one occasion, in relation to an administrative matter.
Universal Adherence Weapons Convention
to
the
Chemical
The First Review Conference stressed the importance of universal adherence by all states to the convention, and of full compliance by all State Parties with all the provisions and requirements of the convention. The First Review Conference was convinced that Universality and
PD/December/2010/1070
“When you stare into the abyss the abyss stares back at you.”
Multiple Choice Questions
Current Questionnaire
1. The moto of Commonwealth Games 2010 was— (A) Come out and play (B) Jeeyo, Utho, Badho, Jeeto (C) We are all together (D) United world 2. Commonwealth Games 2010 Anthem was— (A) Jeeyo, Utho, Badho, Jeeto (B) Come out and play (C) One People, One Cause (D) None of the above 3. Which of the following was not the party involved in Ayodhya land dispute case of which judgement was recently pronounced by Lucknow Bench of Allahabad High Court ? (A) Sunni Waqf Board (B) Nirmohi Akhara (C) The Party for Ram Lalla (D) Vishwa Hindu Parishad 4. Which of the following countries were recently visited by President Smt. Pratibha Devisingh Patil ? (A) Laos (B) Cambodia (C) Both of the above (D) None of the above 5. With which of the following countries did India recently agree to set up a joint venture to co-develop and produce a new Multi-role Transport Aircraft (MTA) ? (A) Japan (B) Russia (C) U.S.A. (D) Poland 6. Which of the following committees recently probed misappropriation charges against Calcutta High Court Judge Soumitra Sen in the removal proceeding initiated by Parliament ? (A) B. Sudarshan Reddy Committee (B) Sri Krishna Committee (C) Meera Seth Committee (D) None of the above 7. India’s rank in Global Competitiveness Report is— (A) 41st (B) 31st (C) 51st (D) 21st 8. India recently signed a Pipeline deal with— (A) Tajikistan (B) Turkmenistan (C) Kazakhstan (D) Uzbekistan 9. India recently concluded final round of negotiations on a comprehensive economic cooperation agreement with ? (A) N. Korea (B) Japan (C) South Korea (D) U.S.A. 10. India has emerged in the world as— (A) Third most powerful nation (B) Second most powerful nation (C) Fourth most powerful nation (D) Second most powerful nation 11. The term Khymer Rouge which recently in news is associated with— (A) Laos (B) Cambodia (C) Malaysia (D) Indonesia 12. General Than Shwe who recently visited China is the military ruler of— (A) Thailand (B) Myanmar (C) Laos (D) Vietnam 13. Which of the following recently signed Arctic Border Pact ? (A) Russia-Norway (B) Norway-Sweden (C) Russia-Finland (D) Sweden-Finland 14. Veils (Burqas) were recently banned by— (A) English Parliament (B) French Senate (C) Swedish Parliament (D) Norways’ Parliament 15. Saudi Arabia has recently clinched Mega Arms Deal with— (A) European Union (B) U.S.A. (C) Russia (D) Japan 16. Where was recently a referendum held to support constitutional reforms ? (A) Iran (B) Iraq (C) Saudi Arabia (D) Turkey 17. Jiaolong which made a trip into deep sea recently belongs to— (A) U.S.A. (B) China (C) Australia (D) Russia 18. In World University Ranking which of the following has topped ? (A) The University of Cambridge (B) Harvard University (C) Yale University (D) University of Oxford 19. The highest suicide rate in India is in the state of— (A) Sikkim (B) Assam (C) Meghalaya (D) Tripura 20. P.J. Thomas is the new— (A) Central Vigilance Commissioner (B) Chief Election Commissioner (C) Auditor General of India (D) Accountant General of India 21. Justice Nissar Ahmed Kakru has been appointed as the New Chief Justice of— (A) (B) (C) (D) Andhra Pradesh Jammu & Kashmir Tamil Nadu Kerala
PD/December/2010/1071
“You need chaos in your soul to give birth to a dancing star.”
22. The 2009 Dadasaheb Phalke Award winner is— (A) Subhash Ghai (B) D. Ramanaidu (C) Sharmila Tagore (D) Amitabh Bachchan 23. Under the 57th National Film Awards, which of the following bagged Best Movie Award ? (A) Paa (B) Kutty Srank (C) 3 Idiots (D) Putaani Party 24. The best actor award has been bagged under the 57th National Film Awards by— (A) Amitabh Bachchan (B) Shahrukh Khan (C) Amir Khan (D) Salman Khan 25. The best actress award under the 57th National Film Awards for 2009 has been bagged by— (A) Rani Mukherjee (B) Vidya Balan (C) Ananya Chatterjee (D) Kareena Kapoor 26. The award for best director under 57th National Awards for 2009 has been conferred on— (A) Rituparno Ghosh (B) Amir Khan (C) Priyadarshan (D) None of the above 27. The 43rd Jnanpith Award 2007 has been conferred on— (A) Akhlaq Shahryar Khan (B) ONV Kurup (C) Arundhati Roy (D) None of the above 28. The 44th Jnanpith Award for 2008 has been bagged by— (A) ONV Kurup (B) Akhlaq Shahryar Khan (C) Sir Mota Singh (D) None of the above 29. National Education Day is observed on— (A) November 8 (B) November 11 (C) November 7 (D) November 6
30. International Day for Tolerance is observed on— (A) November 8 (B) November 9 (C) November 16 (D) November 23 31. Climatopolics : How our cities Will Thrive in the Hotter Future’ is the book written by— (A) Mathew Kahn (B) Mahmood Farooqui (C) Philip Dray (D) Barack Obama 32. Who has been named as President-Elect of BCCI ? (A) Sharad Pawar (B) N. Srinivasan (C) Chirayu Amin (D) Shashank Manohar 33. The winner of recently-held Champions League Twenty-20 Tournament is— (A) Chennai Super Kings (B) Eastern Cape Warriors (C) Both jointly (D) None of the above 34. The winner in US Open 2010 (Tennis Championship) for men’s singles title is— (A) Roger Federer (B) Rafael Nadal (C) Novak Djokovik (D) Bob Bryan 35. The winner in US Open 2010 (Tennis Championship) for women’s singles title is— (A) Kim Clijsters (B) Vera Zvonareva (C) Liezel Huber (D) Kveta Peschke 36. Mary Kom of India won recently World Boxing Championship Title for the successive— (A) Fourth time (B) Fifth time (C) Sixth time (D) Third time 37. Pankaj Advani has recently bagged National Snooker Title for— (A) Fourth time (B) Fifth time (C) Third time (D) Second time
38. Who recently clinched Italian Grand Prix and Singapore Grand Prix ? (A) Fernando Alonso (B) Sebastian Vettel (C) Casey Stoner (D) None of the above 39. Sushil Kumar of India recently became the first Indian to grab gold medal in— (A) World Wrestling Championship (B) World Boxing Championship (C) World Swimming Championship (D) None of the above 40. Which of the following Indians has been forecast to be the richest man in the world in 2014 by Forbes magazine ? (A) Mukesh Ambani (B) Ratan Tata (C) Anil Ambani (D) Azim Premji
Answers with Explanations
Continued on Page 1074
PD/December/2010/1072
“There is always some madness in love. But there is also always some reason in madness.”
Current Objective Questions
Trade and Industry
1. The new Chairman and Managing Director of National Housing Bank who took charge on September 15, 2010 is— (A) R. V. Verma (B) S. Sridhar (C) A. N. Tiwari (D) L. Radhakrishnan 2. Nobel for Economics 2010 has been shared by— (A) Two British and one US Economists (B) Two US and one British Economists (C) One US and one British Economists (D) All three US Economists 3. ‘Company of the Year’ award in Economic Times Corporate Excellency Awards 2010 goes to— (A) Maruti Suzuki (B) Renuka Sugars (C) L & T (D) Mahindra and Mahindra 4. ‘Tourism and Bio-diversity’ is/ was the theme of World Tourism Day (September 27) for the year— (A) 2009 (B) 2010 (C) 2011 (D) 2012 5. As per first advance estimates of Kharif crops for the year 2010-11 given by Agriculture Ministry, the total foodgrains have been estimated at— (A) 103·84 MT (B) 112·63 MT (C) 114·63 MT (D) 118·63 MT 6. Which of the following key rate has not been altered by RBI since 2003 ? (A) Bank Rate (B) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (C) Cash Reserve Ratio (D) Repo Rate 7. On October 15, 2010 government has launched the new NELP round for allocation, which is numbered as— (A) NELP-VII (B) NELP-VIII (C) NELP-IX (D) NELP-X 8. In Global Hunger Index 2010 released by International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI), India has been placed at— (A) 65th Rank (B) 66th Rank (C) 67th Rank (D) 68th Rank 9. In newly proposed Direct Tax Code the highest rate of individual income tax has been put at— (A) 20 per cent (B) 25 per cent (C) 30 per cent (D) 35 per cent 10. ‘BAFTA’ award is associated with— (A) Banking sector (B) Cinema (C) Insurance Sector (D) Tourism 11. Which of the following day has been declared as Income Tax Day ? (A) 18 July (B) 24 July (C) 16 August (D) 1 September 12. Which of the following public sector company has launched IPO in the share market to raise 15000 crore target ? (A) NTPC (B) Coal India Ltd. (C) BHEL (D) ONGC 13. For the session 2010-11 the new President of Indian Banks Association is— (A) Chanda Kochchar (B) Shikha Sharma (C) O. P. Bhatt (D) R. V. Verma 14. According to the Asian Development Bank Report for Urbanisation, India ranks at— (A) 10th Place (B) 26th Place (C) 34th Place (D) 39th Place 15. How many Indian Women have been included in the Forbes’ list of Top100 Powerful Women of the World ? (A) Only 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 16. RBI has divested its 71·5% share in NABARD to the government which reduces RBI’s holding in NABARD to— (A) Only one per cent (B) Only five per cent (C) Only 7·5 per cent (D) Only 10 per cent 17. RBI has decided to issue the new coins with ‘Commonwealth Games 2010-Delhi’ theme. The dominations of these coins will be— (A) (B) (C) (D) 1, 2 and 5 1 and 2 2 and 5 5 and 10
18. Which of the Rabi crop gets the maximum enhancement in Minimum Support Price for the year 2010-11 (to be marketed in 2011-12) ? (A) Wheat (B) Barley (C) Masoor Dal (D) Safflower Oilseed 19. For the crop season 2009-10, the MSP of wheat was fixed at 1100 per quintal. For the crop season 2010-11 it has been declared at— (A) (B) (C) (D) 1120 per quintal 1150 per quintal 1180 per quintal 1200 per quintal
20. Asian Development Bank has approved $ 132 million to Bihar for the development of— (A) Rural Roads (B) Electricity System (C) Primary Education (D) Child Health and Nutrition
PD/December/2010/1073
“Poets are shameless with their experiences: they exploit them.”
21. After the decision of Bombay High Court, the Income Tax department has levied the revised tax liability on Vodafone of the value ? (A) 12000 crore (B) 11900 crore (C) 11218 crore (D) 11000 crore 22. Which of the following state has registered the maximum growth in Gross State Domestic Product in the year 2009-10 ? (A) Chhattisgarh (B) Kerala (C) Gujarat (D) Goa 23. World Investment Report is annually published by— (A) IBRD (B) WTO (C) IMF (D) UNCTAD 24. Which of the following Indian Private Company is the biggest employer ? (A) TCS (B) Reliance Industries (C) Wipro (D) ITC 25. Which of the following Indian Company gets the highest rank among Indian Companies included in Forbes-500 list for the year 2010 ? (A) ONGC (B) Indian Oil Corporation (C) Reliance Industries Ltd. (D) ONGC 26. What is the maximum investment limit for retail investors in any public issue as per the rules of SEBI ? (A) 50000 (B) 1,00000 (C) 2,00000 (D) 5,00000 27. Which of the following country has declared Broadband Service as the fundamental right in the country ? (A) Britain (B) Denmark (C) Finland (D) United States of America 28. Information Technology Act in India was introduced in the year— (A) 2000 (B) 2001 (C) 2002 (D) 2003
29. Shikha Sharma recently included in Forbes’ Top100 Powerful Women of the World list is associated with— (A) ICICI Bank (B) AXIS Bank (C) HDFC Bank (D) HSBC 30. Which of the following Petroleum product is fully under market-based price determination policy ? (A) Petrol (B) Diesel (C) Petrol, Diesel both (D) Petrol, Diesel and Kerosene
Answers
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Continued from Page 1072
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PD/December/2010/1074
“What is done out of love always takes place beyond good and evil.”
Q. 1. Answer the following 20 questions in one or two lines each : (A) Swami Vivekanand (B) Rani Lakshmi Bai (C) Reason for partition of Bengal in 1905 (D) Great Mountain wall of North (E) Population Density (F) State animal of Madhya Pradesh (G) Write the names of the latest five Chief Ministers of Madhya Pradesh. (H) Why is Rani Durgawati famous ? (I) Classify Madhya Pradesh on the basis of climate. (J) Explain the meaning of SMEs in India. (K) What is the common point in Articles 14 and 226 of Indian Constitution ? (L) How is the Election Commission of India constituted ? (M) What is Home Rule Movement (N) What do you mean by ‘Mixed Economy’ ? (O) What is ‘Hyde Act of 2006’ ? (P) What was Uruguay Round ? (Q) What is Yellow Revolution ? (R) What is vision 2020 for India ? (S) Why is C. K. Naidu famous ? (T) Why are Khajuraho temples famous ? Ans.
PD/December/2010/1075
Q. 2. Write short notes on any six of the following (100 words each)— (i) Impact of 1857 Revolt (ii) ‘Population description on the basis of religion’ released on December 9, 2004. (iii) Historical background of Indian Constitution. (iv) White Revolution Operation Flood of India. nd
(v) Jinnah and Muslim League (vi) Functions of Asian Development Bank (vii) Sardar Sarovar Project (viii) New Sports Policy of Madhya Pradesh Ans.
PD/December/2010/1076
Q. 3. Write notes on any four of the following : (i) Contribution of Madhya Pradesh in the struggle for independence. (ii) Naxalite movement in India (iii) Passing of Rowlatt Act and Jalianwala Bagh massacre. (iv) Recent estimates of economic growth rate in India by IMF and World Bank. (v) Soils of Madhya Pradesh (vi) Main points of new tourism policy of Madhya Pradesh. Ans.
PD/December/2010/1078
Q. 4. Answer any three of following questions : (i) Evaluate the contribution of Subhash Chandra Bose in the Indian Freedom Movement. (ii) Evaluate the steps taken by Central Government on the front of internal security. (iii) What is “Agreement on Agriculture” ? Why Doha Round Summit could not arrive at a final solution on this issue ? (iv) Explain the role of SocioReligious reforms in the 19th century. Ans.
PD/December/2010/1079
OR What is Global Financial Crisis ? How has it affected the economy of America and India ? Ans.
Q. 5. Write an essay on any one of the following : What is the problem of ragging in educational institutions of India ? Discussing the recommendations of Raghavan Committee, clarify how educational institutions contribute to stop Ragging. OR What do you know about ‘Right to Information’ Act ? How far is this Act able to control the corruption ?
PD/December/2010/1080
Solved Paper
UTTAR PRADESH G.I.C. FOR LECTURER SCREENING EXAM., 2009
Civics (Political Science) and General Studies
PART-I
Political Science
1. The theory of Natural Rights holds that— (A) Rights are a divine creation (B) Rights came from pre-civil society (C) Rights were granted by the king (D) Rights are granted by the Constitution 2. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below— Assertion (A) : The Marxist view of freedom is different from liberal individualist view of freedom. Reason (R) : According to Marxist view, freedom is not something that an individual can enjoy in isolation. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 3. Who among the following supports the principle of natural inequality ? (A) Polybius (B) Cicero (C) Rousseau (D) Plato 4. The ideal of ‘positive liberty’ was first conceived by— (A) Aristotle (C) Green (B) Hegel (D) Laski
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
List-I Justice is the interest of stronger. Justice is doing one’s own work which is in consonance with one’s own nature. Public utility is the sole origin of Justice. Justice means judicious distribution of primary goods. List-II
Assertion (A) : Justice is highest good of political life. Reason (R) : Justice provides man his due and sets right wrongs either by compensation or by punishment. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 10. The liberal thinker who had put forward the theory of “Social Engineering” is— (A) C. B. Macpherson (B) Karl J. Popper (C) John Rawls (D) L. T. Hobhouse 11. By the materialistic interpretation of history Marx explains— (A) The course of remains unchanged history
1. Rawls 2. Thrasymachus 3. Plato 4. Hume Codes : (a) (b) (c) (A) 1 2 3 (B) 2 4 1 (C) 3 2 4 (D) 2 3 4
(d) 4 3 1 1
6. The best adjustment of liberty and equality can be achieved in a regime of— (A) Liberalism (B) Socialism (C) Democratic Socialism (D) Idealism 7. “Political liberty without economic liberty is a myth.” Who has made this statement ? (A) Aristotle (B) T. H. Green (C) J. S. Mill (D) H. J. Laski 8. “The passion for equality made vain the hope for liberty.” Who has made this statement ? (A) J. S. Mill (B) Jeremy Bentham (C) V. I. Lenin (D) Lord Acton 9. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
(B) The course of history is determined by the leaders of society (C) The course of history is determined by the consciousness of men (D) The course of history is determined by the mode of production 12. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below— Assertion (A) : Marx is the only writer whose works can be termed scientific. Reason (R) : Where Marxism ends, Anarchism begins.
5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer, using the codes given below—
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Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 13. Who is the author of the famous book ‘History of Early Institutions’ ? (A) Proudhan (B) Maxey (C) Machiavelli (D) Sir Henry Maine 14. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below— Assertion (A) : Gandhi was against using the impure means. Reason (R) : According to him, impure means do not help in achieving the ends. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 15. If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, then whose decision is final ? (A) President’s decision (B) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court’s decision (C) Auditor and Comptroller General of India’s decision (D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha’s decision 16. Which of the following attributes of Gandhian theory of NonViolence are correct ? Select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. It is not passivity. 2. Its basic principle is truth. 3. It is the weapon of the weak. 4. It is a means of mass participation.
Codes : (A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4 17. Which of the following was not on the agenda of Non-cooperation Movement ? (A) To boycott foreign goods (B) To boycott law courts (C) To defy the laws of the land (D) To boycott elections under the Government of India Act, 1919 18. The alternative to socialism in Gandhian Philosophy is— (A) Non-violence (B) Trusteeship (C) Panchayati Raj (D) Truth 19. Which of the following books has not been written by Marx ? (A) The Communist Manifesto (B) Das Capital (C) Wealth of the Nations (D) The Critique of Political Economy 20. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below— Assertion (A) : There is no stable party system in India. Reason (R) : Indian political parties reflect the complexity of Indian society. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 21. Which one of the following is not a demerit of party system ? (A) Parties fight for their own interest (B) Party system destroys the individuality of man (C) Parties produce unnatural divisions (D) Parties harmonise the organs of Government
22. Which of the following statements are correct ? Select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. Pressure groups are different from Political parties. 2. Political parties and Pressure groups do not differ. 3. Pressure groups do not contest elections. 4. Pressure groups do not try to capture political power directly. Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 3, 2 and 4 23. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer, using the codes given below— (a) (b) (c) (d) List-I Charles Mariam M. P. Follet Arthur Bentley A. Appadorai
List-II 1. The Process of Government 2. The Substance of Politics 3. The New State 4. New Aspect of Politics Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 1 4 3 (C) 3 4 2 1 (D) 4 3 1 2 24. “Never has any one ruled on earth by basing his rule essentially other than the public opinion.” Who has made this statement ? (A) Jose Ortegag Gassel (B) J. S. Mill (C) Lord Bryce (D) Morris Ginsberg 25. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below— Assertion (A) : Political parties are the lifeline of Modern Politics. Reason (R) : Political Parties came into existence with the
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growth and development of representative institutions and expansion of suffrage. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 26. Who among the following tried to establish co-relation between party system and electoral system ? (A) H. J. Laski (B) M. Duverger (C) H. M. Finer (D) Lord Bryce 27. Who describes the pressure groups as the Third House of the Legislature ? (A) Lord Bryce (B) H. M. Finer (C) G. D. H. Cole (D) Dicey 28. “The State in which all authority and powers are vested in a single centre, whose will and agents are legally omnipotent over the whole area” is known as— (A) Unitary Government (B) Federal Government (C) Parliamentary Government (D) Presidential Government 29. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below— Assertion (A) : A federal system invariably provides for an independent judiciary. Reason (R) : It settles the disputes between the centre and the constituent units. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 30. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below— Assertion (A) : The growing strength of Central Government in a federal set-up is natural. Reason (R) : Five factors contribute to the growth of a powerful centre in the federation, namely, war politics, depression politics, Techno-politics, Grantsin-Aid politics and party politics. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 31. In Presidential Government, the President is— (A) Independent of the Legislature (B) Dependent on the Legislature (C) Dependent on the Judiciary (D) Bound by the advice of Council of Ministers 32. A Parliamentary Government cannot function without— (A) Written Constitution (B) Rigid Constitution (C) Political Parties (D) Independent Judiciary 33. Members of the Executive under Presidential System of Government— (A) Are drawn both the Houses of Legislature (B) Are taken from the popular House (C) Are not members of either House of Legislature (D) Become members of Legislature after their appointment as Ministers
34. Governments are classified as Parliamentary and Presidential on the basis of— (A) Relations between the Centre and the States (B) Relations between the Legislature and the Executive (C) Relations between the Executive and the Judiciary (D) All of the above 35. Who has opined that, “The Constitution limits the arbitrary actions of the Government” ? (A) Dicey (B) Rousseau (C) Garner (D) Strong 36. “A State without a Constitution would not be a State, but a regime of anarchy.” This is stated by— (A) Aristotle (B) Bryce (C) Jellineck (D) Dicey 37. Which of the following is not a feature of Unitary System of the Government ? (A) Administrative unity (B) Administrative empowerment (C) National unity (D) A coordination between national unity and Local self administration 38. Who raised the demand for ‘Swarajya’ for the first time through his writings ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy Ram Krishna Param Hans Swami Vivekanand Swami Dayanand Saraswati
39. During Civil Disobedience Movement, soldiers of Garhwal Regiment refused to fire on demonstrators at— (A) Amritsar (B) Dehradun (C) Nainital (D) Peshawar 40. Commenting on the sudden suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement in February 1922, who among the following remarked— “To sound the order of retreat just when public enthusiasm was reaching the boiling point was nothing short of a national calamity” ?
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(A) Motilal Nehru (B) Subhash Chandra Bose (C) C. R. Das (D) Mohammad Ali 41. Who wrote the book, ‘India Divided’ ? (A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (B) M. A. Jinnah (C) Sardar Patel (D) Shyama Prasad Mukherji 42. Whose time has been described as the ‘Seedling time of Indian Nationalism’ ? (A) Lord William Bentinck (B) Lord Rippon (C) Lord Lytton (D) Lord Curzon 43. By whom was the ‘Objectives Resolution’ presented in the Constituent Assembly of India ? (A) B. R. Ambedkar (B) G. B. Pant (C) Sardar Patel (D) Jawaharlal Nehru 44. Mahatma Gandhi’s first experience with mass movement in India was at— (A) Champaran (B) Bardoli (C) Chauri-chaura (D) Dandi 45. The Swadeshi Movement was launched— (A) As a protest against the partition of Bengal in 1905 (B) Following division of Congress in 1907 (C) Following Session the Lucknow
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Nehru Report Simon Commission Report Cripps Proposal Cabinet Mission Plan
48. Who was the first Woman President of Indian National Congress ? (A) Smt. Sarojini Naidu (B) Smt. Annie Besant (C) Smt. Kamla Nehru (D) Smt. Indira Gandhi 49. When was Mahatma Gandhi President of the Indian National Congress ? (A) 1923 (B) 1924 (C) 1925 (D) 1926 50. Who described for the first time, the revolt of 1857 as “The First War of Indian Independence” ? (A) V. D. Savarkar (B) R. C. Majumdar (C) Bipin Chandra (D) Sir John Lawrence 51. What was the real objective behind the ‘Partition of Bengal’ ? (A) Create a division among the ranks of Indian Nationalists (B) Stop the tide of Nationalism in Bengal (C) Build up separate Administrative units for better efficiency of administration (D) Appease the large majority of Muslims 52. The place where Navy openly revolted in 1946 against British rule in India is— (A) Bombay (Mumbai) (B) Calcutta (C) Madras (D) Cochin 53. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below— Assertion (A) : The Indian Independence Act, 1947 ended the British rule in India. Reason (R) : The Indian Independence Act, 1947 laid down a new constitution for India providing for every detail.
Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 54. Who among the following is called, “The Prophet of Indian Nationalism and Father of modern India.” ? (A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (B) Swami Vivekanand (C) Mahatma Gandhi (D) Jawaharlal Nehru 55. Which of the following statements about the Vice-President of India are correct ? Select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. He is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 2. He must be member of the Rajya Sabha for his election as Vice-President. 3. He is elected by the members of both the Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies. 4. If the President resigns or dies, the Vice President officiates as President for not more than six months. Codes : (A) 1 and 4 (C) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 (D) 3 and 4
(D) To mark the entry of Mahatma Gandhi in National Movement 46. Who among the following moderate leaders had been called, ‘a silver tongued orator’ ? (A) Dadabhai Naoroji (B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (C) Madan Mohan Malaviya (D) M. G. Ranade 47. Which one of the following proposed a three-tier polity for India ?
56. Who of the following linked the Directive Principles with a cheque payable at the convenience of the Bank ? (A) A. K. Aiyar (B) H. Kunzru (C) H. V. Kamath (D) K. T. Shah 57. Who among the following was elected President of India with second preference votes ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 58. Gyani Zail Singh Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy Zakir Hussain V. V. Giri
Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution put limi-
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tation on Legislative powers of Parliament and State Legislatures ? (A) Article 13 (B) Article 245 (C) Article 246 (D) All of the above 59. Which prominent leader had opposed the Champaran Satyagrah of 1917 because it was led by Mahatma Gandhi ? (A) N. G. Ranga (B) T. K. Madhavan (C) Champak Raman Pillai (D) E. M. S. Namboodiripad 60. Who among the following has the right to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of the Parliament without being a member of the Parliament ? (A) Solicitor-General of India (B) Attorney-General of India (C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India (D) Chief Justice of India 61. The guardianship of Indian Constitution is vested in— (A) The President (B) The Cabinet (C) The Lok Sabha (D) The Supreme Court 62. “India that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.” The word ‘Union’ is derived from the Constitution of— (A) U. S. A. (B) Switzerland (C) Canada (D) Australia 63. The President of India can be removed from his office by— (A) The Prime Minister (B) The Parliament (C) The Supreme Court (D) The Chief Election Commissioner 64. A Federal Court was established in India under the Act of— (A) 1892 (B) 1909 (C) 1919 (D) 1935 65. The Article of the Indian Constitution which empowers the Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship is—
(A) 8 (C) 10
(B) 9 (D) 11
66. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for Ad-hoc Judges in the Supreme Court ? (A) 124 (B) 125 (C) 126 (D) 127 67. Which of the following decides the disputes regarding the election of the President of India ? (A) The Rajya Sabha (B) The Lok Sabha (C) The Supreme Court (D) The Chief Election Commissioner 68. Which of the following words were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment ? (A) Republic, Sovereign (B) Secular, Democratic (C) Secular, Socialist (D) Democratic, Sovereign 69. While a resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration— 1. The Speaker shall have right to speak. 2. He shall not preside. 3. He shall be entitled to vote only in the first instance. 4. He shall not be present in the House. Select your answer from the codes— (A) 2 and 4 are correct (B) 1, 2, 3 are correct (C) Only 1 is correct (D) 2 and 3 are correct 70. Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution is related with— (A) Anti-Defection Provisions (B) Indian Languages (C) Panchayati Raj (D) Union List, State List and Concurrent List 71. In Indian Federation the division of power in three lists has been derived from— (A) U. S. A. (B) Canada (C) Australia (D) Government of India Act, 1935
72. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below— Assertion (A) : The Prime Minister in the Indian Political system is very powerful. Reason (R) : There is Parliamentary system of Government in India. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 73. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below— List-I (a) (b) (c) (d) 1. 2. 3. Poona Pact August Proposal Wardha Proposal Wavell Plan List-II 8 August 1940 14 July 1942 4 June 1945
4. 26 September 1932 Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 1 3 4 (B) 4 1 2 3 (C) 1 2 3 4 (D) 3 4 1 2 74. Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj System ? (A) 71st (C) 73rd (B) 72nd (D) 74th
75. Who among the following Congress members rejected the Mountbatten Plan ? (A) (B) (C) (D) J. B. Kripalani G. B. Pant Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Sardar Patel
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76. In Which part of the Indian Constitution relations between the Union and the States have been mentioned ? (A) Part X (B) Part XI (C) Part XIV (D) Part XV 77. What is true about the Governor of a State ? (A) He has no discretionary power (B) Validity of his discretion can be questioned (C) For his discretionary functions he is not responsible to the President (D) High Court may inquire into the advice tendered by Ministers to the Governor 78. Which of the following States was the first to establish the Panchayat Raj Institutions ? (A) Rajasthan (B) Maharashtra (C) Bihar (D) U. P. 79. The Constitutional Government means— (A) Government according to the terms of the Constitution (B) Government based on the rule of the law (C) A Democratic Government (D) All these 80. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can the Parliament legislate on any subject in the State list ? (A) Article 229 (B) Article 230 (C) Article 248 (D) Article 249 81. A constitutional reason to make the centre strong in India is— (A) Directive Principles of State Policy (B) Centralised Planning (C) Zonal Councils (D) Union List 82. One common point of agreement between Indian and U.S. Federalism is that— (A) Residuary powers belong to the Centre (B) Residuary powers belong to the States
(C) There is provision for concurrent jurisdiction in certain matters (D) The Supreme Court is the arbiter in the event of conflict between the Centre and the States 83. Which one of the following qualifications is common to Presidential candidates in both India and the U. S. A. ? (A) Citizenship (B) Minimum age (C) Residential requirement (D) Eligibility to become member of the popular house of the legislature 84. Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India may be made by the President— (A) According to his own judgement (B) On the request of the Lok Sabha (C) On the recommendation of the Prime Minister (D) On the written advice of the Council of Ministers 85. The system of Judicial review is found in— (A) Only in India (B) Only in Britain (C) Only in U.S.A. (D) In both India and U.S.A. 86. Who has referred Indian Federation as ‘Paramount Federation’ ? (A) C. H. Alexandrowicz (B) M. P. Sharma (C) K. Santhanam (D) A. C. Banerjee 87. Dadabhai Naoroji has described his theory of ‘Drain of Wealth’ in the book— (A) Poverty and unBritish rule in India (B) Exploitative nature of British Rule in India (C) British Rule and its consequences (D) Nature of British Colonial Rule 88. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (A) State is abstract but the government is concrete
(B) Society is wider than the State (C) Government is the agent of the State (D) Membership of the State is optional 89. “It is true that there is no State where there is no over-ruling force. But the exercise of force does not make a State otherwise a pirate ship or the mutinous army would be a State.” Who has made this statement ? (A) Fredrick Angels (B) Robert MacIver (C) H. J. Laski (D) Max Weber 90. Which of the following thinkers does not regard territory as an essential element of the State ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Plato Locke Maotse Tung Seeley
91. Who among the following opines that ‘public service’ and not sovereignty is the essential characteristic of the State ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Otto Von Gierke Leon Duguit Ernest Barker A. D. Lindsay
92. “The State is the product and manifestation of the irreconcilibility of class antagonism.” Who holds the above view ? (A) Marx (B) Lenin (C) Bakunin (D) Stalin 93. The word ‘Polis’ relates to— (A) Police (B) Civil Administration (C) City State (D) Public opinion 94. “Liberty is increased when sovereignty is put into the right hands.” Who has made this statement ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Friedman Hayek I. Berlin L. Strauss
95. Who among the following is, associated with ‘Civic-Sovereignty’ Theory ?
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96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101. Identify the correct chronological sequence of the following political philosophers. (A) Hobbes, Locke, Rousseau and Montesquieu Which one of the following (B) Hobbes, Rousseau, Montesideologies considers political quieu and Locke party as ‘a vanguard of the social (C) Locke, Hobbes, Montesclass’ ? quieu and Rousseau (A) Idealism (D) Hobbes, Locke, Montes(B) Individualism quieu and Rousseau (C) Fabianism 102. Given below are two statements, (D) Marxism one is labelled as Assertion (A) Given below are two statements, and the other is labelled as one is labelled as Assertion (A) Reason (R). In the context of and the other is labelled as these statements, select the Reason (R). In the context of correct answer from the codes these statements, select the mentioned below— correct answer from the codes Assertion (A) : According to mentioned below— Monists, the sovereignty is Assertion (A) : The concept of supreme, absolute and unlimisovereignty could not be deveted. loped during Middle Ages. Reason (R) : In every full-fledged Reason (R) : The social system or independent state, there is an during the Middle Ages was ultimate authority, an authority decentralized and permeated by from which there is no appeal. Christianity. Codes : Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation (R) is the correct explanation of (A) of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 103. Who defined sovereignty as the Who among the following makes supreme authority which is a distinction between society and independent of any other earthly state ? authority ? (A) Pareto (A) Kelsen (B) MacIver (B) Willoughby (C) Bryce (C) Oppenheim (D) Charles Merriam (D) Bentham Which pair is not correctly 104. The form of oath of office for a matched ? Minister for the Union in India is (A) George Sorel —Syndicalism enshrined in— (B) Hegel —Individualism (A) First Schedule of the Indian (C) G.D.H. Cole Constitution —Guild socialism (B) Second Schedule of the (D) Laski —Pluralism Indian Constitution (C) Third Schedule of the Indian Who among the following was Constitution the first to propound the Plura(D) Fourth Schedule of the listic Theory of Sovereignty ? Indian Constitution (A) H. J. Laski (B) Jean Bodin 105. Match List-I with List-II and (C) MacIver select the correct answer by using the codes given below— (D) Otto Von Gierke (A) (B) (C) (D) John Devey John Strachy R. H. Tawney S. G. Hobson
List-I (Author) (a) (b) (c) (d) Robert Nozick D. L. Hobman Titmuss Alexander Entreaves List-II (Book) 1. 2. 3. 4. Essay on Welfare State The Welfare State Anarchy, State and Utopia The Notion of the State (a) 3 3 2 4 (b) 1 2 1 2 (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 4 3 1
Codes : (A) (B) (C) (D)
106. Who among the following thinkers made the statement that, “Covenant without sword are but words and of no strength to secure men at all.” ? (A) Pufendorf (B) Hobbes (C) Locke (D) Rousseau 107. Which theory advocates only ‘night watchman role’ of the State ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Welfare State Theory Liberal Theory Socialist Theory Idealist Theory
108. Who has said that a welfare state is “a state that provides for its citizens a wide range of social services” ? (A) G.D.H. Cole (B) H. J. Laski (C) Abraham (D) T. W. Kent 109. Who among the following has maintained that the modern liberal democratic state has become an industrial state ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Galbraith MacPherson Keynes Roosevelt
110. Which one of the following ideologies aims at the spiritualisation of Politics ? (A) Marxism (B) Socialism (C) Sarvodaya (D) Pluralism
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111. The term ‘Socialism’ was first (A) Mill (B) Green used by— (C) Hobbes (D) Hegel (A) Robert Owen 117. Which theory holds that, “the (B) Karl Marx right of the personality is the (C) Lenin most important right of the (D) Bernstein man” ? 124. (A) The Theory of Natural Rights 112. Which of the following thinkers is associated with Evolutionary (B) The Legal Theory of Rights Socialism ? (C) The Historical Theory of (A) Lenin (B) Gramsci Rights (C) Bernstien (D) Engels (D) The Idealistic Theory of
Codes : (A) (B) (C) (D) 1 3 3 1 2 4 2 2 3 1 1 4 4 2 4 3
Rights 113. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) 118. Hobbes gives individual the 125. The first President of the and the other is labelled as Sovereign Constituent Assembly right to disobey the sovereign Reason (R). In the context of for the Dominion of India was— for— these statements, select the (A) C. Rajagopalachari (A) Self preservation correct answer from the codes (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (B) Protection of Freedom mentioned below— (C) Rajendra Prasad (C) Removing oppression Assertion (A) : The ‘positive (D) Sachidananda Sinha (D) Removing injustice libralism’ assigns certain func126. The Pakistan resolution was tions to the state to perform. 119. The credit for advocating the adopted by the Muslim League Reason (R) : It assigns state to legal theory of right goes to— in— promote the ‘social welfare’ of (A) Austin (B) Locke (A) February 1922 the society as a whole. (C) Barker (D) Laski (B) December 1928 Codes : (C) March 1940 120. Who has remarked that, “All (D) September 1944 (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and restraint qua restraints is an evil (R) is the correct explanation … leaving people to themselves 127. Which one of the following is always better than controlling of (A) rights was described by B. R. them” ? Ambedkar as “The Heart and (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (A) Green (B) Mill Soul of the Constitution” ? but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) Barker (D) Popper (A) Right of freedom of religion (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (B) Right to property PART-II (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
“Indian Nationalism was the child of the British Raj.” Who made this statement ? (A) Bipin Chandra (B) R. Coupland (C) R. C. Majumdar (D) P. E. Roberts
114. The best exposition of Liberal concept of nature and functions 121. The Darghah of Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya lies in— of the state is found in the 128. Whcih Article of the Constitu(A) Agra writings of— tion of India lays down the procedure for the amendment in (B) Ajmer (A) John Locke the Constitution ? (C) Delhi (B) Karl Marx (A) 348 (B) 358 (D) Fatehpur-Sikri (C) Bernard Bosanquet (C) 368 (D) 378 (D) Norman Angel 122. ‘Purna Swarajya’ was announced in the Indian National Congress 129. Under which Article of the 115. Which of the following is a Constitution of India Supreme Session of— correct statement ? Court safeguards the funda(A) Karachi (B) Lahore (A) A welfare state has to be a mental rights of the Indian (C) Calcutta (D) Nagpur socialist state citizens ? (B) A capitalist state can also be 123. Arrange the following events in (A) 74 (B) 56 a welfare state the chronological order and (C) 16 (D) 32 (C) A socialist state can be a select the correct answer from 130. The President of India may liberal state the codes given below— declare National Emergency if (D) A liberal state must control 1. Non-cooperation movement. there is threat of— means of production 2. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre. 1. External aggression 3. Gandhi’s Champaran Satya116. Regarding the functions of the 2. Internal disturbances grah. state, who among the following 3. Armed rebellion 4. Civil Disobedience Movehas used the phrase, “to hinder 4. Communal clashes ment. the hindrances” ?
General Studies
(C) Right to equality (D) Right to constitutional remedies
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131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
Select the correct answer from (C) Manna Dey (C) M. A. Jinnah the code given below— (D) Mohammad Rafi (D) Muhammad Iqbal Codes : 139. Tsunami killed hundreds of 148. ‘Ashtadhyayi’ was written by— (A) 1 and 2 only people in September 2009 in— (A) Vedavyas (B) 2 and 3 only (A) Hawaii Islands (B) Panini (C) 3 and 4 only (B) Marshall Islands (C) Shukadeva (D) 1 and 3 only (C) Samoa Islands (D) Valmiki Which one of the following is a (D) Norfolk Islands 149. The number of Puranas is— Directive Principle of the State 140. The winner of the Durand Cup Policy ? (A) 16 (B) 18 2009 is— (A) Uniform civil code (C) 19 (D) 21 (A) Churchill Brothers (B) Freedom of the press 150. Which of the following Mughal (C) Freedom of the religion (B) East-Bengal Club Emperors granted duty-free (D) Equality before law (C) Mahindra United trading facilities to the English in (D) Mohun Bagan Bengal ? Which city of Turkey is the ‘Gateway to the West’ ? (A) Akbar 141. The name of the new research (A) Ankara (B) Adana station being set-up in Antarctica (B) Jahangir by India is— (C) Izmir (D) Istanbul (C) Bahadur Shah (A) Dakshin Gangotri (D) Farrukhsiyar Falkland current flows along (B) Bharti the— (A) Eastern coast of Australia (C) Dakshinayan Answers (B) Western coast of South (D) Maitri Africa 142. The working of a jet engine is (C) Eastern coast of Argentina based upon the conservation (D) Eastern coast of Japan of— Which one of the following pairs (A) Mass is correctly matched ? (B) Energy (A) Cyprus – Baghdad (C) Linear momentum (B) Lebanon – Beirut (D) Angular momentum (C) Turkey – Ashgabat 143. The law of planetary motion were (D) Ukraine – Akmola enunciated by— Bosporus strait connects— (A) Newton (B) Keplar (A) Black Sea and Aegean Sea (C) Galileo (D) Copernicus (B) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea 144. Leprosy is caused by— (C) Adriatic Sea and Mediterra(A) Bacteria (B) Virus nean Sea (C) Fungus (D) Protozoa (D) Black Sea and Sea of 145. The gaseous pollutant responMarmara sible for acid rain is— The largest producer of petro(A) Carbon dioxide leum in the world is— (B) Methane (A) Kuwait (C) Ammonia (B) Iran (D) Sulphur dioxide (C) Saudi Arabia 146. The unit of heredity in our body (D) Russia is called— India played its 100th Cricket (A) Chromosome Test Match with— (B) DNA (A) Australia (C) Gene (B) South Africa (D) Nucleus (C) West Indies 147. Who among the following (D) Sri Lanka Pakistani national was awarded Dada Sahab Phalke Award 2007 ‘Bharat Ratna’ by the Indian was given to— Government ? (A) Lata Mangeshkar (A) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan (B) Kishore Kumar (B) Liaqat Ali Khan P.Darpan
PD/December/2010/1090
Solved Paper
MADHYA PRADESH P.S.C. (Pre.) EXAM., 2009
(Held on 9-5-2010)
Economic
1. After economic reforms poverty reduction rate has been in post1991 period as compared to earlier period— (A) There has been no change (B) Reduction rate has increased (C) Has decreased as compared to earlier period (D) None of the above 2. Which of the following is not necessary for poverty removal ? (A) Increase production in agricultural 6. Which of the following factors is unrelated to fall in ground-water table in M.P. ? (A) Increase in irrigation from ground-water sources (B) Non-construction of tanks for maintaining water table (C) Government did not pay attention to increase surface water irrigation (D) Decrease in rainfall level in these years 7. Types of inflation is/are— (A) Creeping inflation (B) Walking inflation (C) Running inflation (D) All of these 8. Which of the following development processes is most appropriate ? (A) Which regions only benefits certain (A) Has decreased from 3·3 percent to 1·5 per cent (B) Has increased from 1·5 per cent to 3·3 per cent (C) Both the above (D) None of the above statements is true 12. The percentage of landless labourers in rural India is— (A) Increasing with time (B) Decreasing with time (C) No change with time (D) None of these 13. The following pairs of states indicate the highest and the lowest sex ratio in 2001. Which is correct ? (A) Tamil Nadu and Punjab (B) Andhra and Kashmir (C) Kerala and Haryana (D) Kerala and U.P. 14. The following pairs of states represent the lowest and the highest religious sex ratio in 2001. Which pair is correct ? (A) Sikhs and Jains (B) Sikhs and Christians (C) Jains and Hindus (D) Jains and Muslims 15. Which formula is correct about calculating the percentage of school-going children in India ? Students studying in class 1 to 5 in 6-10 years age group 100 (A) × Total population of 1 6-10 years age group No. of children in the age group 6-10 years 100 (B) × No. of students study1 ing in primary schools No. of the students studying in any class in 6-10 years age group (C) Total population of 6-10 years age group 100 × 1 (D) None of the above
(B) Spread of education (C) Increase in health facilities (D) Environment 3. Privatisation in education and health services became necessary because— (A) Insufficient expenditure by the government (B) Inefficiency of government facilities (C) Increase in demand for both by the public (D) All of the above factors 4. Which of the following is necessary for price discrimination ? (A) To face outside competition (B) To earn more profit (C) To have different elasticities of demand in different markets (D) All of the above 5. Environmental costs are not included in our cost calculation because— (Which of the following factors is not related ?) (A) Whole society, not the individual alone, bear these costs (B) Individual fails to realise these (C) If individual attempts these, whole society benefits (D) Appropriate technology is not available
(B) Which benefits every person of the country (C) Which leads to too much increase in imports (D) Which force the population of the country to migrate 9. Which of the following is not among the functions of money ? (A) Medium of exchange (B) Store of value (C) Shopping with credit card (D) Measure of value 10. The following factors are responsible for the fall in external value of rupee— (A) Withdrawal of foreign investor from the Indian Share Market (B) Fall in prices in America (C) Decrease in the amount sent by non-resident Indian (D) All of the above 11. The growth rate in agriculture in India—
PD/December/2010/1091
16. What is the percentage of rural working population in 19912001 ? (A) Increased in case of females but decreased in males (B) Increased in case of males but decreased in females (C) Increased in both, males and females (D) Decreased in both, males and females 17. The highest populous state in India is— (A) U. P. (B) Bihar (C) Chhattisgarh (D) Himachal Pradesh 18. National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme is being implemented through— (A) District Administration (B) Panchayati Raj Institutions (C) Through special authorities specially appointed for it (D) Rural engineering department 19. For retrenchment, government permission is necessary if— (A) The unit has 100 or more labourers (B) The unit has more than 500 labourers (C) The unit has more than 50 labourers (D) It is necessary for every industrial unit 20. Which of the following statements relating to risks for the farmers is true ? (A) Big farmers have to face greater weather and market related risk (B) Small farmers have less market related risk (C) Small farmers have less weather related risk (D) Small farmers have to face higher both market and weather related risks 21. Which of the following objectives of self-help groups is incorrect ? (A) Collective action to increase income (B) To join mainstream economy
(C) To increase bargaining power (D) To achieve objectives individually which cannot be achieved collectively 22. Which of the following statements is wrong ? (A) Dependence of small and marginal farmers on non-institutional credit is the highest (B) With increase in size of holding dependence on noninstitutional sources decreases (C) Dependence of large farmers on non-institutional credit is least (D) None of the above statements is correct 23. Our rate of growth has been more than 8 per cent during last 3 years, which benefited mostly : (Which statement is correct ?) (A) Poor class (B) Only rich persons (C) Rich and higher middle income group (D) Only middle income group 24. If the total cost of producing 400 units is Rs. 4,000 and total variable cost is Rs. 2,600, then per unit fixed cost will be— (A) Rs. 10 (B) Rs. 3·50 (C) Rs. 40 (D) Rs. 6·50 25. Marginal cost can be obtained by— (A) TCn – TCn – 1 (B) TCn + TCn + 1 (C) ACn – ACn – 1 (D) ACn + ACn + 1 26. During these years of liberalisation— (A) There has been increase in productivity of labour but decrease in the share in national income (B) Productivity of labour and their share in national income, both have decreased (C) There has been no increase in productivity of labour and their share in national income (D) The productivity of labour and their share in national income, both have decreased Which of above statement is correct ?
27. During these years about 1 lac farmers have taken resort to suicide. What is the reason ? (A) Increase in fluctuation in prices due to imports (B) Increasing indebtedness (C) Increase in cost of production (D) There has been increase to suicide cases in general population 28. The share of small saving schemes of Post-Offices in national savings has decreased due to— (A) Rate of interest has been less on these (B) Banks and others have increased interest rate (C) Post offices have decreased interest rates in this period (D) The number of post offices have decreased Which of the above causes is not correct ? 29. Because of adoption of neoliberal policies, there has been— (A) Increase in regional disparities (B) Distribution of personal income became more unequal (C) Disparity between progressive states and backward states has increased (D) Backward states were given better opportunities to develop Which of the above statements is not correct ? 30. In which of the following states the Bhilai Steel Plant is situated ? (A) M. P. (B) Chhattisgarh (C) Rajasthan (D) Bihar 31. Marketisation has— (A) Given equal opportunity to compete for all (B) It works in favour of rich people (C) It works in favour of poors (D) All classes are affected equally 32. Which of the following group of countries indicates from low to high growth rate countries ?
PD/December/2010/1092
(A) America, Russia, India, China (B) India, China, America, Russia (C) China, India, Russia, America (D) China, America, India, Russia 33. Which of the following reasons is the greatest obstacle in applying compulsory education in 6-14 years ? (A) Poverty (B) Ignorance about importance of education (C) Scarcity of schools (D) Lack of interest in education among children 34. In U.S.A. and other developed countries, depression is spreading fast. The effect of the same on Indian economy— (A) Will be equally (B) Will be too much since India is a developing country (C) Will be relatively less (D) Will be no effect on India 35. The percentage of malnutrition among the children in M. P. according to National Family Health Survey no. 1, 2 and 3 is— (A) 50 per cent, 45 per cent and 40 per cent (B) 47 per cent, 54 per cent and 60 per cent (C) 60 per cent, 54 per cent and 47 per cent (D) None of the above 36. Factors behind increasing popularity of irrigation from ground water are— (A) All the farmers opportunity to avail it have
(A) 86·3 (C) 25·3
(B) 40·5 (D) 66·0
38. Whichof the following statements is incorrect ? (A) Infant mortality rate in India has decreased (B) Percentage of anaemic children has decreased (C) Percentage of fully immunised children has increased (D) Maternal mortality rate has decreased 39. According to budget proposals for 2008-09 the fiscal deficit should be 2·5 per cent of G.D.P. It is going to be higher because— (A) Implementation of recommendations of 6th Pay Commission (B) Expenditure of Rs. 25,000 crores under loan waver scheme for farmers this year (C) Decrease in income from import duty on oil due to decrease in international oil prices (D) Income from direct taxes has shown decreasing tendency Which of the above causes is not correct ? 40. Under National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme guarantee is provided for— (A) One person in the family for 100 days in a year (B) Every person for 100 days in the family in a year (C) One person in the family for the whole year (D) Every person for the whole year Which of the above statements is correct ? 41. These days there has been vast fluctuation in Rupee price of Dollar, because— (A) Uncertainty about exports increases (B) There is increase in import costs (C) Adverse impact on foreign exchange reserves (D) There is no effect on importexport Which of the above statements is not correct ?
42. In India, coal is the main source of energy. Which of the following statements is wrong ? (A) There is increase in percentage of CO 2 in the atmosphere (B) Adversely affect on the environment (C) Contribute towards increase in temperature (D) There is no decrease or increase in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere 43. There has been around 10 per cent increase in price index this year. Among the causes given below which is not correct ? (A) In India and the world, food grain prices have increased (B) In cement, steel etc., industries cartels have been formed (C) There has been speculation increase in the economy (D) There has decrease in the production of food grains 44. Which of the following statements is correct ? (A) The growth rate of industrial sector in 1981-82 to 1990-91 was 6·5 per cent and in 1991-92 to 2007-08 was 6·0 per cent (B) In both periods i.e., 1981-82 to 1990-91 and 1991-92 to 200708, the growth rate of industrial sector was 6 per cent (C) In both periods i.e., in 198182 to 1990-91 and 1991-92 to 2007-08, the industrial growth rate was 6·5 per cent (D) Growth rate of industrial sector was 6 per cent in 1981-82 to 1990-91 which increased to 6·5 per cent in 1991-92 to 2007-08 period 45. Which of the following statements is correct ? (A) The percentage of females engaged in primary sector is more than the males (B) The percentage of females engaged in primary sector is less than males (C) The percentage of females engaged in tertiary sector is more than the males (D) The percentage of females in tertiary sector is zero
(B) Government encourages loans for wells and tube-wells (C) Irrigated area from surface irrigation has increased slowly (D) Per hactare consumption of electricity is less than surface irrigation Which of the above causes is not correct ? 37. How much percentage of working population is working in the unorganised sector in India ?
PD/December/2010/1093
46. Which of the following concepts is associated with Lord J. M. Keynes ? (A) Control of Money Supply Theory (B) Liquidity Preference Theory of Interest (C) Indifference Curve Analysis (D) Marginal Utility Theory 47. When rate of inflation increases— (A) Purchasing power of money increases (B) Purchasing power of money decreases (C) Purchasing power remains unaffected (D) None of the above is correct 48. These days, there has been a tendency among industrialists to get the work done by giving contracts because— (A) They get relieved from labour laws (B) They implement labour laws (C) This tendency has nothing to do with labour laws (D) None of the above 49. After adoption of neo-liberal policies in 1991, the government has taken many steps to increase the role of the market. Which of the following is not related with this policy ? (A) Started future trading in many commodities (B) Decrease the number of commodities under price control by Govt. (C) Make the Indian economy open (D) Fixing minimum prices of agricultural commodities 50. In spite of present depression, there has been no bank failures in India like other countries. Which of the following reasons is wrong ? (A) These are less controlled by the Reserve Bank (B) Invested in risk free government securities (C) Examines the credit rating of the borrower (D) The share of public sector banks in the banking sector is less
51. Many states in last years have introduced user charges in public hospitals because of that— (A) The difference between the treatment cost in private and public hospitals has decreased (B) The treatment cost of poors has increased (C) Percentage of patients taking treatment in public hospitals has come down (D) The treatment cost in public hospitals has decreased Which of the above statements is not correct ? 52. The rate of growth of Indian economy during last three years has been 8 per cent. At this rate the G.N.P. will be double in— (A) 12 years (B) 9 years (C) 15 years (D) 10 years 53. For equitable development it is necessary that— (A) Proportionate benefit to all classes (B) Main benefit goes to rich persons (C) Main benefit goes to poor persons (D) Main benefit goes to middle classes 54. Bank rate in India is determined by— (A) Government (B) Commercial Banks (C) Reserve Bank of India (D) Cooperative Banks 55. The economy will be in equilibrium if— (A) I = S (B) Y > C (C) I > C (D) I < C 56. The factors affecting the elasticity of demand of a commodity are— (A) Availability of substitutes (B) Possibility of postponing consumption (C) Share of expenditure in the total budget (D) Whether the person is educated or uneducated Which of the above factors is wrong ? 57. The biggest producer of Soybean is—
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Madhya Pradesh Rajasthan U. P. Maharashtra
58. The biggest producer of gram in India is— (A) Maharashtra (B) U. P. (C) M. P. (D) None of these states 59. The function of money is/are— (A) Medium of exchange (B) Measure of value (C) Store of value (D) All of these 60. The main factor behind the increase in global temperature is the emission of CO 2 is greater than the earth’s capacity to absorb it. The share in total emission of CO2 is the highest of— (A) China (B) India (C) America (D) Soviet Russia 61. “The utility from a bundle of goods will be maximum when the marginal utility of each commodity is equal to the price mutiplied by the marginal utility of money.” This was stated by— (A) Marshall (B) Adam Smith (C) Hicks (D) None of these 62. When relative change in demand is equal to change in price, the price elasticity of demand will be— (A) Unit (B) Less than one (C) Greater than one (D) Infinity 63. Suppose money income in the year 2000 was 5 lakh, which increased 10 lakh in the year 2 0 0 8 . But during the same period, there was a price increase of 20 per cent. T h e n increase in real income was— (A) 8·33 lakh (B) 3·33 lakh (C) 5 lakh (D) None of these
PD/December/2010/1094
64. To obtain maximum satisfaction, the following equation must be satisfy f 1 P1 = , f 2 P2 where f1 and f2 indicate marginal utility and P1 and P2 indicates their prices. (A) Above equation is correct (B) Above equation is wrong (C) Above equation indicates minimum, not maximum satisfaction (D) None of the above 65. Inferior goods means— (A) When demand remains constant, though price increased (B) When demand decreases with increase in price (C) When demand decreases with decrease in price (D) Demand remains the same with decrease in price 66. There are some misconceptions about monopoly. Which one of the following ? (A) Monopoly firm tries to earn maximum profit (B) Monopoly firm always earns profit (C) Marginal income of monopoly firm is equal to marginal cost (D) None of the above 67. The value of multiplier is equal to— 1 (A) K = ?C 1– ?Y 1 (B) K = 1 – ?C 1 (C) K = MPC + MPS 1 – MPS (D) K = 1 – MPC 68. Which of the following statements is true ? (A) Product differentiation is not necessary in monopolistic competition (B) Monopolistic competition normally requires product differentiation (C) There is no reaction from others if one under monopolistic competition decreases price (D) With perfect elastic demand, price decrease under monopolistic competition decreases total revenue
69. Equilibrium means— (A) No tendency to change with time (B) Changes in all variables with time (C) Other combinations of variable represent better situation (D) Change in one variable, others remaining constant 70. Gross national product is equal to— (A) Gross national product – Import (B) GDP + Net Factor Income from abroad (C) Gross domestic product + Imports (D) Gross national product + Exports 71. Entrepreneurial activity is performed— (A) By rich persons (B) Who works under conditions of certainty (C) Who works only on the basis of past experiences (D) Who works under conditions of uncertainty 72. Which of the following is included in Macro-economics ? (A) Equilibrium of the firm (B) Price determination of a commodity (C) Trade cycle theory (D) Price determination of LPG in India 73. Trade off means— (A) Simultaneous increase in two variables (B) Increase in one variable, keeping the other constant (C) Decrease in other variable with increase of one (D) None of the above 74. Which of the following represents equilibrium ?
Total National Income Total Reali- PlanConsed ned sum- Sav- Investtion ing ment
75. In a country in which the demand for land is greater than the supply— (A) There will be no price for marginal land (B) Marginal land will also have price (C) Only fertile land will have price (D) There will be no price even for fertile land 76. A firm will suffer loss— (A) If the price is less than average fixed cost + average variable cost (B) If the price is less than variable cost (C) If the price is less than average fixed cost (D) If the price is more than average fixed cost + average variable cost 77. If the amount of 100 crore is invested in an economy and if marginal propensity to consume is 0·8, then increase in national income will be— (A) 80 crore (B) 300 crore (C) 500 crore (D) None of these 78. The great depression of thirties gave birth to the theory of— (A) Say’s law of market (B) Full employment equilibrium (C) That real wages determine the supply of labour (D) Keynesian theory of Employment 79. If the total cost of production of 400 units is Rs. 8,000 and of 399 units is Rs. 7,990, then the production is under— (A) Law of Increasing Returns to the Scale (B) Law of Decreasing Returns to Scale (C) Law of Constant Returns to Scale (D) None of the above 80. Inflation in India is measured by— (A) Change in wholesale price index
(A) (B) (C) (D)
600 500 400 700
500 425 350 550
100 75 50 150
75 75 75 75
PD/December/2010/1095
(B) Increase in currency in circulation (C) Change in retail price index (D) Credit created by the banks 81. Income from taxes is divided— (A) States’s income from taxes is shared by Centre (B) Income of some taxes of the Centre is shared by States (C) States and the Centre have independent sources of income and no sharing (D) None of the above 82. Central Bank in India is— (A) Central Bank of India (B) State Bank of India (C) Bank of India (D) Reserve Bank of India 83. Which of the following does not come under Macro-economics ? (A) Employment theory (B) Price determination of LPG in India (C) Theory of depression (D) Functions of Central Bank in India 84. Macro-economics suffers from— (A) All theories are influenced by generalisation (B) The analysis employs the technique of partial analysis (C) Deals with large quantities (D) Relates to determination of total employment and total income 85. The movement from non-Pareto to Pareto equilibrium is desirable because— (A) It increases the production of first commodity without adversely affecting the production of second (B) It increases the production of second commodity more than it decreases the production of first (C) It increases the production of first commodity more than it decreases the production of second one (D) None of the above 86. Inflation means— (A) When the prices of necessities increase
(B) When the general price increases for a long period (C) When there is a seasonal fluctuation in prices (D) When the prices of luxuries increase 87. Speculative Demand for money and Interest rate are related— (A) Inverse relationship (B) Direct relationship (C) No relationship in these (D) None of these 88. When the demand for money increases for investment— (A) Will decrease the multiplier effect (B) Adversely affect the consumption (C) Interest rate will remain unchanged (D) The increase in interest rate will depend upon the slope of investment curve 89. Disinflation means— (A) When increase in prices in the long run (B) When the prices increase due to export (C) When the increase in prices is more than average (D) When increased prices decrease 90. Transaction demand curve for money— (A) It is parallel to X-axis (B) It moves upward with income (C) It moves downward (D) None of these 91. If any firm uses only two factors of production, namely labour (L) and capital (K), which of the following equations represent minimum cost of production ? MPPL MPPK (A) = PL PK (B) MPPL × P L = MPPK × P K (C) MRPL = MRPK (D) MPPL = MPPK 92. Devaluation of money means— (A) Decrease in purchasing power of money (B) Increase in purchasing power of money
(C) Decrease in external value of money (D) None of the above 93. Money supply increased when— could be
(A) Central Bank purchases government securities (B) Central Bank sells government securities (C) Cash-reserve ratio of banks is increased (D) Commercial Banks increase the amount deposited with Central Bank 94. Minimum wage should be determined— (A) Less than prevailing wage rates (B) Higher than equilibrium rate in the market (C) Minimum Physical and Social needs may be fulfilled (D) None of the above 95. Pigou’s concept of equilibrium firm is a— (A) Completely new concept, having nothing to do with Marshallian representative firm (B) Revised version of Marshallian representative firm (C) Marshall’s representative firm is a revised version of Pigou’s equilibrium firm (D) None of the above 96. Under monopolistic competition, excess capacity means— (A) Excess capacity under the condition of making loss (B) Difference between profit maximising production and minimum cost production (C) Optimum and maximum profit giving production difference between the two (D) None of the above 97. Law of Variable Proportions means— (A) Simultaneous change in the proportion of inputs (B) Keeping one input constant while changing others (C) Reducing other inputs and increasing only one input (D) None of the above
PD/December/2010/1096
98. Under monopolistic competition in long run— (A) Firm will always earn monopoly profit (B) Firm might earn normal profit only (C) Firm will always earn normal profit (D) None of the above 105. 99. Bankers’ Bank in India is— (A) International Monetary Fund (B) World Bank (C) Industrial Development Bank of India (D) Reserve Bank of India
(A) Needs much governmental (C) Comparing exports of the intervention two countries (B) They automatically equili(D) None of the above brate the balance of trade 110. In India, the right to impose tax (C) There is scope for common on agricultural income is vested commercial plans into— (D) The cost of management of (A) State governments these is less (B) Central government The assumption under monopo(C) Both of these listic competition price determi(D) None of these nation are given below, which is not correct ? 111. In the development process, (A) If any firm reduces price, which is unrelated ? sooner or latter other firms will (A) Impact on environment also reduce (B) Impact on health (B) There is only price competi(C) Public participation tion (D) Impact on religious activities (C) Cost curves of all producers 112. Corporation tax in India is— of the group are the same (A) Tax on production by com(D) Other firms will not reduce panies price even in the long run (B) Tax on the sales income of the companies (C) Tax on net income of the companies (D) None of the above The limits of growth of a nation is determined by— (A) Its population (B) Its capital resources (C) The health of the population (D) Its natural resources 114. Which of the following is not related to developing countries ? (A) Too much population (B) Ample capital resources (C) Low level of per capita income (D) Too much dependence on agriculture
100. The ratio of exchange between two goods in the indifference curve analysis is shown by— (A) Price line (B) Price-consumption curve 106. When production cost is zero, (C) Income consumption curve the price determination under (D) From indifference curve monopoly will be such that total income is maximum. 101. Balance of Payment means— (A) This statement is correct (A) The account of importexport of any country (B) This statement is half-truth 113. (B) Holding of foreign exchange (C) This statement is wrong and gold (D) The marginal income will be (C) The account of international trade and financial transactions (D) The account of foreign exchange received or paid for import and export only positive in this situation 107. Appropriate measure of economic development is— (A) Rate of increase in income (B) Improvement in Human Development Index (C) Decrease in the poverty per centage only (D) None of the above Balanced development means— (A) All the sectors of the economy develop at the same rate (B) All the sectors of the economy should develop
102. Which of the following nations has the lowest growth rate ? (A) China (B) U.S.A. (C) India 108. (D) Soviet Russia 103. Which of the following attributes is related to developed countries ? (A) High rate of increase in population (B) Large share of agricultural sector in national income
115. The whole world is passing through food crisis. Some causes for the same are given below, (C) Only agriculture and induswhich one is unrelated ? try should develop (A) Production of Biodiesel from (D) None of the above food-grains (B) Increase in per capita consumption in countries such as India and China (C) Wastage before food-grains reach consumer (D) Decrease in food-grain area due to diversion of land for commercial
(C) High level of per capita 109. If we want to compare the per income capita income level of two countries, which of the following (D) Low level of expenditure on is appropriate ? social services such as health and education (A) Compare income using exchange rate 104. Which of the following statements is not related to flexible (B) Compare income on the rate of exchange ? basis of purchasing power parity
PD/December/2010/1097
116. The following changes in population structure take place with development, which of the following is unrelated ? (A) Increase in the share of 0-15 years age group (B) Increase in average age (C) Increase in life-style diseases (D) None of the above 117. Expenditure on public health services is (in per cent of GDP)— (A) 1·2% (B) 3·4% (C) 6·0% (D) 4·0% 118. We have completed 58 years of planned development, the major failure of this has been— (A) Failure to increase income (B) Failure in increasing exports (C) Insufficient increase in education (D) Failure in poverty eradication 119. Employment opportunities after liberalisation compared to earlier— (A) Have decreased (B) In rural India have increased (C) In urban India have increased (D) Have increased in rural and urban India 120. The contribution of agriculture in India’s national income is— (A) 18 per cent (B) 33 per cent (C) 40 per cent (D) 27 per cent
Answers with Hints
PD/December/2010/1098
Solved Paper
UGC-NET/JRF EXAM., 2007
(Held in December 2007)
Management
(Based on Memory)
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) multiple-choice questions, each question carrying two marks. Attempt all of them. 1. In demand forecasting, important method used in trend projection is— (A) Scientific method (B) Bax-Jenkin method (C) Delphi method (D) Logistics method 2. The Cobb Dauglass Production Function is often used as— (A) ? = AKa Lb (B) ? = AKa L1 – a (C) log ? = a log K + log C (D) ? = Ab a – La 3. Skimming price for a new product is— (A) Low initial price (B) Average price (C) High initial price (D) Moderate price 4. Under monopoly market structure, the degree of freedom in pricing decision is— (A) Very low (B) Quite good (C) Very high (D) Zero 5. Capital budgeting decisions are generally— (A) Irreversible (B) Reversible (C) Irrevocable (D) Revocable 6. Which one is not the pre-requisite of a perfect market ? (A) Existence of large number of buyers and sellers in the market (B) Free flow of market information among the players (C) Free entry and free exit (D) Intervention of the Government 7. The term emotion refers to— (A) A broad range of feelings that a person experiences (B) A broad and intense feeling that is directed at someone or something (C) A broad range of feelings in the form of anger that a person experiences (D) None of the above 8. The term job satisfaction refers to— (A) A collection of feelings that an individual has towards his/ her job (B) The degree to which an individual indentifies himself/herself with job (C) The degree to which an individual identifies himself/herself with the organisation (D) None of the above 9. The following are the three components of creativity— (A) Expertise, creativity skills and task motivation (B) Expertise, innovation and rationality (C) Expertise, rationality and relevance (D) Expertise, novelty and performance 10. Two-factor theory was pounded by— (A) Fredrick Herzberg (B) David Mc Clelland (C) Mc Cardhy (D) Philip Kotler pro13. A list of Jobs duties, Responsibilities, Reporting Relationships and Working Conditions is called— (A) Job enhancement (B) Job specification (C) Job description (D) Job enlargement 14. The use of predesigned set of questions used in an interview process leads to— (A) Behavioural interview (B) Situational interview (C) Non-directional interview (D) Structured interview 15. One of the following is a Training, provided to enhance decision making skills— (A) On the job training (B) Behavioural modelling (C) Management games (D) Action learning 16. Dramatic reduction power, is called— (A) Termination (B) Retrenchment (C) Downsizing (D) Rightsizing of man-
11. ‘Grape Wine’ is the term used in relation to— (A) Formal Communication (B) Informal Communication (C) Horizontal Communication (D) Vertical Communication 12. Mutual cooperation and networking is— (A) Win-win strategy (B) Networking strategy (C) Franchise strategy (D) Competitive strategy
17. Monitoring employees through a preplanned series of position, is called— (A) Promotion (B) Succession planning (C) Job reporting (D) Job rotation 18. A situation where management is unable to provide employment due to non-availability of work, is called— (A) Lock out (B) Lay off (C) Termination (D) Closure 19. The basic goal of financial management is— (A) Maximising the profit (B) Maximising shareholders’ wealth in the long run
PD/December/2010/1099
(C) Maximising the rate of dividend (D) Minimising the business risk 20. The pricnipal value of a bond is called— (A) Coupon rate (B) Par value (C) Maturity value (D) Market value 21. Trade credit is a— (A) Negotiated source of finance (B) Hybrid source of finance (C) Spontaneous source of finance (D) Source of credit from the owners of the business 22. IRR is the rate of interest— (A) Equal to the cost of capital of the proposal (B) Prevailing rate of interest in the market (C) Paid on the bonds by the firm (D) That makes the NPV of capital proposal almost zero 23. Mutually exclusive investment proposals are those— (A) Wherein the acceptance of one proposal leads to rejection of all other proposals (B) That require special sources of financing (C) That have unique features (D) That reduce the total risk complexion of the firm 24. The technique used for classifying inventory according to the value of usage is called— (A) XYZ Analysis (B) DCF Analysis (C) ABC Analysis (D) DEF Analysis 25. When a consumer derives more satisfaction from a product/service than his expectation, it is known as— (A) Consumer satisfaction (B) Consumer delight (C) Consumer dazzling (D) Consumer dissatisfaction 26. Classical conditioning is associated with— (A) Repetition (B) Generalisation (C) Discrimination (D) All of these
27. The process of selecting, organising and interpreting or attaching meaning to events happening in the environment, is called— (A) Perception (B) Attitude (C) Personality (D) Learning 28. Under which concept of marketing, customer remains focussed ? (A) Marketing (B) Production (C) Product (D) Selling 29. Segmentation of consumers based on factors like climatic conditions and regions, are known as— (A) Demographic segmentation (B) Cultural segmentation (C) Geographic segmentation (D) Administrative segmentation 30. Which city is more favourable for selling electric blankets ? (A) Mumbai (B) Chennai (C) Shillong (D) Pune 31. Decision on plant layout and location are concerned with— (A) System design (B) System operations (C) System control (D) None of the above 32. Production system which enables for maximising the scale advantage is— (A) Flow type (B) Intermittent type (C) Batch type (D) None of the above 33. Which one of the following is the objective of production scheduling ? (A) Where to start the operation (B) When to start the operation (C) How to start the operation (D) When to start as well as stop the operation 34. SQC requires determination of— (A) Quality tolerance limit (B) Quantity measurement (C) Production lead time (D) Inventory carrying cost 35. AQL (Acceptable Quality Level) is— (A) Maximum No. of defectives that the consumer will accept (B) Fraction defective (f) that the user considers acceptable
(C) Fraction defective (f) that the producer considers acceptable (D) Maximum No. of defectives that the producer will allow 36. Half percent of the letters mailed in a city have incorrect address. Out of 200 such letters mailed in a day the probability of finding at most 3 incorrect addresses is— e 8 (A) 3 (B) e– 1 3 ? 1 –1 5 –1 (C) 6 (D) e 6 2 37. If the independent variables x i (i = 1, 2, … n) are normally distributed about a common mean, a with a common variance ?, their mean is also normally distributed about a, but with a variance. (A) n?2 (B) ?2/n (C) (?2)n (D) ?n/2 38. The two lines of regression are 3x + 2y = 26 and 6x + y = 31, then the mean of x is— (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 7 (D) 9 39. Chi-square distribution is— (A) Continuous (B) Multimodal (C) Symmetrical (D) None of the above 40. Mode of process in Decision Support System is— (A) Batch (B) Online (C) Offline (D) Real Time 41. Which level of managers translate the corporate strategy into concrete objectives for their individual business ? (A) Corporate level (B) Multi-business level (C) Functional level (D) Business level 42. Which of the following books was not written by Michael E. Porter ? (A) Competitive strategy (B) Competing for the future (C) Competitive advantage (D) Competitive advantages of nations 43. Which one is not the Michael E. Porter’s generic strategies ? (A) Focus (B) Cost leadership (C) Differentiation (D) Core competence
PD/December/2010/1100
44. Which of the following provides directions, serves as standard for evaluating performance and motivates members of the organisation ? (A) Mission (B) Values (C) Objectives (D) Goals 45. Sick enterprise is referred to— (A) World Bank (B) SIDBI (C) RBI (D) BIFR 46. Of the following, who is the most popular woman entrepreneur ? (A) Sudha Murthy (B) Medha Patkar (C) Kiran Mazumdar (D) Deepa Mehta 47. Which of the following is the cause of sickness of an enterprise ? (A) Lack of adequate capital (B) Lack of demand for the products (C) Lack of competition (D) All the above 48. Which one of the following is not the Social Responsibility of Business ? (A) Adopting villages for development (B) Setting up educational institutes (C) Opening research and development department (D) Construction of temples 49. Which one of the following is not related to Business Ethics ? (A) Environmental Ethics (B) Social Responsibility of business (C) Profiteering (D) Ecological consciousness 50. Ethical values are derived from— (A) Corporate objectives (B) Organisational culture (C) The Bible, the Kuran and the Geeta (D) Corporate philosophy
Continued from Page 1098
Answers with Explanations
P.Darpan
P.Darpan
PD/December/2010/1101
Solved Paper
SYNDICATE BANK PROBATIONARY OFFICERS EXAM., 2010
(Held on 29-8-2010)
General Awareness
(Based on Memory)
1. Mr. Mukul A. Sangma has taken over as the— (A) Chief Minister of Manipur (B) Chief Minister of Meghalaya (C) Governor of Meghalaya (D) Governor of Tripura (E) None of these 2. As per the reports published in various newspapers Core Sector Industries recorded a 7·2 per cent growth in March 2010. The growth of which of the following industries will not be considered in these figures ? (A) Coal (B) Steel (C) Cement (D) Power (E) Banking 3. How much amount was earmarked in the Union Budget 2010-11 for infusion in the capital of the public sector banks during the year ? (A) Rs. 5,000 crores (B) Rs. 7,500 crores (C) Rs. 10,000 crores (D) Rs. 15,000 crores (E) None of these 4. India recently signed a pact with which of the following SAARC countries which will enable its Prime Minister to have direct communication with the Prime Minister of that country on Hot Line ? (A) Myanmar (B) Nepal (C) Pakistan (D) China (E) None of these 5. As per the report released by the Govt. of India, various Govt. agencies procured about 15 million tonnes of wheat during the recent Rabi season. Which of the following states was the largest contributor to this stock of 15 million tonnes ? (A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Kerala (C) Punjab (D) Tamil Nadu (E) None of these 6. As we know the members of the European Union have recently decided to start functioning with a new set of rules and regulations. The newly devised rules are commonly known as— (A) Treaty of London (B) Treaty of Lisbon (C) Paris Treaty (D) Treaty of Moscow (E) None of these 7. As per the estimates given by various organizations/agencies China is expected to reach a new economic target during 2010 by becoming world’s second largest Economy. This means China will replace— (A) France (B) Germany (C) Japan (D) Russia (E) None of these 8. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the ‘Dadasaheb Phalke Award-2010’ ? (A) Javed Akhtar (B) Amitabh Bachchan (C) Gulzar (D) Dev Anand (E) None of these 9. “POSCO to invest Rs. 1000 crores more in Maharashtra” was a headline in major financial newspapers recently. POSCO is associated with which of the following businesses as its core business in Maharashtra ? (A) Fertilizers (B) Steel (C) Paper and News print (D) Automobiles (E) None of these 10. As per the reports published in various newspapers, “Mineral Output from mining and quarrying sector was up by 11% in April 2010.” Production of which of the following cannot be included in above figures ? (A) Coal (C) Iron Ore (E) Cement (B) Petroleum (D) Natural Gas
11. ‘General Motors’ plans to go public in next two months, was a news in major financial newspapers. This means General Motors is planning to do which of the following ? 1. Wind up its business in next two months. 2. Float Initial Public Offer (IPO) in near future. 3. Launch a big sales and marketing drive to attract people from all walks of life. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Only 1 Only 2 Only 3 All 1, 2 and 3 Only 2 and 3
12. Who amongst the following won the Barcelona Open Lawn Tennis Tournament (men’s singles) held in April 2010 ? (A) Fernando Verdasco (B) Robin Soderling (C) Deniel Nestor (D) Nenad Zimonjic (E) None of these 13. Which of the following is the full form of the abbreviation ‘IFRS’ as used in corporate/ finance sector ? (A) Indian Financial Reconciliation Standards (B) Interpretation and Formal Reporting System (C) International Financial Reporting Standards (D) International Financial Reporting System (E) None of these
PD/December/2010/1102
14. Mallika Bhandarkar, who won a ‘Gold Medal’ in an international event recently is a— (A) Badminton Player (B) Table Tennis Player (C) Lawn Tennis Player (D) Golf Player (E) None of these 15. Who amongst the following appoints the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission, India ? (A) The President of India (B) The Prime Minister of India (C) The Chief Justice of India (D) The Lok Sabha (E) None of these 16. Justice D. K. Jain of the Supreme Court of India recently inaugurated the first Rural Court in Shahabad Town of the state. Shahabad is in which of the following states ? (A) Orissa (B) Himachal Pradesh (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Haryana (E) Gujarat 17. Which of the following states in India recently decided to establish one Health Care Centre for every 50000 people ? (A) Gujarat (B) Maharashtra (C) West Bengal (D) Kerala (E) Delhi 18. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) had a dispute with which of the following agencies/organizations over the regulation of ‘ULIPs’ ? (A) CIBIL (B) AMFI (C) CII (D) WTO (E) SEBI 19. Who amongst the following is the head of the panel set up by the Planning Commission of India to recommend measures for “Efficient Management of Public Expenditure” ? (A) Dr. C. Rangarajan (B) Dr. D. Subbarao (C) Mr. C. B. Bhave (D) Dr. Subir Gokarn (E) None of these
20. During the SAARC Summit at Thimpu, India announced that it will provide 50 SAARC scholarships to meritorious students from those LDCs who are member of SAARC. What is the full form of LDC ? (A) Large Developed Country (B) Least Diplomatic Country (C) Least Developed Country (D) Low Diplomatic Country (E) None of these 21. As we all know Child labour is totally banned in India. As per the “Child Labour Prohibition & Regulation Act”. ‘Child’ means a person who has not completed— (A) 18 years of his/her age (B) 16 years of his/her age (C) 14 years of his/her age (D) 20 years of his/her age (E) 21 years of his/her age 22. The Women’s Reservation Bill was passed by the Rajya Sabha on which of the following dates ? (A) 19th July, 2010 (B) 19th March, 2010 (C) 9th July, 2010 (D) 9th March, 2010 (E) None of these 23. As we know the Jammu & Kashmir Assembly recently passed a bill which enabled it to ban Inter District Recruitments in the state. As per the provision of the bill a youth can now apply for a Govt. Job in the state only in— (A) His/her district (B) The districts of his/her commissionary (C) Only one district of his/her choice in the state (D) The district where he/she is residing at present (E) A District in Jammu region only 24. As we know a servere earthquake had rocked Qinghai region recently. ‘Qinghai’ is in which of the following countries ? (A) North Korea (B) South Korea (C) Myanmar (D) China (E) Vietnam
25. The second Summit of BRIC nations was organized in April 2010 in— (A) New Delhi (B) Moscow (C) Brasilia (D) Beijing (E) None of these 26. Which of the following states has decided to impose a cess on commercial vehicles so that a welfare fund can be created for the transport workers in distress of the state ? (A) Maharashtra (B) West Bengal (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Kerala (E) None of these 27. Which of the following organization recently celebrated Silver Jubilee Year (25th Year) of its establishment ? (A) ASEAN (B) G-20 (C) Commonwealth (D) NATO (E) SAARC 28. Amnesty International is associated closely with which of the following ? (A) To promote inclusive growth worldwide (B) To make earth a better abode for future generations (C) To protect human rights (D) To protect the world from the dangers of any nuclear war (E) None of these 29. As per the new guidelines issued by SEBI, companies are required to list shares within how many days of the closure of the Initial Public Offers (IPOs) ? (A) 30 days (C) 20 days (B) 25 days (D) 12 days
(E) None of these 30. As reported in some major newspapers some State Governments are planning to install Desalination Plants in some coastal zones in their states. What is the purpose of installing these Desalination plants ?
PD/December/2010/1103
1. 2. 3.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
To generate power from sea water. To convert sea water into normal water. To keep the coastal areas pollution free and save marine population. Only 1 Only 2 Only 3 All 1, 2 and 3 None of these
1.
2. 3. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
To provide more and more employment opportunities to rural youth. To Develop infrastructure in rural areas. To provide best technical education to Indian Youth. Only 1 Only 1 and 2 Only 2 and 3 Only 2 All 1, 2 and 3
(D) India (E) None of these 38. As per the reports in various newspapers the Tea Board will take up rehabilitation of about 10000 hectares of tea plantation in Himachal Pradesh. Which of the following is the main area of the state where tea is grown prominently ? (A) Kangra (B) Shimla (C) Bilaspur (D) Mandi (E) None of these 39. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Solo’ which got Commonwealth Writers’ Prize 2010 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Shobha De Chetan Bhagat Anita Desai Rana Dasgupta None of these
31. The Workers under the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are encouraged to take their wages through bank and post office accounts. This step of the Govt. is to obtain which of the following goal(s) ? 1. Promote Banks’ business. 2. To minimise corrupt practices. 3. To encourage more and more people to join NREGA. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Only 1 Only 2 and 3 Only 2 All 1, 2 and 3 Only 2 and 1
35. As we know Govt. of India has launched specific programmes to protect people from contaminated drinking water. Normally the ground water available in most of the rural areas, contains which of the following chemicals /minerals which makes it unsafe for drinking ? 1. Arsenic 2. Fluoride 3. Oxygen (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Only 1 Only 2 Only 1 and 2 Only 2 and 3 All 1, 2 and 3
32. Which of the following Rates/ Ratios is not covered under the Monetary and Credit Policy of the RBI ? (A) Bank Rate (B) Repo Rate (C) Cash Reserve Ratio (D) Reverse Repo Rate (E) Exchange Rate of Foreign Currencies 33. Which of the following ministries has launched Integrated Wastelands Development Programme (IWDP) ? (A) Ministry of Rural Development (B) Ministry of Agriculture (C) Ministry of Chemical and Fertilizers (D) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (E) None of these 34. Which of the following is/are the specific goal(s) of Bharat Nirman Project launched by the Govt. of India ?
36. Which of the following is the goal of the Indira Aawas Yojana of the Govt. of India ? 1. To provide dwelling units to people living Below Poverty Line (BPL). 2. To make metro cities slum free. 3. To provide housing facilities to the Central Govt. Employees. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 (E) None of these 37. Recently an Economic & Social Survey for Asian and Pacific Region was conducted by a UN agency. The survey finds that two economies of the region are developing very fast and are at the leading positions. One of them is China. Which is the another one ? (A) Australia (B) Bangladesh (C) South Korea
40. As per the reports published in various newspapers Karnataka Govt. has raised some objection on the Hogenakkal Drinking Water Project. The project is being implemented by which of the following states ? (A) Kerala (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Orissa (D) Maharashtra (E) Tamil Nadu 41. As per newspaper reports Iran recently organized a Trilateral Meet to discuss its ‘Nuclear Policy’. Who were the two other members at the meet ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Turkey & USA Brazil & Russia UAE & Turkey USA & Britain Brazil & Turkey
42. The ‘Wall Street Reforms Bill’ was in news recently. The bill will initiate financial reforms in which of the following countries ? (A) USA (B) France (C) Australia (D) Brazil (E) None of these 43. As per the reports in various newspapers the Bank of Rajasthan is now merged with which of the following banks ?
PD/December/2010/1104
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
AXIS Bank IDBI Bank ICICI Bank HDFC Bank None of these
44. Various countries recently signed an agreement on sharing of Nile water between them. Which of the following cannot be a member of this forum as Nile river does not pass through it ? (A) Tanzania (B) Kenya (C) Egypt (D) Iraq (E) Sudan 45. Which of the following is the full form of ‘SOFA’ a term used frequently in international politics ? (A) Status of Forces Agreement (B) Statement of Foreign Agreements (C) Strategic & Formal Alliances (D) Soviet Forum of Allied forces (E) None of these 46. Which of the following is the body/agency set up by the Govt. of India to increase the
flow of foreign investment in the country ? (A) FIPB (B) FEMA (C) NSDL (D) FCCB (E) None of these 47. The World ‘No Tobacco Day’ is observed on which of the following days ? (A) 13th May (B) 31st May (C) 13th June (D) 30th June (E) None of these 48. Who amongst the following is adjudged the Footballer of the Year selected by Football Writers Association (FWA) ? (A) Francesco Totti (B) Rio Ferdinand (C) Pele (D) Diego Maradona (E) Wayne Rooney 49. Which of the following is not a Civilian Award given by the Govt. of India ? (A) Sahitya Academy Award (B) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award (C) Padma Shri (D) Bharat Ratna (E) Kirti Chakra
50. Under the Annapurna Scheme how much foodgrain is provided to an eligible person every month ? (A) 5 kg (B) 10 kg (C) 15 kg (D) 20 kg (E) None of these
Answers with Hint
P.Darpan
PD/December/2010/1105
Solved Paper
NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY EXAM., 2010
(Held on 22-8-2009)
General Studies
1. Arrange the following Military Training Institutes in India in terms of their geographical location from North to South— 1. Indian Military Acadamy 2. Officers’ Training Academy 3. National Defence Academy 4. National Defence College 5. College of Defence Management Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) (B) (C) (D) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2 1, 4, 3, 5, 2 4, 5, 3, 2, 1 3, 4, 1, 2, 5 Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 only 4. Which of the following has/have been declared as national waterways in India ? 1. 2. 3. The Allahabad-Haldia stretch of river Ganga. The Sadiya-Dhubri stretch of river Brahmaputra. mass from the Polar region and causes rainfall in Western Europe. 3. It meets the Labrador current near Vancouver Island and causes dense fog. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 only (D) 1 and 3 only 7. Which one among the following explains the earthquakes of the eastern margins of Asia ? (A) Subduction of Pacific plate under Asiatic plate (B) Subduction of African plate below European plate (C) Subduction of Indian plate under Asiatic plate (D) Subduction of American plate under the Pacific plate 8. Unlike other Meridians Internationl Date Line is drawn zigzag in order to— (A) permit certain land areas and groups of islands to have the same calendar day (B) facilitate the sailors to adjust time in their watch (C) adjust the day in calendar while sailing from east to west and vice-versa (D) make 180°E and 180°W coterminous 9. The time difference between the two cities, city A(30? N 60?E) and city B(30? N 80?E) would be— (A) 80 second (B) 0 second (C) 20 second (D) 34 second 10. Consider the following statements : 1. The tropical year is shorter than the sidereal year.
2. Which among the following statements characterized El Nino ? 1. 2. 3. 4. It occurs at irregular intervals. It carries warmer water. It carries less saline water. Its atmospheric equivalent is southern oscillation.
The Cherla-Rajamundry stretch of river Godavari. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 5. Consider the following statements— 1. In a cyclone, the direction of wind flow is counter clockwise in the northern hemisphere. The tropical cyclone fades away when it reaches land because there is no large supply of warm moist air.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) (B) (C) (D) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4
2.
3. Consider the following statements regarding Andaman and Nicobar Islands— 1. 2. It enjoys equatorial climate. This is the only place in India where a volcano is located. This is the only place in India where coral bed is found.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Codes : (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 6. Which among the following statements about the North Atlantic Drift is/are correct ? 1. It keeps the west coast of Northern Europe ice free. 2. It is responsible for the warm air mass which interacts with the cold air
3.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
PD/December/2010/1106
2.
The solar day is longer than the sidereal day. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Codes : (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 11. Consider the following statements about rocks— 1. Shale becomes Slate through metamorphosis. 2. Shale is converted to Slate when it is subjected to tremendous pressure and high temperature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Codes : (A) (B) (C) (D) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only 14. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the four stages of water movement in a hydrological cycle ? (A) Evaporation–Condensation– Precipitation–Infiltration (B) Evaporation–Precipitation– Condensation–Infiltration (C) Infiltration–Evaporation– Condensation–Precipitation (D) Condensatio–Precipitation– Evaporation–Infiltration 15. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists— List-I (Agents of erosion) (a) (b) (c) (d) Running water Glacier Wind Underground water List-II (Topographical feature) 1. Cirque 2. Barchan 3. Rift Valley 4. Doline 5. Gorge Codes : (a) (b) (A) 5 1 (B) 5 2 (C) 4 2 (D) 3 4
2.
The entire political process of S-T-S was an upward spiraling one, which also assumed that the freedom struggle would pass through several stages, ending with the transfer of power by the colonial regime itself Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Codes : (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
12. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. Mumbai receives more rainfall than Pune because it is located at the windward side of Western Ghats. Vidarbha region experiences semi-arid climate as it is located in a rain shadow region. In India monsoon reaches Kashmir valley at the last.
17. Rajmohan Gandhi’s book ‘A Tale of Two Revolts’ (2009) deals with the— (A) Taiping and Indigo revolts (B) Revolt of 1857 and the American Civil War (C) Revolt of 1857 and the Deccan Uprising (D) American Civil War and Santhal Uprising 18. Consider the following statements relating to Jawaharlal Nehru’s attitude towards science and technology— 1. Nehru was convinced that science and technology were crucial to the solution of India’s problems relating to underdevelopment and poverty. 2. To emphasize the importance of science and scientific research, Nehru himself became the Chairman of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Codes : (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 19. “No Taxation without Representation” was the popular slogan of— (A) Indian freedom struggle (B) American war of independence (C) Russian revolution (D) French revolution
2.
3.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 only 13. Which of the following statements regarding south-west monsoon in India is/are correct ? 1. Monsoon reaches the Malabar coast first. 2. Rajasthan does not get rainfall from south west monsoon. 3. South-west monsoon retreats when the permanent wind belts start shifting to the south.
(c) 2 1 1 1
(d) 4 3 5 2
16. Consider the following statements relating to Gandhian strategy of Satyagraha— 1. Under the Gandhian strategy, which may be described as Struggle-TruceStruggle (S–T–S), phases of a vigorous extra-legal mass movement and confrontation with colonial authority alternate with phases, during which direct confrontation is withdrawn.
PD/December/2010/1107
20. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (A) Power of Parliament —Creating a new State (B) Power of State Legislature —Altering the name of a State (C) Equality before the law —Both Indian and non-Indian citizens (D) Equality of opportunity —Indian citizen 21. Which among the following statements with regard to Raja Rammohan Roy are correct ? 1. 2. 3. 4. He started the Atmiya Sabha. He wrote the Gift of Monotheist. He published the Precepts of Jesus. He founded the Brahmo Sabha.
was nipped in the bud. Most writers accept the core of the myth, that a violent revolution was on the cards at the time and was avoided only by the foundations of the congress, ……… All of them agree that the manner of its birth affected the basic character and future work of the congress in a crucial manner. 23. The colonial rulers, according to the safety valve thesis, were trying to use congress as— (A) a constitutional outlet for the mass discontent against the authorities (B) an instrument for the spread of British culture in India (C) an instrument to expand the Indian market for the products of British industries (D) an agency for social change in India 24. The author describes the safetyvalve thesis as a myth because : (A) evidence are insufficient to establish the validity of the thesis (B) the author has concluded that in the light of available materials the thesis does not hold ground (C) the congress was a nationalist organization right from the start (D) the violent anti-colonial movements did not come to an end with the foundation of the congress 25. The core of the safety-valve thesis rests on the assumption that— (A) a violent santi-colonial revolution was bound to occur unless a constitutional platform like the congress was founded (B) the congress would assist the British in administering the colony (C) the congress leaders would constitute the colonial elite (D) the congress as a party would assist the colonial rulers to implement political and social reforms 26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Grassland) (a) Pampas (c) Downs (b) Veld (d) Llanos
List-II (Country) 1. Venezuela 2. Australia 3. South Africa 4. Argentina Codes : (a) (b) (c) (A) 4 3 2 (B) 4 2 3 (C) 1 3 2 (D) 1 2 3
(d) 1 1 4 4
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 2, 3 and 4 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only (C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 22. Which one among the following was not a demand of the early congress (1885–1905) ? (A) Indianization of the superior grades of the administrative services (B) Purna Swaraj/complete independence (C) Abolition of the Arms Act (D) Autonomy within the empire Directions—(Q. 23–25) The next items are based on the passage given below— The myth is that the Indian National Congress was started by A. O. Hume and others under the official direction, guidance and advice of no less a person than Lord Dufferin, the Viceroy, to provide a safe, mild, peaceful and constitutional outlet or safety-valve for the rising discontent among the masses, which was inevitably leading towards a popular and violent revolution. Consequently, the revolutionary potential
27. Consider the following statements— 1. In India, the largest concentration of roads is found in the northern plains. 2. The ratio of surfaced road to the total road length is lower in the northern plains. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Codes : (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 28. Which one of the following does not characterize the Himalayas ? (A) Various parallel ranges of the Himalayas form a convex arc (B) There exist syntaxial bends at both the terminals of the Himalayas (C) Indus, Sutlej and Brahmaputra rivers are examples of antecedent drainage (D) The Himalayas are wider in the east than in the west 29. Which among the following statements provides the best evidence that a river is flowing through a rift valley ? (A) The Chambal valley is marked by bad land topography (B) River Tapi does not have Delta but Estuary only (C) River Mahanadi flows through a gorge at Satkosia (D) River Colorado has the Grand Canyon along its valley
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30. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
4
3
1
2
Codes : (A) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I (B) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I (C) Statement I is true but statement II is false (D) Statement I is false but statement II is true 33. Statement I : Autotroph plants contain the pigment chlorophyll for meeting their requirement of carbon and energy Statement II : Photosynthesis is the process of converting water into food using sunlight and oxygen 34. Statement I : Reproduction is the process by which living organisms produce young ones of their species. There are different forms of reproduction Statement II : Sex organs, male and female, are mandatory for reproduction
Statement II : Colour blindness results from a mutation in X chromosome 36. Statement I : Sarkaria Commission recommended that Governor of a state should be a nonpolitical person appointed after consultation with the Chief Minister of the state Statement II : This could be achieved through amending Article 165 of the Constitution of India. 37. The Legislative Council in a state in India can be created or abolished by the— (A) Parliament on the recommendation of a Governor of the state (B) Parliament alone (C) Parliament after the state assembly passes the resolution to that effect (D) Governor of the state on the recommendation of the Council of Ministers
List-I (Places indicated in the map) (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Codes : (a) (b) (A) 2 1 (B) 2 3 (C) 4 3 (D) 4 1
List-II (Seismic zone) 1. 2. 3. 4. Zone V Zone IV Zone III Zone II (c) 3 1 1 3 (d) 4 4 2 2
31. When dried raisins are put in plain water, they swell up. If put again in brine solution, they shrivel up. This phenomenon indicates the property of— (A) Diffusion (B) Perfusion (C) Osmosis (D) Fusion 32. Consider the following items— 1. Proteins, Carbohydrates, and Fats 2. Vitamins 3. Minerals 4. Water Which of the above are considered as the constituents of food ? Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 4 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Directions—(Q. 33–36) The next items consist of two statements, statement I and statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below—
38. The Government Bill means a Bill introduced by a— (A) Member of the Treasury 35. Statement I : Human beings bench in the Lok Sabha have 23 pair of chromosomes, (B) Member of the Parliament one of which is the sex chrowho is not a Minister mosome and the remaining 22 (C) Minister in the Lok Sabha autosomes. The X-linked diseases are related to mutations (D) Minister in any House of the on a sex chromosome Parliament Directions—(Q. 39–42) The next four items are based on the Table given below. Match List-I with List-II, List-III and List-IV, and select the correct answer using the code given below—
List–I (Ruler) A. Ashoka List–II (Important Battle) 1. Against several I. rulers of Northern and Southern India 2. Kalinga war II. List–III (Dynasty) Kushana i. List–IV (Significant work) Writer and poet, patron of learning besides an empire builder Political conquest, patron of learning Holding the 4th Buddhist Council and patron of learning Spread of Dharma, ahimsa and welfare activities
B.
Samudragupta C. Kanishka
Maurya
ii. iii.
3. Battle of Pundravar- III. Pushpavati dhana
D. Harshavardhana
4. Against the Chinese IV. Gupta and the Parthians
iv.
39.
List-I List-II List-III List-IV (A) A 1 II iv (B) A (C) B (D) B 2 1 2 II IV IV iv iii iii
40.
List-I List-II List-III List-IV (A) C 4 I iii (B) D (C) C (D) D 3 4 3 III I III i i ii
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41. (A) (B) (C) (D) 42. (A) (B) (C) (D)
List-I List-II List-III List-IV B 1 III i C 4 IV ii B 1 IV ii C 4 III i List-I List-II List-III List-IV A 1 II iii D 3 III ii A 1 II iii D 3 III i
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 46. Sound moves with higher velocity if— (A) pressure of the medium is decreased (B) temperature of the medium is increased (C) humidity of the medium is increased (D) Both (B) and (C) above 47. Which one of the following is the correct angle between the incident and reflected rays when a ray of light incident normally on a plane mirror ? (A) 180° (C) 45° (B) 90° (D) 0°
2.
doubling the distance of separation between the plates. reducing the distance of separation between the plates to half the original separation. doubling both the areas of the plates and the distance of separation between the plates.
3.
4.
43. Right to Information in India is a— (A) Fundamental Right (B) Legal Right (C) Both Fundamental and Legal Rights (D) Neither Fundamental nor Legal Right 44. Which among the following statements are correct with regard to the Portuguese in India ? 1. They had the monopoly over the Eastern trade in the 16th Century. 2. They possessed Bombay in the beginning. 3. They had trading settlements at Cochin, Diu and Daman. 4. The Mughals denied them any trading concessions. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1 and 3 only 45. Which among the following statements with respect to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is/are correct ? 1. The procedure and grounds for his removal from the office are the same as of a Judge of Supreme Court. 2. He prescribes the form in which accounts of the Union and the States are to be kept. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1 and 4 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 3 only (D) 2 and 3 51. If two conducting spheres are separately charged and then brought in contact— (A) the total energy of the two spheres is conserved (B) the total charge on the spheres is conserved (C) both the total energy and charge are conserved
48. Which one of the following four glass lenses is a diverging lens ? (A)
(B)
(D) the final potential is always the mean of the original potential of the two spheres 52. Two pieces of metallic wire having equal length and equal volume placed in air have different resistances. The two wires must— (A) have different cross sections (B) have same temperatures (C) be of different materials (D) be of same density 53. If a heater coil is cut into two equal parts and only one part is used in the heater, the heat generated will be— (A) doubled (B) four times (C) one-fourth (D) halved 54. The direction of magnetic field at a point due to an infinitely long wire carrying current is— (A) parallel to the current (B) antiparallel to the current (C) along the perpendicular drawn from a point on the wire (D) perpendicular to the plane containing the conductor and the point
(C)
(D) 49. Magnetism of a bar magnet can be destroyed if it is— 1. kept in the magnetic meridian. 2. placed in a direction opposite that of the Earth’s horzontal intensity. 3. heated to a temperature known as Curie temperature. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 50. Capacity of a parallel plate condenser can be doubled by— 1. doubling the areas of the plates.
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55. A hollow metal ball carrying an electric charge produces no electric field at points— (A) outside the sphere (B) on its surface (C) inside the sphere (D) only at the centre 56. A man is sitting on a rotating stool with his arms outstretched. If suddenly he folds his arm the angular velocity of the man would— (A) increase (B) decrease (C) become zero (D) remain constant 57. For a particle revolving in a circular path, the acceleration of the particle is— (A) along the tangent (B) along the radius (C) zero (D) along the circumference of the circle 58. A circus performer of mass M is walking along a wire as shown
T Wire
(A) the force is too small to move the ball (B) air friction holds the ball back (C) of action and reaction (D) the ball has inertia 60. The visible light has a wavelength range from about 380 nm (violet) to 780nm (red). If an excited object emits light with wavelength of 15 nm, to which one of the following ranges does it belong ? (A) X-ray (C) Infrared (B) Gamma ray (D) Ultraviolet
65. Metal pipes used to carry water sometimes burst in the winter. This is because— (A) water expands when it freezes (B) metal contracts more than water (C) outside of the pipe contracts more than inside (D) metal expands more than water 66. Which among the following statements about Nirupam Sen is/are correct ? 1. In the year 2009 he was appointed as Special Senior Adviser to the President of the UN General Assembly on the world financial and economic crisis. 2. He was formerly the Indian Ambassador to the UK. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) (B) (C) (D) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2
61. Microwave oven consumes less power due to— (A) small frequency of radiation (B) short wavelength of radiation (C) large frequency as well as wavelength of radiation (D) small frequency as well as wavelength of radiation 62. The sun is constantly radiating energy and yet its surface temperature is nearly constant at 6000°C. The constancy of solar temperature is due to— (A) fission (B) radioactivity (C) fusion (D) black hole evaporation 63. An annular solar eclipse occurred during January 2010 with duration of annularity around 12 minutes. It is predicted that such long annular duration will not occur till the year 3043. Such prediction is possible due to— (A) Einstein’s theory of relativity (B) Darwin’s theory of natural selection (C) Newton’s theory of gravitation (D) Hawking’s theory of black hole
67. Consider the following statement— I can only thank a genius director like Guru Dutt for giving me an opportunity to work in his films and translate his conceptions on screen. I was able to involve (myself) in many innovative experiments he had tried. The best example is the making of ‘Kagaz Ke Phool’ (1959), which is the first cinemascope venture in the Indian film industry. On receipt of a prestigious award of India the above statement was made recently by— (A) Santhosh Sivan (B) Ravi K. Chandran (C) Ramachandra Babu (D) V. K. Murthy 68. Consider the following Statements about General V. K. Singh— 1. He is the first trained commando to take over as the Chief of the Army Staff of Indian Army.
in the figure given above. The tension T in the wire is : (g = acceleration due to gravity) (A) approximately Mg (B) less than Mg (C) more than Mg (D) depends on whether the performer stands on one or two feet 59. A heavy ball is suspended as shown in the figure given below.
Upper string
Lower string
A quick jerk on the lower string will break that string but a slow pull on the lower string will break the upper string. The first result occurs because :
64. Internet communication uses optical fibre cables because of— (A) low cost (B) free from virus threat (C) high data carrying capacity (D) faster than light communication of signals
PD/December/2010/1111
2.
He belongs to the Rajputana Rifles regiment of Indian Army. 3. General Singh succeeded General Deepak Kapoor. Which among the statements given above is/are correct ? Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 3 only (D) 1 and 2 only 69. Consider the following passage and identify the form of dance theatre referred thereto using the code given below— This is a uniquely traditional form of dance theatre of India with a formidable classical background. The main essence of this form of dance drama is its attachment with religion, which provides the most common theme for its plays. The performance begins with a prayer offering to the lord Ganesha, which is followed by a comedy act, accompanied by the background music of the chenda and the maddale, and a tala (cymbals) played by a team of three. The narrator, who is also a part of the team is called Bhagavata, and is the producer, the director, and the head of the ceremony. His primary task involves the narration of the story through songs, introduction of the characters, and occasionally conversing with them. Another unique feature of it is the totally unrehearsed and unwritten use of dialogues, which makes it so special. Codes : (A) Cheraw (B) Yakshagana (C) Devarattam (D) Jatra 70. In a rare case, a record number of about 20000 employees of the Government of Kerala retired on a single day (on 31 March, 2010). Which among the following statements is/are correct in this respect ? 1. The mass retirement follows the Kerala government’s move to allow employees retiring any day during the year to work till March 31.
2.
In a recent bid to reduce burden on the state exchequer, the Government of Kerala reduced the retirement age of government employees from 59 to 58 years. 3. More than 50% of these retired were from the Education department. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 only 71. Car manufacturer Maruti has stopped selling its popular brand Maruti 800 in some major cities of India from 1st of April 2010. Which among the following statements is/are correct in this regard ? 1. The engine of the car is unable to meet the stricter Bharat Stage IV norms that become mandatory in some major cities of India from that data. 2. The company has decided to promote another brand of car in the small car segment in some select cities. 3. The company wants to shorten its product line. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 2 only 72. In a major eco-friendly step towards renewable energy generation in India, in June 2010 seaweed sourced ethanol (ethyl alcohol), a biofuel additive in transport fuel, has been used to run a car for the first time. With regard to this which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. Experiment in this direction was carried out by the scientists of Central Salt and Marine Chemicals Research Institute (CSMCRI), Bhavnagar.
2.
India has become the first country in the world to produce and use green fuel to run cars. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 73. Which of the following aspects with regard to the T-20 world cup (Men’s) cricket and T-20 world cup (Women’s) cricket tournaments held in the year 2010 was/were common ? 1. Both the tournaments were won by England 2. The tournaments were held in West Indies 3. There was a tie match each in both the tournaments Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 3 only 74. Which amongst the following statements is/are correct about the INS Arihant ? 1. It is India’s first nuclear submarine. 2. It is India’s first aircraft carrier. 3. It has been indigenously built in India. (A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 only 75. Which among the following statements about the ZaranjDelaram road is/are correct ? 1. It was constructed by Border Road Organization in Afghanistan. 2. It links India with Afghanistan via Pakistan. 3. This road will open up market for Indian goods in Afghanistan via Iran. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 3 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 1 and 2 (D) 2 only
PD/December/2010/1112
Directions—(Q. 76–79) The next four items are based on the following Table : Match List-I with List-II, List-III and List-IV, and select the correct answer using the code given below :
List–I (Body system) A. Blood Circulation B. Excretory C. Alimentary D. Skeletal E. Blood F. Respiratory G. Neurological H. Immunological List–II (Organ) 1. Bone marrow I. 2. Thymus 3. Intestine 4. Lung 5. Bone 6. Heart 7. Kidney 8. Neuron II. List–III (Structure) Alveoli List–IV (Function of the system) i. Clot formation Perfusion of tissues Support and protect of body frame Oxygenation Filtration of body waste Absorption of nutrients
(C) Soap takes away the oily part of the soil and thus separates the soil from the cloth (D) The soap molecules bind with the soil, lift the soil and keep it suspended which can then be rinsed away 83. Which one among the following statements is not correct about graphite ? (A) It is the most stable allotrope of carbon (B) It is an electrically conducting material (C) Crystalline spherical beads of graphite have very good lubricating property under dry conditions (D) It is the highest grade of coal 84. Which one among the following is not a property of salt ? (A) Salts have ordered packing arrangements called lattices (B) Salts have low melting points but high boiling points (C) Salts are brittle (D) Salts conduct electricity when dissolved in water or even in the molten state 85. Which among the following statements with regard to pH scale is/are correct ? 1. It is a logarithmic scale. 2. The scale is limited to 0–14 because the ionic product of water is about 10–14 . 3. The lower the value of pH the greater is the acidity of the solution. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 only 86. An oxidizing agent is a substance which— (A) increases the oxidation number of an element in a given substance (B) decreases the oxidation number of an element in a given substance (C) is oxidized itself in an oxidation-reduction reaction (D) loses electrons in an oxidation-reduction reaction
T-lymphocyte ii. iii. iv. v. vi.
III. Myocardium IV. Matrix V. Nephron
VI. Villi VII. Axon VIII. Platelets
vii. Fighting infection and foreign invasion viii. Transmission of electrical impulse
76.
List-I List-II List-III List-IV (A) A 1 III ii (B) B 7 VI v (C) A 6 III ii (D) B 2 V v List-I List-II List-III List-IV (A) C 3 VI vi (B) D 1 V iii (C) C 2 VII vi (D) D 5 IV vii List-I List-II List-III List-IV (A) E 1 I i (B) F 2 I iv (C) E 1 IV v (D) F 4 I iv List-I List-II List-III List-IV (A) G 8 VII viii (B) H 2 II iv (C) G 8 VI vii (D) H 1 II vii
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 3 and 4 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 3 only 81. Which among the following are the properties of good paint ? 1. The paint should be opaque and have high covering power. The solid particles in paint should reflect much of the destructive light to ensure long life of the paint. Combination of pigments, e.g., white lead and TiO2 give better result.
77.
78.
2.
3.
79.
4.
80. Consider the following statements regarding the recent global outbreak of ‘Swine Flu’— 1. 2. 3. The agent of infection is not well identified. The risk is higher in those who consume pork. It has a propensity to spread from contact with an infected person. Absence of an effective treatment or vaccine makes it risk for a global pandemic.
Addition of plasticiser destroy the elasticity of the film and leads to cracking. Select the correct answer using the codes given below— Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only 82. By which one among the following mechanism, soap removes dirt (soil) from cloth ? (A) Soap dissolves the soil as such (B) Soap reacts with soil and converts them into soluble silicates
4.
PD/December/2010/1113
87. Neutral water with pH about 7 becomes slightly acidic when aerated. This is because— (A) oxygen from air is dissolved in the water which makes the water acidic (B) dirt, which get contaminated with the water during aeration makes the water acidic (C) ultraviolet radiation dissociates water molecules and makes water acidic (D) carbon-dioxide from air is dissolved 88. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (A) Diesel burns with air in a diesel engine at a high temperature at which nitrogen and oxygen from air can combine whereas petrol burns at a lower temperature at which nitrogen and oxygen cannot combine (B) Diesel contains some nitrogenous compounds whereas petrol does not (C) Nitrogen from air is easily dissolved in diesel but it is not soluble in petrol (D) A catalyst is used in diesel engines which contains nitrogen whereas petrol engines do not need such catalysts 89. Consider the following statements with regard to the properties of water— 1. Water is a good solvent for ionic compound but poor solvent for covalent compound. Water is a good solvent for covalent compound but poor solvent for ionic compound.
lime. It is seen that the composition of the elements in both the natural and synthetic calcium carbonate are same. The validity of which one among the following laws is confirmed by this observation ? (A) Law of conservation of mass (B) Law of definite proportion (C) Law of multiple proportion (D) Avogadro’s law 91. When aqueous solutions of two salts are mixed, the third salt formed may appear as a solid precipitates or a clear solution depending upon the solubility of its ions. It is observed that all salts of Na, K, NH4 are soluble. All nitrates and bicarbonates are also soluble. All halides (chlorides, bromides, iodides) are soluble except those of Ag, Hg (I) and Pb. All sulphates are soluble except those of Ag, Ca, Ba and Pb. Which one among the following combinations of solutions will produce a solid precipitate ? (A) Sodium sulphate and barium chloride (B) Magnesium sulphate and barium bicarbonate (C) Lithium iodide and barium chloride (D) Ammonium sulphate and potassium bromide 92. A mixture containing SiO2 , NaCl and NH4 Cl is taken for separating the constituents. The suitable steps required for this are— (A) Sublimation-dissolutionfiltration-crystallization (B) Dissolution-filtrationcrystallization-distillation (C) Sublimation-evaporationdissolution-decomposition (D) Dissolution-distillationdecomposition-evaporation 93. Iodized salt is a— (A) mixture of potassium iodide and common salt (B) mixture of molecular iodine and common salt (C) compound formed by combination of potassium iodide and common salt
(D) compound formed by combination of molecular iodine and common salt 94. Which one among the following is a chemical process ? (A) Distillation of sea (salty) water (B) Crystallization of impure salt (NaCl) (C) Production of iodine (I2 ) from seaweeds (D) Sublimation of iodine (I2) 95. Which one among the following statements regarding the properties of mixtures and compounds is not correct ? (A) A mixture shows the properites of its constituents but the properties of a compound are entirely different from its constituents (B) A mixture may be homogeneous or heterogeneous but a compound is a homogeneous substance (C) The constituents of a mixture can be separated by physical method but those of a compound cannot be separated by physical method (D) Energy is either absorbed or evolved during the preparation of a mixture but not in the preparation of a compound 96. Which one of the following characteristics of the particle
2.
3.
Water has maximum density at the temperature 277 K. Which of the statements given above are correct ? Codes : (A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 90. Calcium carbonate is naturally available as limestone and can also be synthesized from quick
Velocity O
Time
does the shaded area of the velocity-time graph shown above represent ? (A) Momentum (B) Acceleration (C) Distance covered (D) Speed 97. A boby is at rest on the surface of the earth. Which one among the following statements is correct regarding this ?
PD/December/2010/1114
(A) No force is acting on the body (B) Only weight of the body acts on it (C) Net downward force is equal to the net upward force (D) None of the above statements is correct 98. A pendulum beats faster than a standard pendulum. In order to bring it to the standard beat, the length of the pendulum is to be— (A) reduced (B) increased (C) reduced and the mass of the bob increased (D) reduced and also the mass of the bob reduced 99. Two identical block of ice, A and B, float in water as shown in the
B A Water level
Answers with Hints
P.Darpan
Union Public Service Commission
Changes in Syllabus and Pattern of the Preliminary Examination from 2011 in the Scheme of Civil Services Examination
? The Preliminary Examination shall now comprise of two compulsory Papers of 200 marks each and of two hours duration each. Detailed below is the new syllabus and pattern of the Preliminary Examination, which is brought to the notice of the prospective candidates intending to appear at the Civil Services Examination (CSE) in 2011 onwards: Current events of National and International importance. History of India and Indian National Movement. Indian and World Geography—Physical, Social, Economic Geography of India and the World. Indian Polity and Governance—Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc. Economic and Social Development—Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc. General issues on Environmental ecology, Bio-diversity and Climate Changethat do not require subject specialization. General Science. Comprehension Interpersonal skills including communication skills Logical reasoning and analytical ability Decision-making and problem solving General mental ability Basic numeracy (numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude etc.) (Class X level), Data interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency etc. Class X level) English Language Comprehension skills (Class X level) Questions relating to English Language Comprehension skills of Class X level (last item in the Syllabus of Paper-II) will be tested through passages from English language only without providing Hindi translation thereof in the question paper. The questions will be of multiple choice, objective type. The prospective candidates are advised to note that no changes are being introduced at this stage in the Civil Services (Mains) Examination and Personality Test in the scheme of Civil Services Examination (CSE).
figure given above. Which one among the following statements in this regard is correct ? (A) Block A displaces a greater volume of water since the pressure acts on a smaller bottom area (B) Block A displaces a greater volume of water since its submerged end is lower in the water (C) Block B displaces a greater volume of water since its submerged end has a greater area in water (D) The two blocks displace equal volumes of water since they have the same specific gravity and same mass 100. When a ship floats on water— (A) it displaces no water (B) the mass of water displaced is equal to the mass of the ship (C) the mass of water displaced is lesser than the mass of the ship (D) the mass of water displaced is greater than the mass of the ship
Paper I (200 marks) Duration : Two hours
? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ?
Paper II (200 marks) Duration : Two hours
? ?
? ?
PD/December/2010/1115
Solved Paper
U.P. PCS LOWER SUBORDINATE SERVICES (Pre.) EXAM. 2008
(Held on 26-9-2010)
General Studies
1. The Thermometer suitable to measure 2000°C temperature is— (A) total radiation thermometer (B) gas thermometer (C) mercury thermometer (D) vapour pressure thermometer 2. The gas used for artificial ripening of green fruit is— (A) ethane (B) ethylene (C) carbon dioxide (D) oxytocin 3. In which of the following districts India's largest mica belt is found ? (A) Balaghat and Chhindwara (B) Udaipur, Ajmer and Alwar (C) Hazaribagh, Monghyr Gaya and (B) A method for the development of species for food crops (C) A techniques for pre-information regarding genetic diseases (D) A technique for prevention of cataract 9. 2, 4-D is— (A) an insecticide (B) an explosive (C) a fungicide (D) a herbicide 10. The percentage of nuclear enery in India's total energy generation is— (A) 60% (B) 27% (C) 10% (D) 2% 11. ‘Satish Dhawan Space Centre’ is located at— (A) Vishakhapatnam (B) Goa (C) Shri Hari Kota (D) Chennai 12. Which one of the following scientists has carried out researches both in the field of biology and physics ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Jagdish Chandra Bose Har Govind Khorana C. V. Raman Homi J. Bhabha Identify the place which has not been selected for the purpose. (A) Vishakhapatnam (B) Manglore (C) Padur (D) Ankaleshwar 16. Presidents of USA and Russia recently signed a historic treaty committing their respective country to drastically reduce arms. It was signed on— (A) 15 January, 2010 (B) 18 May, 2009 (C) 08 April, 2010 (D) 12 February, 2010 17. Russia has agreed recently to construct how many units of nuclear Reactor at Kudankulam in Tamil Nadu ? (A) 02 (B) 04 (C) 05 (D) 06 18. Who of the following has been appointed as Chairman of Mumbai Stock Exchange in March, 2010 ? (A) Prof. Rakesh Mohan (B) Prof. Bhagawati (C) S. Ram Dorai (D) Prof. Manoranjan Misra 19. Who of the following is the fourth woman Judge appointed in the Supreme Court in India in April, 2010 ? (A) Justice Fatima Beevi (B) Justice Sujata Manohar (C) Justice Gyan Sudha Misra (D) Justice Ruma Pal 20. A World Expo 2010 as a grand event to showcase the best achievements of human civilisation has been opened on May 1, 2010. Where was this expo opened ? (A) In Shanghai (B) In Kuala Lumpur (C) In Tokyo (D) In Moscow
(D) Salem and Dharmapuri 4. Silent valley is situated in— (A) Uttarakhand (B) Kerala (C) Arunachal (D) Jammu and Kashmir 5. The fastest computer of the world is— (A) Param-10000 (B) J-8 (C) Yenha-3 (D) T-3A 6. Which one of the following organizations is not related to science and technology ? (A) DST (B) CSIR (C) ICSSR (D) DAE 7. The name of the ICBM developed by India with a strike range of more than 2000 km is— (A) Prithvi (B) Trishul (C) Akash (D) Agni-II 8. Geneco technology is— (A) A defence system for prevention from AIDS
13. Which one of the following is a bacterial disease ? (A) Herpes (B) Polio (C) Pox (D) Tetanus 14. An Offshore Patrol Vessel was inducted into Coast Guard in March 2010. It is named— (A) Eagle (B) Vishwast (C) Jatayu (D) Aashwast 15. To insulate the country from disruptions in supply of crude oil, India has eastablished ‘India Strategic Petroleum Reserves Ltd.’ It will construct underground storages at three places.
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21. Air Force Exercise Garuda-2010 was held by India jointly with which of the following countries ? (A) France and Singapore (B) Australia and France (C) Singapore and Australia (D) None of these 22. Which one of the following states bagged the ‘National Rural Health Mission Award’ of the Government of India in April, 2010 ? (A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Orissa (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Rajasthan 23. Who of the following has been included in the ‘Hall of Fame’ by I.C.C. in March, 2010 ? (A) Sachin Tendulkar (B) Sunil Gavaskar (C) Kapil Dev (D) Anil Kumble 24. Who said, ‘Imperialism’ is dead as ‘dodo’ ? (A) Ramje Macdonald (B) Winston Churchill (C) Clement Attlee (D) Lord Wavell 25. The annual session of Muslim League in the year 1970 was held at— (A) Dacca (B) Karachi (C) Aligarh (D) Lucknow 26. The Indian National Congress had launched the Non Co-operation Movement in the year— (A) 1918 A.D. (B) 1919 A.D. (C) 1920 A.D. (D) 1921 A.D. 27. Who amongst the following made regular broadcast on Congress Radio operated during Quit India Movement ? (A) Jaya Prakash Narayan (B) Subhas Chandra Bose (C) Ram Manohar Lohia (D) Sucheta Kriplani 28. Which of the following newspapers advocated revolutionary terrorism during the period of Indian freedom struggle ? 1. Sandhya 2. Yugantar 3. Kaal
Choose the correct answer from the code given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 (C) 2, 3 (B) 1, 3 (D) 1, 2, 3
29. The movement in India which became popular during the first World War was the— (A) Swadeshi and Boycott Movement (B) Home Rule Movement (C) Separatist Movement (D) Swarajist Party Movement 30. Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct answer using the code given below : 1. Jallianwalabagh Massacre 2. Chaurichaura Episode 3. Champaran Movement 4. Moplah Rebellion Codes : (A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (C) 3, 1, 4, 2 (B) 2, 1, 3, 4 (D) 3, 1, 2, 4
the answer from the code given below : 1. Shaukat Ali 2. Mohammad Ali 3. Shariatullah 4. Abul Kalam Azad Codes : (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 34. Kakori Conspiracy Case took place in the year— (A) 1920 (B) 1925 (C) 1930 (D) 1935 35. In the Interim Government (1946) who held the Railways Portfolio ? (A) Baldev Singh (B) T. T. Chudrigar (C) Asaf Ali (D) Abdul Rab Nishtar 36. The Province where Indian National Congress did not form ministry after the General election of 1937 was— (A) Orissa (B) Bihar (C) Madras (D) Bengal 37. The transfer of capital of British India from Calcutta to Delhi was effected during the period of— (A) Lord Minto (B) Lord Hardinge (C) Lord Chelmsford (D) Lord Reading 38. Who was the leader of the Swadeshi Movement in Madras ? (A) Srinivas Sastri (B) Rajagopalachari (C) Chidambaram Pillai (D) Chintamani
31. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below the Lists : List-I (a) (b) (c) (d) 1. 2. 3. 4. Abul Kalam Azad Pherozeshah Mehta Annie Besant Mahatma Gandhi List-II Bombay Chronicle Al-Hilal Young India New India (a) 2 1 2 3 (b) 1 2 1 2 (c) 4 3 3 1 (d) 3 4 4 4
Codes : (A) (B) (C) (D)
32. Who of the following was the President of Indian National Congress for consecutive six years ? (A) Jawahar Lal Nehru (B) Dadabhai Naoroji (C) Abul Kalam Azad (D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale 33. Who of the following had started the Khilafat Movement ? Choose
39. Which one of the following statements is not correct about Dadabhai Naoroji ? (A) He wrote a book ‘Poverty and Un-British rule in India’ (B) He worked as a professor of Gujarati in the University College, London (C) He laid the foundation of woman's education in Bombay (D) He was elected as a member of British Parliament on the ticket of the Conservative Party 40. Which one of the following was directly related to the Poona Pact of 1932 ?
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(A) (B) (C) (D)
Indian women Indian labour class Indian farmers Indian depressed class
(C) Strabo (D) Megasthenese 48. Which Sultan of Delhi assumed the title of Alexander the Great ? (A) Balban (B) Alauddin Khalji (C) Mahammad Bin Tughlaq (D) Sikandar Lodi 49. Who among the following was given the title of ‘Shaikh-ulHind’ ? (A) Baba Fariduddin (B) Khwaja Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki (C) Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti (D) Shaikh Salim Chishti 50. Which one of the following is correctly matched ? (A) Kakatiya : Devagiri (B) Hoyasala : Dwarsamudra (C) Yadav : Warangal (D) Pandya : Madura 51. Who of the following introduced silver coin called ‘tanka’ ? (A) Alauddin Khilji (B) Qutub-ud-din Aibak (C) Iltutmish (D) Balban 52. From the following names identify the one who was not the brother of Humayun. (A) Kamran (B) Usman (C) Askari (D) Hindal 53. ‘Permanent Settlement’ was introduced during the tenure of— (A) Warren Hastings (B) Lord Cornwallis (C) Sir John Shore (D) Lord Wellesley 54. In whose reign was the ‘Treaty of Chittor’ signed between Mughal and the Rana of Mewar ? (A) Akbar (B) Jahangir (C) Shahjahan (D) Aurangzeb 55. Which medieval Indian ruler prior to Akbar has been referred to as the ‘Akbar of Kashmir’ ? (A) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi (B) Sultan Sikandar
(C) Zainul Abedin (D) Mahmud Gawan 56. The Bengali leader who opposed socio-religious reforms and support orthodoxy was— (A) Radhakant Deb (B) Nemisadhan Bose (C) Hemchandra Biswas (D) Hemchandra De 57. Varindra Ghosh was associated with— (A) Anushilan Samiti (B) Sadhava Samaj (C) Abhinava Bharat (D) Swadesh Bandhav Samiti 58. Who was the first Sultan of Delhi to have levied ‘Haqq-i-Sharab’ or irrigation tax ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Alauddin Khalji Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq Mohammad Bin Tughlaq Firoz Tughlaq
41. Subhas Chandra Bose had founded ‘Forward Bloc’ in the year— (A) 1936 A.D. (B) 1937 A.D. (C) 1938 A.D. (D) 1939 A.D. 42. The Gujarra minor rock edict, in which the name of Ashoka is mentioned, is located in— (A) Mirzapur district of Uttar Pradesh (B) Datia district of Madhya Pradesh (C) Jaipur district of Rajasthan (D) Champaran district of Bihar 43. Choose the correct pair from the following— (A) Khajuraho —Chandellas (B) Ellora caves —Saka (C) Mahabalipuram —Rashtrakutas (D) Meenakshi Temple —Pallavas 44. Which of the following sites has yielded skeleton of dog along with human skeleton in burial ? (A) Brahmagiri (B) Burzahom (C) Chirand (D) Maski 45. Which of the following Ashokan inscriptions is devoted to the principle of religious tolerance completely ? (A) Rock edict XIII (B) Rock edict XII (C) Pillar inscription VII (D) Bhabru minor rock edict 46. The earliest evidence of agriculture in Indian sub-continent comes from— (A) Koldihwa (B) Lahuradeva (C) Mehargarh (D) Tokwa 47. Which of the following mentions about the meeting of Sandrokottas (Chandragupta Maurya) with Alexander, the Great ? (A) Pliny (B) Justin
59. Which Sultan of Delhi had established a separate agriculture department and had planned the ‘rotation of crops’ ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Iltutmish Balban Alauddin Khalji Mohammad Bin Tughlaq
60. As per world statistics 2008, what approximate percentage of world population lives in Asia ? (A) 61% (C) 65% (B) 63% (D) 66%
61. The State having highest scheduled caste population in India is— (A) Rajasthan (B) Maharashtra (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Uttar Pradesh 62. Ujjain is situated at the bank of— (A) Chambal river (B) Kschipra river (C) Godavari river (D) Narmada river 63. Bagalihar Project lies on the— (A) (B) (C) (D) Jhelum river Ravi river Chenab river Indus river
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64. Drakensberg is a mountain of— (A) Botswana (B) Namibia (C) South Africa (D) Zambia 65. Which one of the following is a cold current of the South Atlantic Ocean ? (A) Canary Current (B) Benguela Current (C) Agulhas Current (D) Brazil Current 66. Which region of the world, would you associate with ‘Bushmen’ ? (A) East Africa (B) Sahara Desert (C) New Zealand (D) Kalahari 67. Identify the only tributary of River Ganges which rises in the plains— (A) Son (B) Sharda or Saryu (C) Gomti (D) Ram Ganga 68. Uttar Pradesh holds the first place in India in the production of— (A) Rice and wheat (B) Wheat and sugarcane (C) Rice and Sugarcane (D) Wheat and pulses 69. Which one of the following is the tertiary activity ? (A) Forestry (B) Manufacturing (C) Farming (D) Marketing 70. Chilka lake is situated in— (A) West Bengal (B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Orissa (D) Tamil Nadu 71. The distance of Moon from the Earth is— (A) 364 thousand kms (B) 300 thousand kms (C) 446 thousand kms (D) 384 thousand kms 72. Japan is one of the leading industrial countries of the world because— (A) It has ample mineral resources (B) It has ample bio-energy resources (C) Industrial revolution was initiated here (D) It has high technological capacity 73. The planet which is called twin sister of earth is— (A) Mercury (B) Venus (C) Mars (D) Pluto 74. The is— (A) (B) (C) (D) deepest lake of the World Pushkar lake in Rajasthan Lake superior in America Victoria lake in Africa Baikal lake in Russia
(C) to strive towards abolition of untouchability (D) to develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of enquiry and reform 77. Education which was initially a state subject was transferred to the Concurrent list by the— (A) 24th Amendment (B) 25th Amendment (C) 42nd Amendment (D) 44th Amendment 78. The Constitution is silent in the Directive Principles of State Policy about— (A) adult education (B) living wages for workers (C) free legal aid to the poor (D) Primary education to children till they complete the age of 6 years 79. The Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly under Dr. B. R. Ambedkar had how many other members ? (A) 7 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 4 80. The distribution of legislative power between the centre and the states in the Constitution is given in— (A) Sixth schedule (B) Seventh schedule (C) Eighth schedule (D) Ninth schedule 81. The number of High Court of Judicature in India is— (A) (B) (C) (D) Twenty Twenty one Twenty two Twenty three
75. The deepest trenches of the ocean are found in— (A) Indian Ocean (B) Pacific Ocean (C) Arctic Ocean (D) Atlantic Ocean 76. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen do not include duty— (A) to protect and improve the natural environment (B) to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom
Indian, P & S Bank,
SBI (6100) Special Batch
November
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82. Which one of the following states does not have a bicameral legislature ? (A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Bihar (D) Karnataka 83. The cardinal features of political system in India are— 1. It is a democratic republic. 2. It has a Parliamentary form of government. 3. The supreme power vests in people of India. 4. It provide for a unified authority Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) All the four 84. The basis of determining dearness allowances to employees of India is— (A) National Income (B) Consumer Price Index (C) Standard of Living (D) Per Capita Income 85. Narsinham Committee related to— (A) Higher education reforms (B) Tax structure reforms (C) Banking structure reforms (D) Planning implementation reforms 86. Note issuing department of Reserve Bank of India should always possess the minimum gold stock worth— (A) 85 crore (B) 115 crore (C) 200 crore (D) None of the above 87. ‘Smart Money’ is a term used for— (A) Internet Banking (B) Credit Card (C) Saving Account in the Bank (D) Current Account in the Bank 88. The aim of differentiated Interest scheme was to provide concessional loans to— (A) Weaker Section of Society (B) Public Sector Industries (C) Public Limited Companies (D) Big Exporters
89. The first Industry to develop in India was the— (A) Cottage industry (B) Cement industry (C) Iron and steel industry (D) Engineering industry 90. Which one of the following states was having the highest Human Development Index in the year 2001 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Assam Kerala Uttar Pradesh Madhya Pradesh
97. Which of the following is fish ? (A) Sea cucumber (B) Sea cow (C) Sea horse (D) Sea lion 98. The yellow colour of human urine is due to a pigment called— (A) Cytochrome (B) Urochrome (C) Haemochrome (D) Phenolichrome 99. The branch of study dealing with old age and aging is called— (A) Oncology (B) Gerentology (C) Teratology (D) Ornithology
91. In which one of the following Countries High Yield variety seed were developed for the first time ? (A) Argentina (B) China 100. Emphysaema is a disease caused (C) Mexico (D) India by environmental pollution in 92. Which one of the following per which the affected organ of the capita daily calorie intake has body is— been recommended for deter(A) liver (B) kidney mining the poverty line in rural (C) lungs (D) brain areas in India ? (A) 2200 (C) 2500 (B) 2400 (D) 2600
Answers
93. In India which agency is entrusted with the collection of data of capital formation ? (A) RBI and Central Statistical Organisation (B) RBI and SBI (C) RBI and all other Commercial Banks (D) Central Statistical Organisation and National Sample Survey 94. Which one of the following duration is related to XI Five Year Plan in India ? (A) 2005-10 (B) 2006-11 (C) 2007-12 (D) 2008-13 95. Open market operations of RBI refer to— (A) buying and selling of shares (B) auctioning of foreign exchange (C) trading in securities (D) transactions in gold 96. Which of the following is the smallest bone in the human body ? (A) Vomer (B) Stapes (C) Malleus (D) Incus
P.Darpan
Corrigendum
(October 2010 Issue) Page 705, Q. 6 correct answer is (A)
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Solved Paper
ORIENTAL INSURANCE COMPANY A.A.O. EXAM., 2010
(Held on 9-5-2010)
Reasoning Ability and General Awareness
(Based on Memory)
Part–I Reasoning Ability
1. If the following numbers are rewritten by interchanging the digits in ten’s place and hundred’s place and then arranging them in the descending order. What will be the second digit of the newly formed fifth number from your right ? 479, 736, 895, 978, 389, 675 (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 2. P is 60 m South-East of Q. R is 60 m North-East of Q. Then R is in which direction of P ? (A) North (B) North-East (C) South (D) South-East Directions—(Q. 3–5) Read the following information for answering the questions that follow— On a playing ground A, B, C, D and E are standing as described below facing the North. (i) B is 50 metres to the right of D. (ii) A is 60 metres to the South of B (iii) C is 40 metres to the West of D. (iv) E is 80 metres to the North of A. 3. If a boy walks from C, meets D followed by B, A and then E, how many metres has he walked if he has travelled the straight distance all through ? (A) 120 (B) 150 (C) 170 (D) 230 4. What is the minimum distance (in metre approximately) between C and E ? (A) 53 (B) 78 (C) 92 (D) 120 5. Who is to the South-East of the person who is to the left of D ? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) E
6. A man was walking in the evening just before the sun set. His wife said that, his shadow fell on his right. If the wife was walking in the opposite direction of the man, then which direction the wife was facing ? (A) North (B) West (C) South (D) East Directions—(Q. 7–11) In each of the following questions choose the set of numbers from the four alternative sets that is similar to the given set. 07. Given set : (4, 9, 18) (A) (8, 14, 22) (B) (10, 15, 25) (C) (6, 12, 23) (D) (12, 17, 26) 08. Given set : (10, 14, 17) (A) (4, 11, 14) (B) (9, 12, 15) (C) (8, 13, 18) (D) (6, 9, 12) 09. Given set : (7, 27, 55) (A) (21, 35, 52) (B) (18, 42, 65) (C) (16, 40, 72) (D) (13, 30, 58) 10. Given set : (39, 28, 19) (A) (84, 67, 52) (B) (52, 25, 17) (C) (70, 49, 36) (D) (65, 45, 21) 11. Given set : (246, 257, 358) (A) (233, 343, 345) (B) (273, 365, 367) (C) (143, 226, 237) (D) (145, 235, 325) Directions—(Q. 12–16) Each question contains six or seven statements followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in which the statements are logically related. 12. (1) All books are having pages. (2) All kings are having pages. (3) All kings are books.
(4) Some heavy things are having pages. (5) Some heavy things are books. (6) Some books are heavy. (7) Some heavy things are having pages. (A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 6, 1, 4 (C) 4, 6, 1 (D) 1, 5, 7 13. (1) No athletes are vegetarians. (2) All cricket players are athletes. (3) Some athletes play cricket. (4) Some cricket players are vegetarians. (5) No cricket player is a vegetarian. (6) All athletes are vegetarians. (A) 1, 2, 5 (B) 3, 4, 1 (C) 1, 5, 2 (D) 2, 5, 6 14. (1) All grandmothers cook well. (2) No man is a grandmother. (3) Some men do not cook well. (4) All those who cook well are men. (5) No one who cooks well is a man. (6) All those who cook well are grandmothers. (7) Some men are not grandmothers. (A) 2, 6, 5 (B) 2, 5, 6 (C) 1, 4, 2 (D) 6, 4, 7 15. (1) Looting is a crime. (2) Some crooked people are criminals. (3) All those involved in looting are criminals. (4) Some crooked people are involved in looting. (5) All criminals are looked down in society. (6) Some crooked people are not criminals. (A) 1, 4, 6 (B) 3, 6, 2 (C) 1, 2, 6 (D) 3, 4, 2
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16. (1) Some women are those who are successful in life. (2) Some men are those who have patience. (3) No man is a woman. (4) All those who have patience are successful in life. (5) Some who are successful in life are men. (6) Some men are not those are successful in life. (A) 1, 3, 6 (B) 4, 2, 6 (C) 1, 5, 3 (D) 2, 4, 5 Directions—(Q. 17–21) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answers— (A) If the data in statement (I) alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement (II) alone are not sufficient to answer the question; (B) If the data in statement (II) alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement (I) alone are not sufficient to answer the questions; (C) If the data even in both statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient to answer the question; (D) If the data in both statement (I) and (II) together are necessary to answer the question. 17. In which direction is Mahatmaji’s statue facing ? I. The statue is towards the northern end of the city. II. The statue’s shadow falls towards East at 5 O’clock in the evening. 18. What is the total number of pupils in the final year class ? I. The number of boys in the final year class is twice as much as the number of girls in that class.
19. Who is the tallest among A, B, C and D ? I. A is taller than C. II. B is taller than C and D. 20. How many Sundays are there in a particular month of a particular year ? I. The month begins on Monday. II. The month ends on Wednesday. 21. What is the total number of pages in this book ? I. I counted 132 pages from the beginning of this book. II. My wife counted 138 pages starting from the end of the same book. Directions—(Q. 22–26) In each of the questions given below, there is a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and assumptions and then decide, which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement. 22. Statement : During pre-harvest kharif seasons, the government has decided to release vast quantity of foodgrains from FCI. Assumptions : I. There may be a shortage of foodgrains in the market during this season. II. The kharif crop may be able to replenish the stock of FCI. III. There may be a demand from the farmers to procure kharif crop immediately after harvest. (A) None is implicit (B) Only I and II are implicit (C) Only II and III are implicit (D) All are implicit 23. Statement : To improve the employment situation in India, there is a need to recast the present educational system towards implementation of scientific discoveries in daily life. Assumptions : I. The students after completing such education may be able to earn their livelihood.
II.
III.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
This may bring meaning of education in the minds of the youth. The state may earn more revenue as more and more people will engage themselves in self employment. Only I and II are implicit Only III is implicit Only I and III are implicit None is implicit
24. Statement : To increase profit, the oil exporting countries decided to reduce the production of crude by 5 million barrels per day. Assumptions : I. The price of crude may increase due to less production. II. The demand of crude may remain same in future. III. Other countries may continue buying crude from these countries. (A) All are implicit (B) Only II and III are implicit (C) Only I and II are implicit (D) None is implicit 25. Statement : “We do not want you to see our product on newspaper, visit our shop to get a full view.” – an advertisement. Assumptions : I. People generally decide to purchase any product after seeing the name in the advertisement. II. Uncommon appeal may attract the customers. III. People may come to see the product. (A) All are implicit (B) None is implicit (C) Only II and III are implicit (D) Only I and II are implicit 26. Statement : The Reserve Bank of India has directed the banks to refuse fresh loans to major defaulters. Assumptions : I. II. The banks may still give loans to the defaulters. The defaulters may repay the earlier loan to get fresh loan.
II. The sum of the ages of all the pupils in the class is 399 years and their average age is 19 years.
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III. The banks may recover the bad loans through such harsh measures. (A) All are implicit (B) None is implicit (C) Both II and III are implicit (D) Both I and II are implicit Directions—(Q. 27–31) In questions given below, statements 1 and 2 are followed by conclusions I and II. Taking the statements to be right although they may seem at variance with commonly accepted facts, mark your answers as under— (A) If only conclusion I follows. (B) If only conclusion II follows. (C) If both I and II follows. (D) Neither I nor II follows. 27. Statements : 1. All hands are machines. 2. All machines are wheels. Conclusions : I. All wheels are hands. II. All hands are wheels. 28. Statements : 1. Some buds are leaves. 2. Some leaves are red. Conclusions : I. Some buds are red. II. Some leaves are not buds. 29. Statements : 1. Some stones are shells. 2. All shells are pearls. Conclusions : I. Some stones are pearls. II. All pearls are shells. 30. Statements : 1. Brown is red and blue is green. 2. Green is pink and yellow is red. Conclusions : I. Yellow is brown. II. Pink is blue. 31. Statements : 1. Merchants who do not own cars do not have bicycles either. 2. Those who do not have bicycles have tricycles. Conclusions : I. Some merchants have only tricycles. II. No one has both, the car and the tricycles.
Directions—(Q. 32–36) A number arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the stages of arrangement. Input Step I Step II : 245, 316, 436, 519, 868, 710, 689 : 710, 316, 436, 519, 868, 245, 689 : 710, 316, 245, 519, 868, 436, 689
36. Which of the following is the last step for the following input ? Input : 473, 442, 735, 542, 367, 234, 549 (A) 234, 442, 542, 473, 735, 367, 549 (B) 234, 442, 542, 735, 473, 367, 549 (C) 234, 442, 542, 473, 367, 735, 549 (D) 234, 442, 542, 735, 367, 473, 549 Directions—(Q. 37–41) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it— (1) There is a group of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F in a family. They are Psychologist, Manager, Lawyer, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer. (2) The doctor is the grandfather of F, who is a Psychologist. (3) The Manager D is married to A. (4) C, the Jeweller, is married to the Lawyer. (5) B is the mother of F and E. (6) There are two married couples in the family. (7) The Psychologist is a female while Engineer is a male. 37. What is the profession of E ? (A) Doctor (B) Engineer (C) Manager (D) Psychologist 38. How is A related to E ? (A) Brother (B) Uncle (C) Father (D) Grandfather 39. How many male numbers are there in the family ? (A) One (B) Three (C) Four (D) Two 40. What is the profession of A ? (A) Doctor (B) Lawyer (C) Jeweller (D) Manager 41. Which of the following is one of the pairs of couples in the family ? (A) AB (B) AC (C) AD (D) AE 42. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one
Step III : 710, 316, 245, 436, 868, 519, 689 Step IV : 710, 316, 245, 436, 519, 868, 689 Step IV is the last step of input. 32. If 655, 436, 764, 799, 977, 572, 333 is the input which of the following steps will be ‘333, 436, 572, 655, 977, 764, 799’ ? (A) II (B) III (C) IV (D) I 33. How many steps will be required to get the final output from the following input ? Input : 544, 653, 325, 688, 461, 231, 857 (A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 6 34. For the given input, which of the following will be third step ? Input : 236, 522, 824, 765, 622, 463, 358 (A) 358 (B) 358 (C) 358 (D) 358 522, 236, 765, 824, 622, 463, 522, 622, 236, 824, 765, 463, 522, 622, 236, 765, 824, 463, 522, 622, 236, 463, 824, 765,
35. If following is the second step for an input, what will be the fourth step ? Step II # 620, 415, 344, 537, 634, 977 (A) 620, 415, 344, 537, 634, 977 (B) 620, 415, 344, 634, 537, 977 (C) 620, 415, 344, 634, 787, 977 (D) Can’t be determined 787, 787, 787, 537,
PD/December/2010/1123
that does not belong to that group ? (A) Papaya (B) Mango (C) Jackfruit (D) Watermelon 43. Three of the following four are similar in relation to their positions in the English alphabet and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group ? (A) SPEAK : PZVKH (B) HUSKY : BPGFS (C) BRAIN : MRZIY (D) BREAK : PZVIY 44. Three of the following four groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different ? (A) DJWR (B) EKXR (C) KQDX (D) AGTN 45. Four groups of letters are given below. Three of them are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one. (A) GWOURV (B) LZKMSU (C) SFXPMG (D) JOEHNP 46. Four pairs of words are given below out of which the words in all pairs except one, bear a certain common relationship. Choose the pair in which the words are differently related. (A) (B) (C) (D) Watt : Power Ampere : Current Pascal : Pressure Radian : Degree
49. How many pairs of letters are there in the word OPERATION in which the difference between them is the same as in the English alphabet ? (A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9 50. Arrange the given words in order in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct sequence. (1) Dissipate (2) Dissuade (3) Disseminate (4) Distract (5) Dissociate (6) Dissect (A) (B) (C) (D) 6, 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 1, 6, 3, 2, 4, 5 3, 6, 1, 2, 5, 4 4, 6, 3, 1, 5, 2
52. VINA (A) (5) (0) (5) (15) (B) (5) (25) (5) (25) (C) (5) (30) (5) (30) (D) (5) (10) (5) (30) 53. AGE (A) (0) (15) (0) (B) (15) (15) (15) (C) (0) (10) (10) (D) (0) (5) (0) 54. PEAR (A) (5) (15) (15) (5) (B) (5) (25) (5) (25) (C) (5) (10) (5) (10) (D) (5) (30) (5) (30) 55. TIN (A) (B) (C) (D) (0) (5) (0) (5) (0) (5) (0) (10) (0) (5) (10) (5)
51. The letters skipped in between the adjacent letters in the series are followed by equal space. Which of the following series observes this rule ? (A) SUXADF (B) RVZDFG (C) HKNGSW (D) RVZDHL Directions—(Q. 52–56) In a certain code, letters of English alphabet are coded as given for some words. The numeric code for each letter is given in bracket under coded form and corresponds to the letter in the word in the same serial order, study the coded forms of the given words and find out the rules for their classification. Applying those rules find out the code for the words given in capital letters in the questions that follow— Word ATE NONE UNIT PIN PAGE OPEN ONE CUT SEAT DEEP (0) (5) (30) (5) (5) (30) (0) (5) (5) (5) Codes Form (5) (25) (5) (10) (25) (5) (5) (10) (15) (20) (0) (5) (30) (5) (5) (30) (0) (5) (15) (20) (25) (5) (25) (5)
56. UNIT (A) (5) (30) (5) (30) (B) (5) (10) (30) (10) (C) (30) (5) (30) (5) (D) (15) (10) (10) (15) 57. If the first and second digits in the squence 7 9 8 4 5 3 6 7 8 3 4 5 are interchanged, also the third and fourth digits, the fifth and sixth digits and so on which digit would be the sixth counting from your right ? (A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8 58. The letter I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T in their order are substituted by twelve numbers but not in that oder. 3 is assigned to R. The difference between R and M is 7. The difference between K and M is 2. What number is assigned to K ? (A) 8 (B) 12 (C) 7 (D) 11 59. Below are given six three-character numbers. The characters comprise of digits and letters. The letter stands for one less than its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle character of the 3rd number when the numbers are arranged in the decending order ? 8G6, 3DJ, F4C, 7HB, 4E6, B8I
47. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters of the series starting from behind are increased by one. Which of the following series observes this rule ? (A) ONLKI (B) OMKIG (C) OMJFA (D) OIGDC 48. If the letters of the word ‘PROTECTION’ which are at odd numbered position in the English alphabet are picked up and are arranged in alphabetical order from left and if they are now substituted by Z, Y, X and so on, beginning from left which letter will get substituted by X ? (A) E (B) O (C) T (D) I
(5) (5)
PD/December/2010/1124
(A) 7 (C) 6
(B) 8 (D) 4
60. Which of the following will be the third digit of the fourth number after the following numbers are arranged in descending order after reversing the positions of the digits within each number ? 645, 869, 458, 347, 981, 792 (A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 9
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Slovakia Scandinavia Netherlands Australasia
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Ela Bhatt Jhumpa Lahiri Punam Suri Mandakni Apte
68. The device used for locating submerged objects under sea is— (A) Sonar (B) Radar (C) Laser (D) Maser 69. Which article of the Constitution provides the Parliament the power to ammend Constitution ? (A) 376 (B) 370 (C) 368 (D) 390 70. What is the name of the first successfully cloned deer ? (A) Dawn (B) Deluxe (C) Demor (D) Dewey 71. The idea of motion pictures was propounded by— (A) N. R. Finsen (B) T. A. Edison (C) J. L. Baird (D) Berliner 72. In Greek mythology, Apollo is the god of which of the following ? (A) Love (B) Peace (C) Prophecy (D) Medicine 73. NASA’s new space telescope is— (A) Wise (B) Rise (C) Barack (D) Telle 74. Bull fighting is the national game of— (A) Italy (B) Poland (C) Spain (D) Sudan 75. In a rare recognition, the Government of Mauritius decides to introduce a book written by Uttarakhand Chief Minister Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank in the School Syllabus of the island nation, what is the name of the book ? (A) Sound of Hills (B) Sparsh Ganga (C) Heaven (D) Amrit 76. Who has been selected for the ‘Niwano Peace Prize, 2010’ for her contribution to the uplift of poor women in India ?
Part–II General Awareness
61. Which of the following stars lies nearest to our solar system ? (A) Barnard’s Star (B) Sirius A (C) Alpha Centauri A (D) Proxima Centauri 62. Of the total water on the earth, fresh water reserves constitute approximately— (A) 5·8% (B) 4·5% (C) 2·59% (D) 1·2% 63. The term ‘Bishop’ in sports is related to— (A) Chess (B) Hockey (C) Badminton (D) Bridge 64. Yakshagan is the famous dance form of the State of— (A) Orissa (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Karnataka 65. Balance of Payments means— (A) Difference between export and imports (B) Balance to be paid to the exporters (C) Balance to be paid to the industrialists (D) Balance coming in allocation of funds for States 66. A light year is equivalent to about— (A) 365 days (B) Six million miles (C) Six billion miles (D) Six trillion miles 67. Denmark, Iceland, Norway, Sweden and Finland are together called—
77. On which of the following dates in 2010 did the safeguard agreement with regard to civilian nuclear facilities between India and the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) come into force ? (A) February 28 (B) February 21 (C) February 11 (D) February 4 78. The tax which the kings used to collect from the people in the Vedic period was called— (A) Bali (B) Vidatha (C) Varman (D) Kara 79. The cells which are responsible for the production of antibodies are— (A) Red blood cells (B) Neutrophils (C) Lymphocytes (D) Platelets 80. Correct expansion of the term ‘http’ in Internet address is— (A) Hybrid text transfer protocol (B) Hyper text transfer protocol (C) Higher transfer text protocol (D) Higher text transfer protocol
Answers with Explanations
PD/December/2010/1125
Solved Paper
BANK OF BARODA PROBATIONARY OFFICERS EXAM., 2010
(Held on 30-5-2010)
Quantitative Aptitude
(Based on Memory)
Directions% (Q. 1 to 5) What will come in place of question-mark (?) in the following questions ? 01. 36 × 15 – 56 × 784 ÷ 112 = ? (A) 138 (B) 238 (C) 158 (D) 258 (E) None of these 02. 28·314 – 31·427 + 113·928 = ? + 29·114 (A) 81·711 (B) 80·701 (C) 71·711 (D) 81·701 (E) None of these 2 2 03. of 1 of 75% of 540 = ? 3 5 (A) 378 (B) 756 (C) 252 (D) 332 (E) None of these 04. 36% of 420 – 56% of 350 = ? – 94 (A) 48·2 (B) 49·2 (C) – 138·8 (D) – 158·8 (E) None of these 05. 09. 4433·764 – 2211·993 – 1133·667 + 3377·442 = ? (A) 4466 (B) 4377 (C) 3633 (D) 4144 (E) 3344 10. (13·96)2 – (15·03)2 + (18·09)2 – 32·65 = ? (A) 223 (B) 264 (C) 334 (D) 354 (E) 201 Directions—(Q. 11 to 15) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series ? 11. 13, 16, 22, 33, 51, (?) (A) 89 (B) 78 (C) 102 (D) 69 (E) None of these 12. 39, 52, 78, 117, 169, (?) (A) 246 (B) 182 (C) 234 (D) 256 (E) None of these 13. 656, 432, 320, 264, 236, (?) (A) 222 (B) 229 (C) 232 (D) 223 (E) None of these 14. 62, 87, 187, 412, 812, (?) (A) 1012 (B) 1437 (C) 1337 (D) 1457 (E) None of these 15. 7, 8, 24, 105, 361, (?) (A) 986 (B) 617 (C) 486 (D) 1657 (E) None of these Directions—(Q. 16 to 20) In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer if— (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) x x x x x > ? < ? = y y y y y or the relationship cannot be established. 16. I. x 2 + x – 20 = 0 II. y 2 – y – 30 = 0 17. I. II. 18. I. II. 19. I. II. 20. I. II. 225x2 – 4 = 0 ? 225y ???? + 2 = 0 7 4 + = ?x ? ?x ? ? x ?? (11)5/2 = 0 y2 – ? ?y x 2 – 365 = 364 y – ??? = ?? ? 324 ? 81 3x2 + 8x + 4 = 0 4y2 – 19y + 12 = 0
(? 9 )3 × (??? )5 ÷ (27)2 = (3)(?) ? ? 81
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 7 (D) 6 (E) None of these
21. The total area of a circle and a square is equal to 5450 sq cm. The diameter of the circle is 70 cm. What is the sum of the circumference of the circle and the perimeter of the square ? (A) 360 cm (B) 380 cm (C) 270 cm (D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these 22. The ratio between the speed of a train and a car is 16 : 15 respectively. Also, a bus covered a distance of 480 km in 8 hours. The speed of the bus is threefourth the speed of the train. How much distance will the car cover in 6 hours ? (A) 450 km (B) 480 km (C) 360 km (D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these 23. Ram’s present age is three times his son’s present age and twofifth of his father’s present age. The average of the present ages of all of them is 46 years. What is the difference between the Ram’s son’s present age and Ram’s father’s present age ?
Directions—(Q. 6 to 10) What approximate value will come in place of question-mark (?) in the following questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.) 06. 1599 × 199 ÷ 49 – 1398 + 3877 ? (A) 9400 (B) 9000 (C) 8700 (D) 8400 (E) 9200 7 7 1 07. 7 × 6 ÷ 9 = ? 12 19 3 (A) 9 (B) 11 (C) 2 (D) 5 (E) 13 ? 08. 21·7% of 514·9 – 43·44 = 5·5 (A) 320 (B) 335 (C) 475 (D) 375 (E) 420
PD/December/2010/1128
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
68 years 88 years 58 years Cannot be determined None of these
(A) 22 : 51 (B) 23 : 51 (C) 21 : 55 (D) 51 : 22 (E) None of these 28. Total number of students who visited Jodhpur is approximately what per cent of number of girls who visited Delhi ? (A) 111 (B) 91 (C) 132 (D) 32 (E) 72 29. What is the average number of boys who visited Kolkata, Varanasi and Jodhpur together ? (A) 110 (B) 122 (C) 101 (D) 104 (E) None of these 30. What is the total number of girls who visited Delhi, Mumbai and Varanasi together ? (A) 464 (B) 484 (C) 536 (D) 556 (E) None of these Directions—(Q. 31 to 35) Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow :
24. Twenty per cent of Anuj’s annual salary is equal to seventy five per cent of Raj’s annual salary. Raj’s monthly salary is 60% of Ravi’s monthly salary. If Ravi’s annual salary is Rs. 1·44 lacs. What is Anuj’s monthly salary ? (A) Rs. 2,70,000 (B) Rs. 27,000 (C) Rs. 3,24,000 (D) Rs. 5,400 (E) None of these 25. The largest and the second largest angles of a triangle are in the ratio of 3 : 2 respectively. The smallest angle is 20% of the sum of the largest and the second largest angles. What is the sum of the smallest and the second largest angles ? (A) 80° (B) 60° (C) 100 ° (D) 90° (E) None of these Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) Study the information carefully to answer the questions that follow. In a school there are 1200 students who have visited five different cities viz. Delhi, Kolkata, Varanasi, Mumbai and Jodhpur. Forty five per cent of the total students are boys. Thirty per cent of the total girls visited Mumbai. Twofifth of the total girls visited Delhi. Number of girls who visited Jodhpur is half of the girls visited Delhi. Twothird of the remaining girls visited Kolkata. Total number of students who visited Mumbai is 300. Twenty per cent of the total boys visited Delhi. Forty per cent of the total boys visited Jodhpur. Equal number of boys visited Kolkata and Varanasi. 26. What is the total number of students who visited Varanasi ? (A) 78 (B) 69 (C) 102 (D) 103 (E) None of these 27. What is the respective ratio between the number of girls visited Kolkata and number of boys visited Mumbai ?
33. Total number of students in School B and School C together in the year 2004 was approximately what percentage of the total number of students in School B and School C together in the year 2007 ? (A) 85 (B) 80 (C) 75 (D) 184 (E) 131 34. What was the difference between the total number of students in all the schools together in the year 2003 and number of students in School B in the year 2005 ? (A) 2000 (B) 3000 (C) 3500 (D) 2500 (E) None of these 35. What was the approximate average number of students in School A over all the years together ? (A) 1990 (B) 2090 (C) 2300 (D) 1800 (E) 2700 Directions—(Q. 36 to 40) Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow :
Number of Students (in thousands) in Three Schools over the Years
Number of students (in thousands)
School A 4 3.5 3 2.5 2 1.5 1 0.5 0 2002 2003
School B
School C
Number of Officers (in thousands) Passed out from Five Different Academies during Six Different Years
Academies Years 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 Air Army Navy Coast BSF Force Guard 1·4 1·7 0·9 2·4 1·3 2·7 4·2 5·1 7·7 3·6 4·5 3·9 0·6 0·9 1·2 1·8 2·9 3·5 1·7 2·8 1·6 4·7 5·1 3·9 2·6 3·1 4·7 5·8 6·4 4·3
2004 2005 2006 2007 Years
31. What was the average number of students in all the Schools together in the year 2006 ? (A) 30,000 (B) 9,000 (C) 3,000 (D) 6,000 (E) None of these 32. How many times the total number of students in all the three Schools A, B and C together was exactly equal among the given years ? (A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3 (E) None of these
36. What was the average number of officers passed out from all the academies together in the year 2007 ? (A) 1830 (B) 3660 (C) 3·66 lacs (D) 1·83 lacs (E) None of these 37. In which academy the number of the officers passed out continuously increased during the year 2004 to 2009 ? (A) Air Force (B) Army and BSF only
PD/December/2010/1129
(C) Navy only (D) Coast Guard (E) BSF & Navy only 38. What was the respective ratio between the number of officers passed out from Air Force academy in the year 2006 and number of officers passed out from Coast Guard academy in the year 2009 ? (A) 30 : 17 (B) 3 : 23 (C) 17 : 30 (D) 45 : 13 (E) None of these 39. Number of officers passed out from BSF academy in hte year 2008 was approximately what per cent of the total number of officers passed out from Army academy over all the years together ? (A) 12 (B) 19 (C) 33 (D) 28 (E) 22 40. In which academy the total number of officers passed out over all the years together was the maximum ? (A) Air force (B) Army (C) Navy (D) Coast Guard (E) BSF Directions—(Q. 41 to 45) Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions that follow :
(A) 1700 (B) 1·7 lacs (C) 17000 (D) 85000 (E) None of these 42. What was the total number of all the products produced by the company in the year 2006 and 2008 together ? (A) 10750 (B) 107·5 lacs (C) 105700 (D) 10570 (E) None of these 43. What was the respective ratio between the number of CDs produced by the company in the year 2009 and the number of Keyboards produced by the company in the year 2005 ? (A) 9 : 10 (B) 11 : 10 (C) 10 : 9 (D) 10 : 11 (E) None of these 44. What is the difference between the total number of Pen-drives and CDs produced by the company together in the year 2008 and the number of Key-boards produced by the company in the year 2006 ? (A) 40000 (B) 4000 (C) 35000 (D) 3500 (E) None of these 45. What was the respective ratio between the number of Keyboards produced by the company in the year 2006, 2007 and 2009 ? (A) 1 : 2 : 3 (B) 1 : 2 : 2 (C) 2 : 1 : 3 (D) 1 : 2 : 1 (E) None of these 46. A man crosses a stationary train in 12 minutes. The same train crosses a man in 54 seconds. What was the respective ratio between the speed of the train and the man ? (A) 40 : 7 (B) 400 : 3 (C) 40 : 3 (D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these 47. If a number is subtracted by twothird of 75 per cent of 600, the value so obtained is 320. What is the number ? (A) 300 (B) 620 (C) 720 (D) 500 (E) None of these
48. The ratio between the angles of a quadrilateral is 7 : 2 : 5 : 6 respectively. What is the sum of double the smallest angle and half the largest angle of the quadrilateral ? (A) 162 ° (B) 198 ° (C) 99° (D) 135 ° (E) None of these 49. 3 men can complete a piece of work in 6 days. 5 women can complete the same work in 18 days. In how many days will 4 men and 10 women together complete the same work ? (A) 3 days (B) 5 days (C) 2 days (D) 4 days (E) None of these 50. The sum of five consecutive numbers is 270. What is the sum of the second and the fifth number ? (A) 108 (B) 107 (C) 110 (D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these
Answers with Hints
0
Three Different Products (in Thousands) Produced by a Company in Five Different Years
Compact Disks (CD’s) Pen Drives Number of Products (in thousands) Key Boards 35 30 25 20 15 10 5 0 2005 2006 2007 Years 2008 2009
0
0
0
0
41. What was the average number of Pen-drives produced by the company overall the years together ?
PD/December/2010/1130
Essay Contest
Ethics and Expediency
—Mona Sankhla
Ethics
Ethics (also known as moral philosophy) is a branch of philosophy that addresses questions about morality—that is, concepts such as good and evil, right and wrong, justice, virtue etc.— Ethics
Normative Ethics
Traditionally, normative ethics was the study of what makes actions right and wrong. At the turn of the 20th century, moral theories are no longer concerned solely with rightness and wrongness, but are interested in many different kinds of moral status. During the middle of the century, the study of normative ethics declined as meta-ethics grew in prominence.
Meta-ethics
Normative ethics Applied ethics
Moral Psychology
Moral psychology
Meta-ethics
Meta-ethics is the branch of ethics that seeks to understand the nature of ethical properties, and ethical statements, attitudes and judgements. The semantics of ethics divides naturally into descriptivism and nondescriptivism. Descriptivism holds that ethical language (including ethical commands and duties) is a subdivision of descriptive language and has meaning in virtue of the same kind of properties as descriptive propositions. Non-descriptivism contends that ethical proposi- Mona Sankhla tions are irreducible in the sense that their meaning cannot be explicated sufficiently in terms of descriptive truth-conditions. Correspondingly, the epistemology of ethics divides into cognitivism and non-cognitivism; a distinction that is often perceived as equivalent to that between descriptivists and non-descriptivists. Noncognitivism may be understood as the claim that ethical claims reach beyond the scope of human cognition or as the (weaker) claim that ethics is concerned with action rather than with knowledge.
Moral psychology is a field of study that began, like most things, as an issue in philosophy and that is now properly considered part of the discipline of psychology. Some use the term ‘moral pscyhology’ relatively narrowly to refer to the study of moral development. However, others tend to use the term more broadly to include any topics at the intersection of ethics and psychology.
point. Some decision such as choosing a college or university to attend, allow for a longer decision-making process. Others such as one may encounter in hectic day trading on Wall Street or in many other situations, require a lightning fast appraisal of the situation. When Avn Rand stated that “the moral is the practical”, she meant it. Her use of the word ‘practical’ here may be confusing to many people. The most practical action would be the one that is most conducive to living on this earth, the one with the optimal achievement of value given inputs. The common usage of the word ‘practical’ perhaps influenced by the incongruence of other ethical systems to the real world, is a sort of pragmatic, expedient choice i.e., the easy way out.
Expediency
The Obama administration will face human-rights issues at every turn in confronting terrorism insurgency and ethics cleaning along the arc of crisis from South Asia to Sudan. To tackle these strategic challenges as well as chronic rights abuses, the new administration and non-governmental advocacy groups need a new, more pragmatic approach. In the past, the strategies of neoconservatives and liberal activists have been long on the rhetoric of freedom and rights, but have fallen short on results. Wary of over promising, the U.S. public has become skeptical about promoting American ideals abroad. Yet the real lesson of these set backs should not be to abandon idealistic goals, but to pursue them in more pragmatic ways. Without developing a more effective human-rights policy, the United States will neither recover its tarnished reputation nor accomplish its strategic goals. Some human-rights activists have begun to learn this lesson in their own work. While pronouncements from the headquarters of advocacy organisations still sound doctrinaire,
Applied Ethics
Applied ethics is a discipline of philosophy that attempts to apply ethical theory to real-life situations. The discipline has many specialized fields, such as bioethics and business ethics. Ethics arises because of the human need to make choices. We have to figure out what to do. Every moment of our lives, we’re faced with the necessity of deciding what comes next. Whatever we choose has some effect on the options presented to us in the next round. So ethics is the science that enables us to effectively make better choices. Many of the options will have good consequences in some respects and bad consequences in other respects. Now we have to decide between good options and better options. The endgoal is to make the best decision possible, but to do so in given limited time. Keep in mind that you don’t have all day not so-metaphorically speaking. Each decision that we have to make has to be made at some
PD/December/2010/1133
pragmatists in the fields are developing electric outcome-oriented approaches that take into account the power of local actors and the need to tailor tactics to local circumstances. Both realists and idealists should find value in these effective approaches, which can help restore America’s political standing in the world while also doing good. Over the past two decades, traditional human-rights activists have placed human-rights issues on the international agenda in quite dramatic fashion, but a hefty stack of statistical studies suggests that they have done only a little to improve actual situations on the ground. Treaty signing, legal accountability and ‘naming and shaming’ have had little demonstrable positive effect, and sometimes they even backfire. Where human-rights have improved, it is mainly because wars have ended or democracy has been successfully consolidated, not because of humanrights activism. Rights advocates who have targeted diffuse, embedded practices like child labour and female genital cutting have run into stiff resistance, even from those they seek to help. Advocates focusing on states violations have hardly fared better. The muchvaunted International Criminal Court has not delivered must justice or deterrence anywhere. And though everyone pledged ‘never again’ after the Rwandan genocide, the response to atrocities in Darfur and eastern Congo has been diffident and ineffectual. In response to these disappointments a new approach is emerging. Turning human-rights conventional wisdom on its head, pragmatists argue that amnesties for right abusers, material inducements for potential peace-deal breakers and dialogues based on local morality can be effective; criminalizing abuses and universalizing western standards often fail. This style of engagement fits well with the current climate of U.S. public opinion, which retains committed to human-rights ideals but has become wary of pushing this agenda with unreflective zeal. According to the Chicago Council on Global affairs. Global views 2008 survey, a plurality of U.S. public opinion has downgraded ‘promoting and defending human-rights’ from a ‘very impor-
tant’ to ‘somewhat important’ goal; a majority wants to ‘move cautiously’, rather than either ‘aggressively’ or ‘slowly’ in promoting human-rights abroad.
Ethics and (Leadership)
Expediency
doing what is right even when that course of action may not seem to be in our short-term best interest. The 19th century U.S. Navy oceangrapher Mathew Fontaine Maury rightly exhorted us that “where principle is involved, be deaf to expediency.” Failure to examine these issues in our own lives will create a pool of leaders destined to commit the same mistakes. P.Darpan
The staggering breakdown in trust at the beginning of this century, resulting from the lack of character of some leaders in corporate America should cause less finger-pointing and more serious introspection. These leaders are not from outer space, here to impose some alien standard of conduct, but came from among us and as such, reflect attitudes and values that we have lazily slipped into. The tendency is to punish the ‘evil-doers’ and move on confidentially in the knowledge that the problem has been solved. Certainly there should be a punishment and one sufficient enough to give all of us pause when considering giving in to expediency, but if we are to ‘solve’ the problem, the impetus is on us to look at ourselves and shore up our own character where we find it lacking. It isn’t a problem of an approach that backfired because it wasn’t given enough time to run its course it was that an approach was taken that was wrong. Betraying the trust of those you serve even for what is considered to be desirable end sought by all parties involved, can only hurt everyone connected to the expedient course of action taken. The expedient course is rarely the best course and in the end it taints us. As English poet Robert Southey noted, “Never let a man imagine that he can pursue a good end by evil means, without sinning, against his own soul. The evil effect on himself is certain.” In a less stable world, a leader will rely more on inner resources that on the shifting sands of social convention. If those inner resources are not built on a solid foundation then that leader will only contribute to the problem rather than stand as guiding lesson beacon and provide the direction we need. Certainly, the underlying reason for business is to make a profit, but if it can’t be made honestly, then it can’t be made. Expediency may lead to short-term gain but long term success can only come from a commitment to
Continued from Page 1132
P.Darpan
PD/December/2010/1134
Debate Contest
Right to Work should be Made a Constitutionally Fundamental Right
In Favour
—Dr. S. Purvaja
“Poverty is the worst form of violence.” —Mahatma Gandhi One of the greatest challenges that o u r country faces today is poverty. Around one-third of the Indian population is below the poverty line. The prime reason for such a vast number of people remaining poor is the absence of means of liveli- Dr. S. Purvaja hood. In contrast to the acute cyclical unemployment that occurs in developed countries, the problem here is chronic unemployment and underemployment. Any amount of economic growth would not lead us towards development unless the pernicious problem of poverty is eradicated. In order to strike a blow against the evil, the first issue that needs to be addressed is unemployment. With the increase in population every year, there is a net addition to the labour force apart from the already existing backlog of the unemployed. Agriculture accounts for 20% of our national income but provides employment to 60% of our country’s workforce. Most of this, however, is in the form of seasonal employment since, most of the Indian farmers are illiterate, financially weak and carry out primitive agriculture dependent on the monsoon. The rise in population has led to increased pressure on land resulting in division and fragmentation forming uneconomic holdings. Lack of opportunities and poverty ensueing therefrom, have been the major causes for the spread of Naxalism in many parts of our country. Decades of economic and social neglect has driven the tribals towards rebellion. There have been a lot of human casualties and destruction of a huge amount of property as a consequence of the naxal menace. It poses a grave threat to the peace and security of our nation. “Poverty devastates families, communities and nations. It causes instability and political unrest and fuels conflict.” —Kofi Annan The Economic Reforms of 1991 which triggered a wave of liberalisation and globalisation, have made the private sector occupy a greater space in the Indian economy. The small industrial units, which provide huge employment opportunities, have suffered, being exposed to competition from large units and Multi-National Companies. Big business houses have benefited the most. The private companies, in the name of technology upgradation have moved on from labour intensive to capitalintensive technologies. In the immediate post-independence period, when public sector was the main player in the course of industrialisation, the number of mandays lost due to strikes was more than that due to lock-outs. In the period following the economic reforms, this trend has been reversed, especially in the recent years. Lockouts accoun ted for 89% and strikes for merely 11% of the mandays lost in 2003. The deregulation of government controls in many years has emboldened the employers resulting in an increase in ‘employers’ militancy. Further, these changes have weak-ened the trade union activities. The bargaining power of the labour unions has been reduced to a great extent. The development of a country will not be complete without the empowerment of women. A large degree of gender inequality exists in India with regard to literacy, life expectancy, their status in the family and society and other criteria, in contrast to countries like Canada, USA, UK, Malaysia, Sri Lanka, and the Philippines where there is near gender equality. The prosperity of our country directly depends on the development of agriculture and industry. An essential pre-condition for this is the presence of adequate infrastructure facilities. Although India has achieved considerable success in the expansion of such facilities, a lot more, still needs to be done. The infrastructural development in our country has consistently shown a distinct urban bias. The relative neglect of rural areas has resulted in inadequate development and therefore inadequate employment opportunities. In addition, it has shown a bias in favour of the rich and the more affluent. It is the high income group who are capable of taking full advantage of such facilities as power, transport and communication, education and health. The major and medium irrigation works have also, generally benefited the rich farmers. Taking into consideration the widespread poverty, the large degree of unemployment and underemployment and the danger of violence it may pose, the labour cutting attitude of the companies, gender discrimination that still exists in many parts of our country and the infrastructural needs of various sectors of the economy, the one-point solution to resolve all these issues would be the enactment of a Constitutional Amendment declaring ‘Right to Work’ as a Fundamental Right. Creation of adequate opportunities and a favourable environment is essential to ensure the same. Such a legislation should have provisions restricting capitalists from retrenching workers in the name of importing higher technology. Guarantee of employment to all the
PD/December/2010/1135
citizens would make a frontal attack on poverty, improve the conditions of living for the poor and prevent them from taking up arms. There are many avenues for the creation of employment mainly on the lines of infrastructural development. This would serve the double purpose of job creation for the people as well as asset creation for the society. Taking up activities like creation of medium and minor irrigation projects in the public domain would help small and marginal farmers go in for double or multiple cropping thus solving the problem of seasonal unemployment. Provision of employment on an equal basis would contribute to the rise in the status of women at the level of the family as well as at the society. Economic security for women thus obtained would lead to their empowerment. In the words of James Abram Garfield, “At present, the most valuable gift which can be bestowed upon women is something to do which they can do well and worthily and thereby maintain themselves.” Ensuring a job for every citizen would thus cut at the roots of poverty, violence, exploitation and discrimination in any form which are some of the major impediments in the path of development and accelerate the progress of our nation. The ‘economic justice’ enshrined in ‘the Preamble’ of the Constitution of India can be attained fully only when the ‘Right of Work’ in Article 41 of Part IV of the Constitution, the Directive Principles of State Policy is shifted to Part III, the Fundamental Rights.
The level of employment in the country is quite dismal with high unemployment rate, which is among major issues posing a hurdle in India’s way of becoming a developed nation. Illiteracy in the country is a major reason for this, particularly in rural areas considering the fact that around 70% of the total population resides in rural areas and that too mainly dependent on agriculture. Right to work cannot be granted as a constitutional fundamental right because of following reasons : ? Right to work is a novel concept that is abstract in nature and is not realistic. The concept is similar to ‘Finding jobs for people’ rather than ‘finding people for the job’. Though the latter is possible, no one can guarantee about the former. When there is no guarantee and certainty the concept of ‘Right’ in ‘Right to Work’ ceases to exist. It would be highly unrealistic to believe that any government effort or provision in the constitution could guarantee jobs for everybody and if done so would be a big constitutional blunder. Right to work cannot be given to people as a fundamental right owing to a simple reason that the expectation from the job in terms of quality and type of work assigned would be different from one person to another. Just imagine a situation where there is a job available for planting trees on the roadside and people deny doing that job saying that they possess degree of a graduate and should be given some office work. Should government provide offices for them to work ? More importantly, the expectation of monetary benefit from a certain job would also vary from case to case. How will the government justify the compensation given for some work. ? It is important for us to understand and appreciate the fact that the government does not possess the resources both in financial and material terms to create jobs
for the people. It is very hard to believe that when there are so many unemployed graduates and post graduates in the country how the government would provide work to unskilled and illiterate people residing in villages. Will there be different rule for urban people and different for rural ? If so that cannot be termed as a fundamental right. ? If Right to work is made a constitutional fundamental right, there is a high probability that people would become complacent, lazy and would take everything for granted. They would stop making efforts and working hard in their life because they would certainly enjoy things getting served to them in their plates. In addition, the level of competition among the people would decline which would result in low quality of performance and commitment towards the work. If Right to work is given to people the number of people going for graduation and higher studies would decline for the simple reason that people would stop striving hard to get a job as they know that they would be given work and if not they can claim for the compensation. Can we let such people get work so easily ? This would certainly not help in taking our country forward. Right to work would not only be impossible to implement but would create chaos all over the country. You cannot define specific nature of work that should be given to different people as well as the compensation for that work. It would result in an increase in the number of cases in our judicial establishment with people complaining about the nature of work assigned to them, compensation, duration of the work and many other issues.
?
?
Against
—Mohd. Zia Ullah
The Constitution of India gives some basic rights to all its citizens without any bias and differentiation. These fundamental rights empower the citizens to live as per their free will, without any restriction and fear. In a country like India fundamental rights become even more critical considering the diverse Mohd. Zia Ullah demographic set up in every part of India.
?
Continued on Page 1137
PD/December/2010/1136
RESULTS
Essay Competition
Topic : Ethics and Expediency. Against the Topic
Mohd. Zia Ullah 415/357, Shahganj Allahabad U.P.–211 003
Hints
Winners
First Prize Winner
Mona Sankhla New Delhi–110 015
Ajanta Roy Birbhum, Kolkata West Bengal–731 101
Second Prize Winner
Mahesh Kumar M/s Chiman Lal Jugal Kishore, Mahaveer Marg, Narnaul Haryana–123 001
Continued from Page 1136
Quiz Contest
Concentric Quiz (General Studies Special) First Prize Winner
Alexeyev Thingbaijam C/o Babudhan Singh, Top Awang Leikai Near Ema Nongmairembi, Zampak Manipur–795 005
In fact Right to work would be a concept similar to a concept like ‘Right to Salary’ with no consideration given to the qualification, skillsets and so many other important traits required for any job.
Third Prize Winner
Dharmendra Kumar Ray Village–Adarsh Nagar, Pandey Colony Post–Bada Bahera, Kon-Nagar Distt.–Hooghly, Kolkata West Bengal–712 246
Conclusion
Right to work is a concept which is not realistic in nature and it cannot be included in the list of fundamental rights because if someone does not get work it is not because of religion, caste, and other similar issues but because of skills and qualification. It is the duty of every citizen in the country to work hard and use opportunities to create resources rather than just consuming them. Right to work, if granted to the people as fundamental right would lower the efficiency and quality of the work. Instead, if anything at all needs to be done then avenues of income and job opportunities should be created. In addition, the developmental programmes such as MNREGA, Bharat Nirman and other such employment generation programmes should be implemented with utmost sincerity to ensure that people get the chance to work if they are willing to do so. No doubt Right to Work is a great novel concept but even great concepts have to be realistic in nature and have to deliver results. P.Darpan
Debate Competition
Topic : Right to Work should be Made a Constitutionally Fundamental Right
Second Prize Winner
Amit Mahlawat S/o Shri Azad Singh 703/9, Vishal Nagar Near New Bus Stand, Rohtak Haryana–124 001
Winners
For the Topic
Dr. S. Purvaja Jalahalli, Bangalore Karnataka–560 013
Third Prize Winner
Mona Patna Bihar–800 020
Answers
Aditya Kumar Jha A-429, Nehru Vihar New Delhi–54
PD/December/2010/1137
CRICKET
India Retains the BorderGavaskar Trophy with Clean Sweep Against Australia
India registered a seven-wicket victory over Australia in the Second
rating points. Virender Sehwag is the next best Indian cricketer batsman at number three in the ranking with 819 points behind Sri Lanka's Kumar Sangakkara with 874 at number two position. Last time Sachin Tendulkar achieved first position in batsman test ranking in August 2002 when he made 193 in his 99th test to help India beat England by an innings and 46 runs at Headingley. It is for the ninth time that Tendulkar got the number one ranking. He claimed number one position for the first time in November 1994 in his 33rd test after scoring 34 and 85 against West Indies in Mumbai which India won by 96 runs.
Zealand in the fifth and final one-day international on October 17, 2010 in Dhaka. Rubel Hossain of Bangladesh took four wickets for 25 off 9.3 sharp overs. New Zealand which was chasing a 175 runs target was bowled out for 171 in the last over. Bangladesh won the series 4-0 which was its first sweep against a major team. The second match was abandoned without a ball being bowled due to rain.
TENNIS
Melzer and Paes Clinch Doubles Title of Shanghai Masters
Austria's Jurgen Melzer and Leander Paes won the doubles title after beating Polish Mariuz Fyrstenberg and Marcin Matkowski 7-5, 4-6, 10-5 in the final of the Shanghai Masters on October 17, 2010 in
India Wins ODI Against Australia
India retained the Border-Gavaskar Trophy with seven-wicket win over Australia in the second Test in Bangalore on October 13, 2010.
Series
Test in Bangalore on October 13, 2010. It was India's first clean sweep against Australia in a series of two or more matches. With this victory India strengthened its position at No. 1 in International Test Cricket. In first innings Australia contributed 478 while India gave 495. In 2nd innings Australia made 223 runs in 75-2 overs while India made 207 in 45 overs for three wickets. Sachin Tendulkar of India who reached his 58th Test half century was declared both Man of the Match and Man of the Series. In this Test series, Sachin Tendulkar also made his 49th century.
India won the ODI series against Australia after the third and final ODI between India and Australia was called off on October 24, 2010 in Margao (Goa). India won the series 1-0 and Australia returned home after
Sachin Tendulkar on Top in Test Ranking
After his splendid performance in recently concluded Test Series against Australia in October 2010, Sachin Tendulkar reclaimed his number one position in Test-ranking in batting after eight years. In this test series Tendulkar was the highest runmaker with 403 runs in the two match series. As per the latest ICC ranking Indian batting legend now has 891
Mahendra Singh Dhoni poses with the trophy after winning the rain-marred series 1-0.
Jurgen Melzer (left) of Austria and teammate Leander Paes with their trophies after winning the doubles final at the Shanghai Masters
drawing blank both in the Tests and the lone ODI. Virat Kohli was adjudged as the Man of the Series for his match winning 118 in the second ODI.
Shanghai. It was Melzer's third tour level doubles title of the season while it was Paes second title of the season.
Bangladesh Sweeps One Day Series Against New Zealand
Bangladesh completed a sweep with a three-run victory over New
Federer Bags Stockholm Open : Equals Sampras’ Record of 64 Titles
Switzerland’s Roger Federer defeated Germany’s Florian Mayer 6-4, 6-3 to win the Stockholm Open
PD/December/2010/1138
Tennis Tournament on October 24, 2010. With this victory Federer has
after drawing with Alexei Shirov of Spain. Kramnik scored two wins and four draws in all and ended up with 10 points. Magnus Carlsen who drew with Anand finished third while Alexei Shirov had to be content with the fourth place finish.
Mc Dowell of Europe who clinched victory in the final after defeating USA's Hunter Mahan three and one.
Harrington Bags Johor Open
Iskandar
Magnus Carlsen Bags Pearl Spring Chess Tournament
Roger Federer receives the trophy from Sweden’s crown princess Victoria after defeating Florian Mayer in the Stockholm Open final October 24, 2010.
Ireland's Padraig Harrington registered a three-stroke victory in the Iskandar Johor Open on October 17, 2010 in Johor Bahru (Malaysia).
equalled Pete Sampras’ record of 64 ATP titles. Roger Federer is World’s number two male tennis player.
Magnus Carlsen of Norway won the Pearl Spring Chess tournament in Nanjing on October 30, 2010. He won the title after drawing with Vugar Gashimov of Azerbaijan. India’s Vishwanathan Anand finished second in the tournament.
Andy Murray Clinches the Shanghai Masters
Scotland’s Andy Murray beat Switzerland’s Roger Federer 6-3, 6-2 to bag the Shanghai Masters on October 15, 2010 in Shanghai. It was
Indians Grab Six Medals at World Championship
India’s chess players won three silver and three bronze medals in the World Youth Chess Championship that concluded in Porto Carras (Greece) on October 30, 2010. Rudraksh Paridev and Shiven Khosla were among the silver medal winners while M. Mahalakshmi and A. Puranik were among the bronze medallists of India.
Padraig Harrington with Trophy
The victory ended a two years title drought. He hit a 69 to take himself to a total of 20 under par in the $ 1.25 million Asian Tour event. Asian Tour Order of Merit leader Noh SeungYal finished second after a 65 with bordies on his final three holes.
FOOTBALL
East Bengal Lifts Federation Cup
Andy Murray with Trophy.
GRAND PRIX
Vettel Clinches Grand Prix Japanese
his second finals victory over the Swiss World No. 3 in two months. It was his second title of the season.
CHESS
East Bengal retained prestigious Federation Cup after beating Mohun Bagan down by a solitary goal in Cuttack on October 2, 2010. With this victory East Bengal ensured for itself a berth in the AFC Cup. This win also created another landmark for East Bengal that it was its 10th successive match of the season. Mohun Bagan had won the title beating Salgaocar last time in 1987.
Germany’s Sebastian Vettel won the Japanese Grand Prix for the second consecutive year leading a Red Bull 1-2 in Suzuka (Japan) on October 10, 2010. Mark Webber finished second 0·9 secs. It was Red Bull’s third 1-2 finish of the season. Ferrari’s Fernando Alonso was third 1·8 seconds behind.
Vladimir Kramnik Winner of the Final Masters : Anand Finishes Second
Russia's Vladimir Kramnik won the Bilbao Final Masters Chess Tournament on October 16, 2010 in Bilbao (Spain). World Champion Viswanathan Anand finished second in the tournament. It is noteworthy that Kramnik won the tournament
Alonso Clinches Grand Prix
Korean
` GOLF
Europe Clinches Ryder Cup
Europe won the Ryder Cup of golf on October 4, 2010 in Newport (Wales) after beating the United States of America 14 - 1/2 points to 13 - 1/2 points at Celtic Maner. It was
Ferrari’s Fernando Alonso won the Korean Grand Prix on October 24, 2010 in Yeongam (South Korea). It was inaugural race which turned out to be the longest in Formula One History. Mc Laren’s 2008 Champion Lewis Hamilton finished second 14·9 seconds behind. Brazil’s Felipe Massa took the final podium place for Ferrari.
PD/December/2010/1139
The 2010 Commonwealth Games Conclude : India Emerges Second in Medal Tally
The 2010 Commonwealth Games which began on October 3, 2010 came to a close on October 14, 2010 in New Delhi. Around 7000 athletes from 71 Commonwealth nations and dependencies competed in 21 sports and 272 events. The opening and closing ceremonies were held at the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium—the main stadium of the event. The final medal tally was led by Australia by grabbing 177 medals. The host nation India gave its strongest and most splendid ever performance to emerge second in medal tally followed by England which was placed third in the tally. India eventually Shera : Mascot of CWG 2010 more than doubled its medals tally of the previous Games in Melbourne. India had finished fourth in 2002 and 2006. It may be mentioned here that it was Badminton star Saina Nehwal who snatched a three-game victory over Malaysia's Mew Choo Wong to take India a gold medal ahead of England. Prince Edward declared the
Games closed on behalf of the Queen Elizabeth. The next Commonwealth Games will be held in Glasgow Scotland in 2014. The prominent dignities who attended the closing ceremony included Vice-President Hamid Ansari Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh and Sri Lanka President Mahinda Rajapaksa among others.
10 Gold medals in the Commonwealth Games history, tying the all-time record of Susie O’Neill (Australia) and Ian Thorpe (Australia). ? Emily Jane Seebohm (Australia) equalled the record of winning eight medals in total in one games. Swimmers Ralph Hutton (Australia) in 1966 and Susie O' Neill (Australia) in 1998 were the only other athletes to achieve this feat.
Australia was the most Successful Commonwealth Games Association (CGA) in Delhi
?
It was Top-seeded Saina Nehwal's gold medal victory in the women's singles badminton event of the Commonwealth Games that took India ahead of England's medals tally and over to the No. 2 position.
Australia was the most successful CGA at Delhi 2010. It won 74 Gold, 55 Silver and 48 Bronze medals. It was the 12th time they led the medal table. Australia has been the most successful CGA in every games since 1990. England was the third-best CGA at this games, behind India. Only once before, at the Victoria 1994 games, have two CGAs performed better than England.
?
Highlights of the XIX Commonwealth Games in Brief Australian Coutts and Indian Narang ‘Queen and King of the Games
? With five Gold medals in Swimming, Alicia Coutts (Australia) was the most successful athlete at the games. Gagan Narang (India) was the most successful male athlete. He won four Gold medals in Shooting.
?
Host Nation India Performs Better than Ever
? India won more Gold medals than it had won before in one games. It took 38 Gold medals, its previous record was 30 in 2002. With its 101 medals in total, India finished runner-up in the medal tally and became the fourth CGA to reach the century mark in one games. Every host nation of the Commonwealth Games has beaten its previous record number of medals, and India has joined that list in 2010.
?
?
Australians Jones and Seebohm equal all-time Medal Records
? Leisel Marie Jones (Australia) became the third person to win ?
Four CGAs Win their First Commonwealth Games Gold Medals
? Natasha Mayers (SVG) clinched the first Gold for St. Vincent and the Grenadines, in the Women's 100m in Athletics, on October 7, 2010. Amantle Montsho (BOT) won Botswana's first Gold in the Women's 400m in Athletics on October 8, 2010.
?
Scene of closing ceremony on October 14, 2010
PD/December/2010/1140
?
Faavae Faauliuli (SAM) collected Samoa's first Gold medal in Commonwealth Games history, in the Men's 94kg Weightlifting on October 9, 2010. One day later, two other Samoans won Gold in this sport. On October 11, 2010 Cydonie Camile Mothersill (CAY) won the first Gold medal for Cayman Islands, when she ran to victory in the Women's 200m event in Athletics.
XIX Commonwealth Games 2010 : India's Final Medal Tally Categorywise
S. No. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. Sport Shooting Wrestling Archery Weightlifting Tennis Athletics Gymnastics Table Tennis Badminton Boxing Para-swimming Hockey - m Badminton Gold 14 10 3 2 1 2 — 1 1 3 — — 1 38 Silver 11 5 1 2 1 3 1 1 1 — — 1 — 27 Bronze 5 4 4 4 2 7 1 3 — 4 1 — — 36 Total 30 19 8 8 4 12 2 5 2 7 1 1 1 101
?
Australia Reaches Medal Milestones in Delhi
? On October 8, 2010, Kasey Brown (Australia) clinched Australia's 2000th medal in all Commonwealth Games. She took the Bronze medal for Australia in the Women's Singles in Squash. The Women's Hockey team won Australia's 800th Gold medal in Commonwealth Games history on October 13, 2010.
India’s Gold Medallists at XIX Commonwealth Games Delhi 2010
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. Gagan Narang & Abhinav Bindra (pairs) Anisa Sayyed & Rahi Sarnobat Ravinder Singh Sanjay Anil Kumar Gagan Narang Anisa Sayyed Omkar Singh Renu bala Chanu Rajinder Kumar Ravi Kumar Vijay Kumar & Gurpreet S. Gurpreet Singh & Omkar Singh Geeta Phogat Recurve Team Women Gagan + Imran H Khan Vijay Kumar Alka Tomar Anita Omkar Singh Vijay Kumar + Harpreet Singh Gagan Narang Yogeshwar Dutt Narsingh Pancham Deepika Kumari Harpreet Singh Rahul Banerjee Sushil Kumar Somdev Burman Krishna Poonia Anuraj Singh + Heena Sidhu Women Relay Team Ashwini A.C./ Chitra K. Soman/Sini Jose/Jauna Murmu Achanta + Saha Suronjay S Manoj Kumar Paramjeet Samota Jawala G. + Ashwini P. Saina Nehwal Shooting - 10m Air Rifle Shooting - 25m Pistol (pairs) Wrestling - 60 kg. Wrestling - 74 kg. Wrestling - 96 kg. Shooting - 10m Air Rifle Shooting - 25m Pistol Shooting - 50m Pistol Weightlifting - 58 kg Wrestling - 55 kg Weightlifting - 175 kg Shooting 25m Rapid Fire Pistol Shooting 10m Air Pistol Wrestling 55 kg Archery Shooting 50 m Rifle Shooting 25 m Rapid Fire Pistol Wrestling 59 kg Wrestling 67 kg FS Shooting 10m Airpistol Shooting 25m Centre Fire Pistol Pairs Shooting 50m Rifle Wrestling 60 kg Wrestling 74 kg Archery (Women—Recurve individual) Shooting 25m Centrefire Pistol Archery Wrestling (66 kg) Tennis (Singles) Athletics — Discus (W) Shooting (Pairs 10m Air Pistol) Athletics — 4 × 400 Table Tennis (Doubles) Boxing (52 kg) Boxing (64 kg) Boxing (Super Heavy Weight) Badminton — doubles Badminton
?
Australia's Croak Wins Gold in Two Different Sports at the Com-monwealth Games
? Alexandra Croak (Australia) became the first athlete to win Gold in two different sports at the games, considering Cycling Road and Cycling Track as the same sport. Croak won a Gold medal in Diving in Delhi 2010, and had previously won gold in Artistic Gymnastics in Manchester 2002.
?
More Podium Sweeps than Ever in Athletics
? In six Athletics events, one CGA swept the podium, more medal sweeps than ever at the Commonwealth Games in this sport. Kenya clinched the Gold, Silver and Bronze medals in four events : the Women's and Men's 3000 m Steeplechase, the Men's 800m and the Women's 5000m. England swept the podium in the Men's 110m Hurdles and India won all medals in the Women's Discus Throw.
?
?
PD/December/2010/1141
Winning Streaks in Rugby Sevens, Men's Hockey and Synchronised Swimming Extended
? New Zealand won the Rugby Sevens Gold in Delhi, as it had also done in the three previous Rugby Sevens tournaments at the Commonwealth Games. New Zealand has never lost a match in Rugby Sevens in games history. Australia won the title in Men's Hockey, having won Gold in the event at all three previous games in which it was held. Canada kept its 100 per cent record in Synchronised Swimming alive. It has won all 14 events since the sport was included in the games in 1986.
sportspersons who won medals at the 19th Commonwealth Games. He announced that the Petroleum Sports Promotion Board would give away Rs. 9 crore to athletes and players who helped India to bag a record haul of medals at the Games. Mr. Deora, also the chief patron of the Board, said the Board would give Rs. 10 lakh each to gold medallists, Rs. 7.5 lakh to silver medallists and Rs. 5 lakh to bronze medallists. Some awarded include sports personalities. Ronjan Sodhi (shooting); Saina Nehwal, Chetan Anand, Jwala Gutta and V. Diju (badminton); and Sharad Kamal, Soumyadeep Roy, Poulami Ghatak, Subojit Saha and A. Amal Raj (table tennis). Harvant Kaur (discuss), Om Prakash (shot put), Sinimone Paulose (800 metres); Chitra, Mandeep, Jauna Murmur and Tiana (4 × 400); Jagsir Singh (javelin) and Rohan Bopanna (tennis). It is noteworthy that nearly 50 sportspersons affiliated to the Board represented India at the Games.
lian swimmer Alicia Jayne Coutts and Indian shooter Gagan Narang. The 34-year-old Smith is a former world champion, and has won the gold at the 2005 World Championships at Helsinki. She also won the gold at the last Commonwealth Games at Melbourne in 2006, besides a silver at the 2002 Games in Manchester. It may be added here that India's pistol shooter Samaresh Jung, winner of five gold medals at Melbourne, won the David Dixon award last time. The award, named after the former secretary general of the Commonwealth Games Federation, was instituted in 2002, with South African paralympic swimmer Natalie du Toit being the first winner.
?
?
The 2010 Commonwealth Games : Top 20 Medal Winners
Country Gold Australia India England Canada South Africa Kenya Malaysia Singapore Nigeria Scotland New Zealand Cyprus Northern Ireland Samoa Wales Jamaica Pakistan Uganda Bahamas Nauru 74 38 37 26 12 12 12 11 11 9 6 4 3 3 2 2 2 2 1 1 Silver Bronze Total 55 27 59 17 11 11 10 11 10 10 22 3 3 0 7 4 1 0 1 1 48 36 46 32 10 9 13 9 14 7 8 5 4 1 10 1 2 0 3 0 177 101 142 75 33 32 35 31 35 26 36 12 10 4 19 7 5 2 5 2
N. Ramachandran Re-elected WSF President
The President of the World Squash Federation, N. Ramachandran has been re-elected its President for a fresh two years term as per the outcome of the elections at the WSF Annual General Meeting held in Chennai on October 22, 2010. On the elections, besides him, three Vice-Presidents were also elected—Chris Stahl (England), Heather Deayton (Hong Kong) and Mohd Al Menshawy (Egypt). P.Darpan
Klitschko Retains WBC Title
Ukrains Vitali Klitschko retained World Boxing Championship heavyweight title in October 2010. He beat America's Challenger Shannon Briggs on points (120 107), 120 - 107, 120 - V. Klitschko 105).
Jamaica's Trecia Smith Emerges the Best Athlete of the 19th Commonwealth Games
Jamaica's triple jump champion Trecia Smith was conferred the David Dixon award for being the best athlete of the 19th Commonwealth Games on October 14, 2010. Smith leapt to 14.19 metres to win the triple jump gold in commanding fashion. She was a surprise choice, edging out several other competitors including Austra-
SPORTS AND GAMES BRIEFING
Awards for Commonwealth Games Medallists Announced
Union Petroleum and Natural Gas Minister Murli Deora has recently announced cash awards for Indian
Trecia Smith
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PD/December/2010/968
To Our Readers
Dear Readers,
WHERE EXCELLENCE GUIDES THE SUCCESS
Year 5
Issue 54
December 2010
EDITOR Mahendra Jain
REGISTERED OFFICE 2/11-A, Swadeshi Bima Nagar Agra–282 002 ADMINISTRATIVE AND EDITORIAL OFFICE 1, State Bank Colony Opp. Van Chetna Kendra Agra-Mathura Bye pass, Agra–282 005 Tel. : 2531101, 2530966, 4053333 Fax : (0562) 4031570, 4053330 Website : www.pdgroup.in E-mail : Editorial : [email protected] Customer Care : [email protected] BRANCH OFFICE Delhi 4845, Ansari Road Daryaganj, New-Delhi–2 Tel. : 23251844, 23251866 Hyderabad 1-8-1/B, R. R. Complex (Near Sundaraiah Park, Adjacent to Manasa Enclave Gate), Bagh Lingampally, Hyderabad-44 Tel. : 66753330
It is with a great sense of pleasure and satisfaction that we are presenting to you the December issue of your favourite magazine ‘Pratiyogita Darpan’. As usual this issue of the magazine also contains useful examination-oriented reading material. If you read it intelligently and with proper understanding, it will certainly go a long way in enhancing your knowledge to face any competitive examination in future. As it is traditional with us, we always try to know and understand the demands of our readers, their suggestions and changes in the pattern of competitive examinations. We try to include them as far as possible. It makes the magazine useful and to their liking. It is really encouraging for us that our readers have unanimously endorsed the utility of the magazine, which, in their considered opinion, has no parallel in its field. A number of core articles on important world events contributed by reputed authors are given in this issue. Some of the representative articles are : IBSA—An Emerging Forum for South-South Cooperation, Changing Face of Indian Women, United States and Iran : Relations of Unease, etc. The most important section of the Magazine contains a number of question papers selected from various competitive examinations. These are fully solved with relevant hints and clear-cut explanations. All efforts are made to give their error-free solutions. It is an additional speciality of the magazine. An intelligent study and practice of these papers will be immensely useful in enhancing the knowledge of the readers and their ability in solving objective questions in any future examination. We advise our readers to concentrate on these papers and get benefited in future. We have been frequently reminding you to know the real secret of success. We again assert that it lies in you, in your enthusiasm, hardwork, determination, self-confidence and above all in your will to succeed. The substance is that it is you and you alone who can do it for being successful and shape your future. An additional requisite for your success is proper guidance. This responsibility of giving you the best guidance and reading material has been taken up by Pratiyogita Darpan which is all the time standing by you for all that you require for your brilliant success. Read Pratiyogita Darpan regularly and intelligently. It gives you the power to master your career and shape your destiny. With best wishes for your brilliant success and bright future. Sincerely yours, MAHENDRA JAIN (Editor)
All rights reserved. No part of this Magazine may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any form by any means, Electronic, Mechanical, Photocopying, Recording or otherwise, without the prior written permission of the publisher. While every effort has been made to ensure accuracy of the information published in this edition, neither publisher nor any of its employees accept any responsibility for any error or omission. Articles that cannot be used are returned to the authors if accompanied by a self addressed and sufficiently stamped envelope. But no responsibility is taken for any loss or delay in returning the material. Pratiyogita Darpan assumes no responsibility for statements and opinions advanced by the authors nor for any claims made in the advertisements published in the Magazine.
PD/December/2010/970
Year 5 Issue 54 December 2010
Career Article Regulars
970 To our Readers 972 Editorial 1048 SSB : For Three Wings of the Armed Forces What ? How ? and Why ?
Self-Motivations Article
1053 A Talisman for Civil Services’ Aspirants
News and Events
973 985 992 994 Nation this Month World this Month Regional News National and International Updates
International Relations Article
1055 United States and Iran : Relations of Unease
Environmental Article
1058 Environment and Sustainable Development
Vividha
1061 Compendium
Current Affairs
1004 Economic Scenario 1013 Memorable Points
Countries of the World : At a Glance
1064 Italy
Career News
1016 Employment and Career News 1019 Forthcoming Competitive Examinations
Annual Report 2009-10
1066 Progress in Animal Husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries : In a Nutshell
Civil Services Examination
1020 Learn to Survive in New CSAT Culture
Profile : International Organisation
1069 Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW) 1071 Current Questionnaire 1073 Trade and Industry
World Panorama
IBSA : An Emerging Forum for SouthSouth Cooperation 1026 (ii) MDG Review Summit 2010 : Hope and Despair 1023 (i)
Personality Development
1030 Communication is to Personality what Light is to Beauty
Question Papers Subjective Paper
1075 M.P. PSC (Mains) Exam., 2008 : General Studies
Optional Papers
1082 U.P. GIC Lecturer Screening Exam., 2009 : Civics (Political Science) and General Studies 1091 M.P. PSC (Pre.) Exam., 2009 : Economics 1099 UGC-NET/JRF Exam., 2007 : Management
Inspiring Youth : Interviews
1031 Ashique Karattil Topper—Indian Economic Service 2009 (3rd Rank) 1033 Anurag Chaudhary Topper—Civil Services 2009 (34th Rank) 1036 Rahul Dwivedi Topper—Civil Services 2009 (40th Rank)
Other Papers
1102 Syndicate Bank P.O. Exam., 2010 : General Awareness 1106 National Defence Academy Exam., 2010 : General Studies 1116 U.P. PCS Lower Subordinate Services (Pre.) Exam., 2008 : General Studies 1121 Oriental Insurance Company AAO Exam., 2010 : Reasoning Ability and General Awareness 1128 Bank of Baroda P.O. Exam., 2010 : Quantitative Aptitude
Articles Civil Services Examination
1039 Aptitude and Ethical Decision-Making
Economic and Social Development
1042 United Nations Summit on Millennium Development Goals
Sociological Articles
1045 Changing Face of Indian Women : From Vedic Period to Modern Age 1133 1135 1137 1138
Your Pages
Essay Contest Debate Contest Results Sports World
Legal Article
1047 Section 497 IPC Must be Amended
PD/December/2010/971
When talking about an individual’s responsibility, we often talk about high philosophy, or religion or mysticism etc. We seldom think about the day-to-day human problems. Most people have become slaves of economic and monetary considerations. They would go to any length to meet and fulfil these considerations. As such they lack freedom to think about their future life, let aside their concern about the people who live in the neighbourhood. In short, most of us do not think about our responsibility and power to act for the welfare of the society at large. Let our young men and women go through their books to see what they teach them about their social responsibility. Universe is the manifestation of Karmic forces of all its sentient beings. The Karmic forces which are favourable to the laws of nature generate forms which are in tune with the life process and a living universe creates a non-living universe in tune with it. Obviously our first responsibility is to work in tune with the life process, so that our Karmic force may create forms that are in tune with the universe. This would be our contribution towards universal harmony. If we examine carefully the nature of Karmic forces we create, we will see that the same are not in tune with the life process or the laws of nature. We are often creating unfavourable forces through anger, avarice, jealously, hatred etc. The result is constant conflict at all levels–with our ownself, with society and with all living beings as well as with non-living beings. This has led to the evils like riots, wars, environmental pollution and a number of fatal diseases and what not ? It is, therefore, our responsi-
bility number two, that we do not add to the black or evil forces by our actions which are against the laws of nature and ethical behaviour. We should act according to what we preach or expect from others to do. This is the acid test to know whether our actions are creating favourable Karmic forces, or unfavourable Karmic forces. Our inner voice will take no time to give the answer, regarding the type of forces we are creating on a particular time or occasion. This is our duty number three. This is an age of materialism and almost all of us are led by economic and monetary considerations. We know that the miseries, fear, terror etc. are the result of collective black forces. This is not easy to change or improve. Goodness is a rare commodity, which everyone wants others to spend. It is not easy to change this way of thinking, nor is it advisable to want for the collective transformation. Therefore, our fourth duty is to be more attentive to our own approach, rather than a collective one in order to regenerate ourselves. If individuals integrate, then collective integration or regeneration may follow as a corollary. Suppose a flood carries away some persons, myself included, what shall I do ? Shall I wait for others to get to the shore or try to reverse the current ? Surely, none of the two. Since, I have the will and ability to swim, so I shall swim towards the shore. If persons at the individual level try to come out of the current of the evil forces things are bound to improve. In this way, each one of you, my young readers, can attune himself or herself with the
nature and also put the universe in tune with him/herself. This may be our fifth universal responsibility. Peep in your hearts if you are prepared to discharge this responsibility. This would go a long way in solving the problem of cultural and religious intolerance, which gives rise to conflict, division, inhuman conduct, and now on the top of them all heinous murders and terrorism in the name of Jehad—the religious war and the worst form of it is terrorism which seems to have engulfed the whole world. Everyone is anxious to give it a fight to the finish. The sixth responsibility of our young men and women is to shed off prejudices which give rise to intolerance, division and cut-throat competition. The least you can do in this regard is to take the examination with your full preparation and not to think to take to unfair means or try for a short cut success. To put in short, to help the society, of course, without doing any harm to yourselves, our young men and women may do the things to start with viz., (i) be aware of the forces creating violence and terrorism and (ii) to remain disassociated from such deeds as mean harm to others and thereby lead to disharmony. For this you will have to develop a mind which is free to think for itself and denies falsehood and ways of cutthroat competition. By doing so, you will be doing your duty to the universe, in which you, too, are included. This is the duty of duties. This would make you an integrated and regenerated person. Bharat needs such young men and women. P.Darpan
PD/December/2010/972
“Tact is the ability to describe others as they see themselves.”
India, Germany Agree to take Business Partnership Forward
India and Germany have taken a new step forward to boost trade and investments between the two countries. Both the countries on October 10, 2010 in Germany agreed on the establishment of a hotline between the commerce and industry ministry in India and the federal ministry of economics and technology in Germany to facilitate resolution of any business-related visa issues that may arise from time to Anand Sharma time.
Forging Ahead
? Countries agree to establish hotline to facilitate resolution of any business-related visa issues. ? Also agreed on cooperating in multilateral trade for combating protectionist tendencies.
Economic Relations (ICRIER), and the Gokhle Institute of Economic and Politics in Pune. Sharma delivered a special address as part of the Konrad Adenauer Lecture Series on “An Emerging India : Expanding Economic Frontiers” at Humboldt University. “Indian CEOs also held B2B meetings with their German counterparts. Around 150 German businessmen attended these meetings. We’re happy with the discussions and hopeful that it would translate into big business,” Ficci member and Hindustan Tin Works managing director Sanjay Bhatia said. Meanwhile, Sharma said India was likely to sign a comprehensive economic partnership agreement with Malaysia and Japan soon. This is likely to be signed when Prime Minister Manmohan Singh visits these countries for bilateral talks.
Chinese Constructing Rail Link Upto Arunachal Pradesh
The Chinese fling surprises in international politics in a manner that the world feels aghast. They are inured to a way of life that is clouded by clandestine and surreptitious activities defying proper comprehension. The latest Chinese move vis-avis India is its design of constructing rail link upto Arunachal Pradesh. We here quote a press report detailing the same : China recently started work on extending its rail link in Lhasa to its border with Nepal, but for India it might just be a red herring. In a development, which has alarmed officials, Beijing is simultaneously working on bringing its rail link right up to Nyangtri—located on the border with Arunachal Pradesh and an area that China claims as its own.
The two sides also agreed on co-operating in multilateral trade for combating protectionist tendencies that have emerged recently. This was the outcome of the three-day visit of commerce and industry ministry Anand Sharma to Germany early in the second week of October. In Berlin, Mr. Sharma held a bilateral meeting with German federal minister of economics and technologies Rainer Bruderle, “We discussed about the hotline to resolve visa issues. We also shared the concern on the trend of protectionism,” Mr. Sharma said. Sharma also visited Dusseldorf and Berlin heading a delegation of CEOs under the banner of FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry) emphasized on the strategic partnership in innovation between India and Germany. Discussions focussed on taking IndoGerman collaboration forward in key areas such as knowledge sectors like ICT, energy including renewable energy, cutting edge technology including environmental and green technology, life sciences and biotechnology, nano-technologies, small city and integrated townships, besides further enhancement of ongoing cooperation in infrastructure, manufacturing and engineering. Sharma suggested further strengthening of institutional linkages especially between economic research and policy institutes in India and their German counterparts. Such linkages could be established between institutes such as German Institute of Economic Research in Berlin, the Ifo Institute of Economic Research in Munich, Kiel Institute for World Economy and the Halle Institute of Economic Research Partners and, on the Indian side, the National Council of Applied Economic Research (NCAER), Indian Council for Research on International
PD/December/2010/973
“Whatever you are, be a good one.”
Nyangtri is also the site where the Brahmaputra is proposed to be diverted northwards by the Chinese. The Chinese claim that the Nyangtri or Nyingchi prefecture includes some parts of Arunachal Pradesh. China proposes to build the largest dam in the world at this spot. While the line to Xigaze near Tibet's border with Nepal will extend south-west from Lhasa, the line to Nyangtri will extend towards Arunachal in the southeast. China proposes to build as many as six big dams in the region on the Brahmaputra in addition to a dozen or so it has already constructed. “There is no real evidence till now that Brahmaputra waters have been diverted northwards by China, but the massive infrastructure build up at Nyangtri, including this rail link which they are working on, near the Great Bend doesn't inspire confidence,” said an Indian government official. The Great Bend is the place, where the Brahmaputra takes a decisive turn and flows towards India. Strategic affairs expert Brahma Chellaney describes the rail links to Nyangtri as a significant new development. “The building of the railway to this area is significant because of two reasons : China has unveiled plans to construct the world's largest dam there which will be more than twice as big as the Three Gorges Dam (now the world's largest), and also because it will strengthen China's rapid military deployment capability in the eastern (Arunachal) sector,” said Chellaney, adding that China is in a position to rapidly move forces and equipment and strike at India whenever it wants. China's focus on expanding its railway south of Lhasa is alarming also because of reports that for the first time earlier this year ‘combat readiness material’ meant for the Chinese air force was transported to the region through the Tibet rail link. The PLA Daily recently reported that China conducted its first major parachute exercise in Tibet to demonstrate its capability to rapidly send troops on the world's highest plateau.
offered maintenance and repair facilities for Indian warship at Vietnamese ports. This would extend an advantage to the Indian Navy that has been scaling up operations in the region, especially in South China Sea where several patrols have been carried out in the past few years. Vietnam is strategically located in the region and has several sea ports, including Hai Phong—located near the Chinese Hainan island—that could be of great interest to India. Hai Phong is possibly the nearest port made available for the Indian Navy to the Hainan island where the biggest Chinese naval base in the region is located. China has constructed a major naval base that includes an underground facility that can hide the movement of submarines from spy satellites. The military facility, the nearest Chinese naval base to India, is located barely 1,200 nautical miles from the strategic Mallaca strait and provides access to the Indian Ocean—a region that New Delhi considers its personal security responsibility. In 2008, China deployed its new Jin. class nuclear submarine, which is armed with 12 nuclear tipped missiles, to Hainan. Vietnam's offer came even as Antony announced that India would host a joint jungle and mountain warfare exercise with the country next year and New Delhi would help upgrade capabilities of the Vietnamese armed forces. After meeting with the top Vietnamese leadership including Gen. Phung Quang Thanh, Prime Minister Nguyen Tan Dung and the President Nguyen Minh Triet in Hanoi on October 14, Antony announced that India would help enhance the capabilities of the Vietnamese forces in general and would focus on the Navy in particular. It may be recalled that India is already supplying spare parts for the Petya-class of light frigates that are operated by the Vietnamese Navy. India has already decommissioned 11 of the Russian origin warships. After the meeting of October 13, the Indian Navy will increase its involvement to other types of warships, possibly including maintenance of the new Kilo-class submarine that Vietnam has ordered from Russia. After the meeting, the Indian Defence Minister said that India will extend support to Vietnam to enhance and upgrade the capabilities of its armed forces in general and the Navy in particular and emphasized that India will help Vietnam in its capacity building for repair and maintenance of its platforms.
New Dimensions of India, Vietnam Defence Cooperation
[Vietnam offers Maintenance Services for Indian Warships]
Defence cooperation between India and Vietnam charted out a new course when in a significant gesture, Vietnam offered, on October 13, 2010, repair and maintenance facilities for Indian warships at its ports, taking bilateral relations to a new high. After a Defence Minister AK Antony with his meeting with Indian Vietnamese counterpart Gen Phung Defence Minister Quang Thanh in Hanoi on October 13, AK Antony in 2010. Hanoi, Vietnamese Defence Minister Gen. Phung Quang Thanh welcomed more port calls by the Indian Navy and
Other Dimensions
There are other dimensions to defence cooperation between the two countries. Besides the joint training in mountain and jungle warfare in India next year, the Indian Army will also impart Information Technology (IT) and English Training to Vietnamese Army personnel. Also, the two sides will work together towards developing cooperation among defence institutes and establishing links for sharing experience and knowledge. The Indian Defence Minister also stated that India will also share its vast experience in UN Peace Keeping operating with Vietnamese forces.
PD/December/2010/974
“You cannot escape the responsibility of tomorrow by evading it today.”
Enforcement Directorate (ED) to Disclose Black Money in Swiss Banks
In a major development towards bringing transparency in the probe into black money stashed in swiss banks, the Central Information Commissioner (CIC) has directed the ED to make public an estimate of the total amount of such money involved in its investigation. Rejecting the contention of the directorate that it has been exempted from making disclosures under the RTI Act, the commission has held all such matters now investigated by ED come within the definition of allegations of corruption and, hence, should be disclosed. “The enforcement directorate can let the country know as to how much is the total sum of such money they are dealing with in their current investigations. This figure can be arrived at through the simple contrivance of aggregating the sums of money in all such investigations currently underway,” the commission held. The bench, however, exempted the directorate from disclosing the nature of such investigations and names of parties involved.
seat next year. India will have two years to show that it has the right stuff to be a permanent member—though Security Council reform remains a distant and arguably receding prospect for pretty long time to come, thanks to the global economic recession and an absence of coherent leadership at the global level.
India, Scotland Sign Four MoUs on Education
In a bid to strengthen educational links between the two countries, India and Scotland on October 12, 2010 signed four MoUs in various fields that will also promote student and faculty exchange and encourage joint degree development. The MoUs were signed by directors of institutes from the two countries in the presence of HRD Minister Kapil Sibal and Scotland's First Minister Alex Salmond in New Delhi. Terming the signing of the MoUs as ‘truly historic’, Sibal said that the agreements will open up further opportunities for institutes of both countries and help them find solutions for problems like global warming. He said there was a need to set up a regulatory authority soon to encourage manufacture of standard medical equipments in the country. Sibal said that a legislation was already under process and hoped that it would be passed soon. “We intend to empower our students by providing access to the finest university education the world has on offer. And in Scotland, with its higher learning tradition that goes back to the Renaissance, we have found a worthy partner,” Sibal said.
India Elected to Security Council as Non-Permanent Member
After 19 years, India was elected on October 12, 2010 to the United Nations Security Council as a non permanent member. India secured the backing of 187 of the 191 member states in the General Assembly. One member abstained from the vote. The position will help India push more aggressively for the Security Council reforms. A founding member of the U.N. India has been on the Security Council six times earlier, but not since 1992. In 1996, India lost to Japan by 100 votes. This time, however, it has taken over the Asia seat from Japan. It was the sole candidate from the region, with Kazakhstan having pulled out earlier this year. In the run-up to the vote, India's External Affairs Minister S.M. Krishna, who was in New York for more than a week in September itself met leaders of 56 countries on the margins of the General Assembly's annual session. In February, India's candidature was endorsed by the Asian group, but it still had to muster the support of 128 countries, two-thirds of the 192-member General Assembly. The other ‘clean slate’ candidates included South Africa that got the Africa seat, replacing Uganda with the backing of 182 members, and Colombia, which secured the seat for the group of Latin American and Caribbean states, replacing Mexico.
Bill on Judicial Accountability Approved
The Union Cabinet on October 5, 2010 approved a bill providing for a mechanism to deal with complaints against judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court.
? ? ? ? The Bill will mandate judges to declare assets and liabilities. Oversight committee to be headed by a retired Chief Justice of India. Public can lodge complaints against judges with a national oversight committee. The Bill will also require the judges not to have close association with any member of the bar.
Comment
In the context of India winning non-permanent seat in the Security Council The Hindustan Times in an editorial says that India must use its UN Security Council term to show that it can take tough decisions. The real test for India will be to see how it votes and how it influences the nature of the UN's debate when it takes its
The Judicial Standards and Accountability Bill sets judicial standards and makes judges accountable for their lapses. It will also mandate the judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court to declare their assets and liabilities, including those of their spouses and dependents. The Bill to replace the Judges Inquiry Act retains its basic features, contamplates the setting up of a national oversight committee with which the public can lodge complaints against erring judges, including the Chief Justice of India and the Chief Justices of the High Courts.
PD/December/2010/976
“Tis better to be silent and be thought a fool, than to speak and remove all doubt.”
At present, there is no legal mechanism for dealing with complaints against judges who are governed by ‘Restatement of Values of Judicial Life,’ adopted by the judiciary as a code of conduct without any statutory sanction. The five member committee will be headed by a retired Chief Justice of India, appointed by the President, and have a serving judge of the Supreme Court and a serving judge of a High Court, both nominated by the Chief Justice of India; the Attorney-General; and an eminent person nominated by the President. This marks a change from the earlier proposal in which the committee was to be headed by the Vice-President and to have the Chief Justice of India, a High Court Judge and two distinguished jurists not involved in regular practice of law.
Indian Navy Gets Fast Attack Craft to Secure Coast
As part of measures underway to strengthen the country's coastal security after the 26/11 terror strikes, the Indian Navy on October 14, 2010 inducted its latest fast-attack craft (FAC) at the Southern Naval Command in Kochi. The FAC, INS Kalpeni, propelled by three powerful waterjets, can reach speeds in excess of 35 knots. It is the seventh of the 1 0 FACs, each of which has a crew of three officers and 38 sailors, being built at Kolkata-based Garden Reach ship- 26/11 Effect : INS Kalpeni at the yard. INS Kalpeni, Southern Naval Command in Kochi. an improved version of Bangaram-class FAC, has been conceived, designed and built indigenously. The FAC's main armament is the 30mm CRN 91 gun, apart from also being equipped with 11 machine guns and shoulder launched IGLA surface to air missiles to neutralize aerial threats. The government also recently inked the first contract to acquire 15 fast-interception craft (FICs) or patrol boats for the new Sagar Prahari Bal (SPB) being raised by Navy in the 26/11 aftermath. The 15 boats, which can effectively patrol almost up to 200 nautical miles, was signed with French shipyard Chantier Naval Couach. These boats will be in addition to the 80 FICs approved at a cost of over Rs. 320 crore for SPB, the creation of which was one of the measures announced after 26/11, which will be ordered in the coming months. With 1,000 well-armed personnel, the specialized SPB will be tasked with protection of naval and other assets, bases and harbours on both west and east coasts. But it will take some time to take concrete shape. For one, the training of the first batch of 200 SPB personnel began only last January. For another, deliveries of the 80 FICs are likely to begin only by 2012-2013 at the earliest. Similarly, only Phase-I of the critical coastal surveillance network will be up and running by 2011 under a Rs. 350 crore project. This will include 46 stations, with coastal radars, cameras, AIS (automatic identification systems) and other sensors mounted atop old lighthouses to dynamically locate and track vessels.
Scrutiny Panels
On receiving a complaint, the committee will forward it to a system of scrutiny panels. In the case of a complaint against a Supreme Court Judge, the scrutiny panel will consist of a former Chief Justice of India and two sitting Supreme Court judges, and in the case of a complaint against a High Court Judges, the panel will have a former Chief Justice of the High Court and two of its sitting judges. The members of the Supreme Court panel will be nominated by the Chief Justice of India, and that of the High Court panels by the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned. The scrutiny panels will have the powers of a civil court. For instance, they can call for witnesses and evidences. They will be required to give their report within three months to the oversight committee. In the case of a complaint against a Chief Justice, the oversight committee itself will conduct the scrutiny. On receiving the report from the scrutiny panels, the oversight committee will set up a committee to further investigate the case. Like the security panels, the investigation committee will have the powers of a civil court; it will have power to frame definite charges. If the charges are not proved, the investigation committee can dismiss the case. Otherwise, it will give a report to the oversight committee, which can issue an advisory or warning if the charges are not too serious. If the charges are serious, the committee can request the judge concerned to resign. If the judge does not do so, the oversight committee will forward the case to the President with an advisory for his removal. In such an event, copies of all relevant documents will be laid in Parliament and an impeachment motion moved. In the Lok Sabha, not less than 100 members will be required to move the motion, and in the Rajya Sabha not less than 50 members will be needed. Official sources said that besides declaring their assets, judges would be required to file an annual return of assets and liabilities. All the details would be put up on the websites of the Supreme Court and High Courts. The bill will also require the judges not to have close association with any member of the Bar, especially those who practise in the same court.
Yudhoyono to be Chief Guest at R-Day Parade
Indonesian President Susilo Bambang Yudhoyono will be the chief guest at the next year's Republic Day parade in Delhi, according to official sources. Both countries will seek to build on the joint declaration on a new strategic partnership signed by Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh and Mr. Yudhoyono during the latter's visit to India in 2005. The two sides will also attempt to expand economic relations bilaterally
PD/December/2010/978
“When I do good, I feel good; when I do bad, I feel bad, and that is my religion.”
and under the aegis of the Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN) of which Indonesia is a founder member.
onboard systems are also manufactured by private industries in different parts of the country. This UAV can be used by all the three armed services of the country.
Rustom 1 Test Flown Successfully
Rustom 1 a medium-altitude and long-endurance Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV), developed by the Bangalore-based Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE) was successfully test flown at Bangalore on October 16, 2010. As per an official statement, Rustom 1 was flown from the Taneja Aerospace and Aviation airfield at Hosur near Bangalore. The aircraft Rustom 1. took off even in inclement weather condition for a first flight, flew for 12 minutes and landed successfully, meeting all its objectives. According to a Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) spokesperson Rustom 1 followed the two other UAV developed by the ADE—Lakshya and Nishant. While Lakshya—a drone that is remotely piloted by a ground control station—provides aerial subtargets for live fire training, Nishant is a surveillance aircraft primarily tasked with intelligence gathering over enemy territory. “Unlike the other UAV, which used to have a free fall with parachutes after executing their tasks, Rustom will carry out copy book style landing,” the DRDO spokesperosn said, adding that “in the coming days Rustom can be used as unmanned combat aerial vehicle and also to carry war-heads.” The first full flight of Rustom 1 on October 16 was under the command of Lt. Col. V. S. Thapa of the Army, an experienced External Pilot for UAVs who was positioned at the edge of the runway. The statement said that he controlled it without any difficulty throughout its flight, which included the pilot-assisted take-off flight in air and a copy book style landing. The aircraft has many auto-features such as GPS controlled Way Point Navigation and Get U Home included even in its first flight, but will be exercised in subsequent flights.
Lok Pal Bill Draft Finalized
? Prime Minister comes within its purview. ? Some limits on powers to probe Prime Ministers, Members of Parliament.
After an unusually long wait and numerous attempts—at least 10, the centre has finally come up with an acceptable-to-all draft of the Lok Pal Bill. In a major decision that has the backing of Prime Minister Manmohan Singh, the office of the Prime Minister has been brought within the ombudsman's purview. Now that the draft is almost ready, it awaits being presented before the Cabinet for its seal of approval. It may be recalled that in 1986, the Administrative Reforms Commission had recommended the enactment of a law for setting up a Lok Pal at the centre and Lokayuktas in every state. But while 17 states have already set up Lokayuktas—Orissa was the first state to do so—successive central governments have been unable to do much, the major hurdle having been whether or not the Prime Minister and his Cabinet colleagues should be brought within the purview of the Lok Pal. The re-drafted Lok Pal Bill proposes to bring all political functionaries at the Centre, including the Prime Minister and his ministerial colleagues as well as Members of Parliament and members of the defence services, under the purview of the Lok Pal. The Lok Pal would not, however, be empowered to inquire into any allegation against the PM in relation to his functions concerning national security, foreign affairs and public order. The Lok Pal would not be able to probe complaints against the President, Vice-President, Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, sitting Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, Comptroller and Auditor General of India, Attorney-General, Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners, Chairman and members of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and Chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission. Also, before taking up complaints against Members of Parliament, the Lok Pal would have to seek the concurrence of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha or the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as the case may be.
Features
“The UAV has an endurance of 12 to 15 hours and can carry payloads up to 75 kg. It has an altitude ceiling of 25,000 feet. Such flights of UAVs remove the risk to human pilots when they have to fly them in hazardous zones,” the statement said. The data link system for this UAV was designed and developed by another DRDO laboratory called Defence Electronics Applications Laboratory (DEAL) situated in Dehradun. Its airframe is made by a private company called Zephyr situated in Coimbatore and most of its
A Three-Member Body
The Draft Bill says that the Lok Pal would be a threemember body comprising a chairman—a sitting or retired Chief Justice of India or former judge of the Supreme Court—and two members, to be chosen from among sitting or retired judges of the Supreme Court, or sitting or retired Chief Justices of High Courts.
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“Death may be the greatest of all human blessings.”
However, no sitting judge would be considered for appointment without consultation with the Chief Justice of India. The trio would be appointed on the recommendations of a committee headed by the Vice-President and comprising the Prime Minister, the Lok Sabha Speaker, Ministers of Home and Law, and the Leaders of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. All three members would hold sittings together and decide matters jointly. They would be appointed for a period of three years or until they attain the age of 70, whichever is earlier. In order to ensure transparency and impartiality of the Lok Pal, the Bill says that on ceasing to hold office as ombudsman, the three members would not be eligible to hold any other office in the government. Incidentally, in the latest draft Bill, the period for making complaints to the Lok Pal has been brought down from the earlier 10 years to five years from the date of the alleged offence. The Lok Pal would have six months from the receipt of the complaint within which it would have to complete investigations and submit a report. The Bill also empowers the Lok Pal to punish with imprisonment and/or a fine those guilty of making false or mala fide complaints.
to much loss and impinging on the execution of projects sanctioned by the government. An institution of this type exists in several countries, particularly in Scandinavian countries where it is doing good work. It is hoped that with the establishment of Lok Pal at the centre, we shall be able to put effective curb on corruption in public life.
India Signs Social Security Agreement with S. Korea
A reciprocal Social Security Agreement (SSA) and protocal that will benefit a huge number of Indians— particularly those working in the fields of Information Technology, medicine and finance—was signed in Seoul, S. Korean capital on October 19, 2010. Overseas Indian Affairs Minister Vyalar Ravi and Korean Minister for Trade Kim Jong-hoon signed the pact. An official release said that a number of Indians were working in S. Korea, most of them professionals and self-employed persons. There was huge potential for the employment of Indians in Korea owing to a large gap in market labour supply. An SSA with S. Korea would enhance the movement of professionals, and investment, between the two countries. The pact is the result of negotiations which were held between India and S. Korea in New Delhi in December 2009.
Comment
It is gratifying that the draft of the Lok Pal Bill has been finalized and with the passage of time the law of Lok Pal would see the light of day. It is a good measure to curb corruption in high places. It is common knowledge that corruption has penetrated into the highest echelons of public life and is eating into the vitals of our nationhood. It is to be decimated altogether if the nation has to progress quick and fast. It is painful indeed to see that quite a good percentage of public funds are diverted to unlawful channels, putting the government exchequer
Government Approves Amendments to Enemy Property Law
The Union Government on October 20, 2010 approved amendments to a four-decade old law that proposes to allow Indian legal heirs to inherit the properties of relatives who migrated to Pakistan after partition. However, as per the amendment to the Enemy Property Act of 1968 only transactions that have been effected before July 2, this year will have legal sanction.
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The Union Cabinet, at a meeting chaired by Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh on October 20, approved the proposal of the Ministry of Home Affairs to introduce the Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Bill, 2010. According to the amendments, “if the enemy property was diverted from the Custodian before 2nd July, 2010, it shall stand transferred to and vest or continue to vest in the custodian.” “If, however, the enemy was divested from the custodian by a valid order made under section 18 prior to 2nd July, 2010 or where the property had been returned to the owner or his lawful heir by an order of the court; and if the lawful heir is a citizen of India by birth, such enemy property will continue to remain with such person” say the amendments approved by the Cabinet. An attempt to get the amendments passed by Parliament during the Monsoon Session had failed due to repeated pleas and lobbying of cross-party Muslim MPs, including several ministers, who pleaded to ensure that legal heirs are allowed to hold the property of their parents or grandparents who had migrated to Pakistan. Through an Act in 1968, the government had declared the properties left behind by people who migrated to Pakistan during partition as ‘enemy properties‘. “The fresh amendments that were placed before Parliament have been incorporated in the new Bill. There is no change in the content of the Bill,” Home Minister P. Chidambaram said. The proposal for fresh amendments provide for ensuring that the enemy property shall continue to vest in the custodian till it is divested by the central government and the enemy property could be divested only to the owner or his lawful heir.
It means a Muslim citizen of India who is a legal inheritor of such property is able to retain ownership even if the deceased had gone to Pakistan after partition, but he will have to legally prove his or her inheritance. The central government is authorised to direct the custodian to sell or dispose of enemy properties in such manner as may be prescribed. To amend the Public Premises (Eviction of Unauthorised Occupants) Act, 1971 to declare the Custodian, Deputy Custodian and Assistant Custodian of Enemy Properties as Estate Officer in respect of the enemy properties are other features of the proposed amendments. The amendments came in the wake of a series of judgements by various courts that eroded the powers of the custodian of the enemy property. The amendments will have retrospective effect.
India, Germany Ink Cultural Accord
India and Germany on October 18, 2010 imparted fresh momentum to their joint efforts for expansion of the U.N. Security Council and discussed ways to deepen counter-terror cooperation. External Affairs Minister S.M. Krishna held talks with his German counterparts Guido Westerwelle that focussed on UN Foreign Minister S.M. Krishna, left, reforms, enhanced with his German counterpart Guido counter-terror co- Westerwelle before a meeting in New operation, climate Delhi, on Oct. 18, 2010. change and the intensification of economic and defence ties.
Other Cabinet Decisions
? Cashless health insurance for street vendors Street vendors will now enjoy the benefits of cashless-based health insurance scheme. The Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) currently covers BPL families only. The RSBY will be extended to the over 42 lakh street vendors in India. The premium will be paid by the Central and State Governments in the ratio of 75 : 25. For the North Eastern States and Jammu and Kashmir, the ratio is 90 : 10. ? NIMHANS upgradation The National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro Sciences, Bangalore, has been declared as an institute of national importance on the lines of the All India Institute of Medical Sciences. ? Scheme named after Indira Gandhi A new scheme targeted at improving the health of expectant mothers and ensuring proper nutrition for newborns has been named the Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana. ? Seeds Bill, 2004 The government approved additional amendments to the Seeds Bill, 2004 that includes raising penalties for offences like sale of spurious seeds.
MoU Signed
After the talks, Suresh Kumar Goel Director-General of the Indian Council of Cultural Relations, and Thomas Goetz Director-General, Culture and Science, The German office, signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) and celebrating a year of Germany in India in 2011-12 and a year of India in Germany in 2012-13. The celebrations will mark 60 years of Indo-German diplomatic partnership. India and Germany have been elected non-permanent members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) for 2011-2012.
Prime Minister’s Visit to Japan, Malaysia and Vietnam
Indian Prime Minister was on a seven-day visit to Japan, Malaysia and Vietnam in the last week of October 2010. On October 25 in Tokyo, India and Japan decided to extend their cooperation to areas such as joint ventures in rare earth minerals, some hitherto unexplored areas in
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“Do not do to others what angers you if done to you by others.”
defence, and transport and industrial corridors in South India. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh and his Japanese counterpart Naoto Kan, resolved to continue talks on a civil nuclear agreement. They instructed the officials to ensure the smooth Moving Together : Prime Minister implementation of Manmohan Singh and his Japanese the Comprehensive counterpart Naoto Kan shake hands Economic Partner- after exchanging documents on an ship Agreement agreement signed at the latter’s official (CEPA) and accele- residence in Tokyo on October 25. rate discussions on the reform of the United Nations Security Council, to which both countries are aspirants as permanent members. Dr. Singh and Mr. Naoto Kan also discussed China. In their joint declaration on the conclusion of CEPA negotiations, the two leaders committed to signing the agreement at the earliest at ministerial level, on completion of necessary formalities. “The CEPA encompasses trade in services and investment besides covering 90 per cent of the trade in merchandise or goods,” said Rao. The pact will also help movement of nurses and care givers, information technology professionals and promote tourism. The two PMs also signed a memorandum on simplifying procedures for business visas and temporary visitor’s visas for businessmen in Japan. It also entails measures related to employment visas in India, entry visas for working in Japan and those related to tourist visas in India and temporary visitor’s visas for sightseeing in Japan. The two PMs’ restrictive meeting was followed by a 45-minute annual summit talks at the official level.
Six Pacts with Malaysia
From Japan the Prime Minister dashed to Malaysia where he arrived at Kuala Lumpur on October 26. The PM and his wife were accorded a ceremonial welcome by Malaysian Human Resources Minister S. Subramaniam and his wife at the Kuala Lumpur International Airport. In Kuala Lumpur, India and Malaysia signed six pacts, with the accord for implementing the Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) from July 1, 2011 being the centrepiece. The agreements were signed at a ceremony presided over by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh and his Malaysian counterpart Mohd. Najib. Comparing the CECA with the India-Asean Trade in Goods (TiG) agreement that was implemented from January 1, 2010, both the sides offer ‘Asean plus’ market access in goods. In Trade in Services, both the sides agreed on providing access to each other’s services market across all modes and various sectors.
India and Malaysia would liberalise their respective investment regimes to facilitate greater Foreign Direct Investment into each other’s territory. Both sides would also finalise twothree other areas of economic cooperation from among infrastructure development, creative industries, tourism, small and medium enterprises (SMEs), business facilitation, science and technology, and human resource development, said official sources. The Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) on co- Prime Minister Manmohan Singh and operation in the his Malaysian counterpart Md. Najib traditional systems applaud as Commerce and Industry of medicine makes Minister Anand Sharma (left) exIndia the second changes files with Malaysian Health country with which Minister Liow Tiong Lai after signing Malaysia has signed an agreement at Putrajaya in Kuala such a pact. The Lumpur on October 27. MoU will guide the existing rudimentary cooperation in a more focussed manner and also streamline the existing practices in traditional systems of medicine to higher levels of acceptance by people of the two countries. The MoU for cooperation in tourism would encourage the growing flow of visitors to both the countries. India is the sixth largest source country for inbound tourism to Malaysia (six lakhs in 2009) while Malaysia is the 10th largest (1·15 lakhs in 2008). The MoU for cooperation in IT & Services would reflect the contemporary changes taking place in the field of Information Technology and Services.
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“Envy is the ulcer of the soul.”
Separately, the two Prime Ministers announced the setting up of a Joint ICT Talent Development Consultative Committee to make specific recommendations to both the governments for IT skills training, talent development and greater engagement of the Indian IT companies in Malaysia. Already, 60 Indian IT companies are present, including some from the top 10. An agreement between the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) and the UNIK of Malaysia on Research and Development Collaboration will witness the setting up of a Joint Innovation Accelerator Centre in Malaysia to carry out research in green technology, water treatment and medicinal and aromatic plants.
The talks between the two leaders were held in a cordial atmosphere. Mr. Wen Jiabao was requested to visit India and his visit was fixed for December 2010 itself. Other important leaders whom Dr. Manmohan Singh met in Hanoi included Vietnamese Prime Minister Nguyen Tan Dung and South Korean President Lee Myung-bak, with whom talks were held on bilateral matters and other regional issues. Another important meeting was with the Australian Prime Minister Ms. Gillard.
In Vietnam
From Malaysia Dr. Manmohan Singh reached Hanoi, the capital of Vietnam on October 28 to attend the 5th East Asia Summit and the 17th ASEAN Summit. In Hanoi the Prime Minister interacted with several regional leaders and exchanged views on bilateral and multilateral matters. The most significant was Dr. Manmohan’s meeting with Chinese Prime Minister Wen Prime Minister Manmohan Singh with Jiabao. In this meetChinese Premier Wen Jiabao prior in ing which materiHanoi, Vietnam on October 29. alised on the sidelines of the Association of South East Asian Nations Summit and the East Asia Summit both leaders covered the entire gamut of relations, including the issue of China issuing stapled visas to people domiciled in Jammu and Kashmir and the consequent pause in the high-level defence exchanges. In their 10th meeting in six years, they took a broad view of the strategic significance of India-China ties and expressed satisfaction at the development of relations. Mr. Wen agreed with Dr. Singh’s off-repeated statement that there was enough space in the world to accommodate the growth of both countries. There was enough space for India and China to have cooperative relationship in ‘all areas’.
India, Bangladesh Sign $ 1 billion Line of Credit Agreement
India has decided to export 5 lakh tonnes of rice and wheat to Bangladesh despite ban on outward shipments of the foodgrains. Both countries also agreed in the third week of October to establish ‘Border Haats’ along the Meghalaya-Bangladesh border and open the Chittagong and Mongla ports to boost trade ties. Forging Ties : Anand Sharma (left), The two coun- Union Minister for Commerce and tries have signed $ 1 Industry, with his Bangladesh billion Line of counterpart Muhammad Faruk Khan Credit agreement exchanging the documents after signand some important ing the MoU in New Delhi on Oct. 23. pacts for power transmission. Union Commerce and Industry Minister Anand Sharma met his Bangladesh counterpart in New Delhi on October 23, 2010. “Apart from the Line of Credit, the bulk power transmission agreement and an MoU between NTPC and the Bangladesh Power Development Board have also been signed in the power sector”. Mr. Sharma said pointing out that after Bangladesh Prime Minister Hasina Sheikh's successful visit to India, both countries had been actively engaged in implementing the joint communique that reflected the understanding reached between the Prime Ministers of the two countries.
Nuclear Deal with South Korea
India and South Korea have reached an agreement on civil nuclear cooperation, marking the ninth such pact Delhi has finalised since getting the Nuclear Suppliers’ Group waiver in 2008. The announcement came after Prime Minister Manmohan Singh met South Korean President Lee Myung-bak on Oct. 29 in Hanoi, Vietnam on the sidelines of the Asean Summit. “We have finalised agreement on cooperation in civil uses of nuclear energy, which is now awaiting signature,” national security adviser Shivshankar Menon said.
News in a Nutshell
January 25 to be National Voters' Day
January 25 will hereafter be celebrated as National Voters' Day, Chief Election Commissioner S. Y. Quraishi said on October 9, 2010. The date marks the foundation day of the Election Commission of India. On that day, young voters, who attain the age of 18 years on January 7,' will be given Elector Photo Identity Cards (EPIC).
Continued on Page 993
PD/December/2010/984 “Get not your friends by bare compliments, but by giving them sensible tokens of your love.”
BASIC Unity Stands Ruptured; South Africa Toes West Line in the Climate Negotiation
[Developing Countries Averse to LegallyBinding Agreement at Cancun Meeting] The first signs of rift in the BASIC group—Brazil , South Africa, India and China surfaced in the climate negotiations that were held in a meeting of experts from the four countries in the second week of October 2010. At the meeting South Africa put forward a proposal that caused fissures in the group of four emerging economies, which had trumped Europe in dictating terms at the Copenhagen meet in 2009 and worked as a team. Expressing frustration with the current state of climate talks, South Africa proposed that all decisions taken at the Cancun talks to be held in December this year should form part of a single legally binding agreement. China, India and Brazil were not Scary Scenario agreeable to it as it could lead to a demise of the Kyoto Protocol and also sound the death knell for the Bali Action Plan. The Bali Action Plan is seen by developing countries as the last remaining firewall between developed and developing countries in climate negotiations. The proposal by South Africa took ominous proportions when other developed countries along with the AOSIS group (Alliance of Small Island States) and some Central American countries—all seen as close to the US—in a concerted manner started for pushing for a legally binding agreement to become the central pillar of all talks. At Copenhagen the BASIC four had worked ferociously to prevent such a move. India, China and Brazil were caught unawares with the South African proposal as well as another move by Venezuela suggesting that three categories be created instead of the existing two (developed and other countries) to list out the international commitments towards reducing greenhouse gases—one for developed countries that have targets under Kyoto Protocol, another for the US and the third for major economies such as India. The moves, if they find favour within the UN talks, could end up easing the pressure on the developed countries to take on strong greenhouse gas emission targets under the Kyoto Protocol or even completely finish it off, instead of moving the global climate regime towards a single treaty where India and China are seen as comparable to the developed countries.
Ministerial Meeting on Climate Change : India-China ‘No’ New Targets
The expert group's meeting was followed by a ministerial meeting in which BASIC group of countries participated, with Jairam Ramesh, India's environment minister representing India at Tainjin, China on October 11, 2010.
Basic Nations reject move, backed by WTO to impose tax for failing to abide by Binding Treaty
A new divide emerged between rich and developing nations with India and China opposing a move to link trade with reducing carbon emissions. The developed world, led by the US and Europe, has been talking of imposing a tax on countries which fail to abide by a binding climate treaty, in which India and China will have to take emission control measures. This claim is also being backed by the World Trade Organization. The Basic group of countries—India, China, Brazil and South Africa—called it a “unilateral protectionist measure” and rejected at the Tainjin meeting itself on October 11, 2010. “—Basic ministers rejected the notion of unilateral actions against products and services of developing countries on grounds of combating climate change, which will jeopardise international collaboration on climate change and international trade,” said a resolution adopted by the ministers. The text, which India first proposed in Bonn in August last year says that “developed countries shall not resort to any form of unilateral measures, including countervailing border measures, against goods and services imported from developing countries on grounds of protection of climate.” “We would like this text to be reflected in the final (climate) agreement,” Indian Environment Minister Jairam Ramesh said at the meeting attended by officials from Yemen , Ethiopia, Venezuela, Argentina and Egypt. India has said such moves would violate the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Ramesh expressed concern over reports saying some of the measures were compatible with WTO rules. “The report has come as somewhat of a shock to us,” he said. The new WTO report, seeking 14 types of penalties for imports from high carbon emitting countries, has come at a time when climate negotiations have almost collapsed with US and China not seeing eye to eye. US has been seeking a uniform treaty with binding targets for China, India and Brazil, opposed by China, the second largest carbon emitter in the world.
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“Remember what is unbecoming to do is also unbecoming to speak of.”
World’s Greatest Rescue Operation in Chile : 33 Miners Trapped Inside Earth Rescued Safely
[Last man out was shift foreman Luis Urzua; most miners in good health Chile celebrates miners’ rescue] The longest underground nightmare in history ended safely and faster than any one expected. In a flawless operation that unfolded before a hopeful trans fixed world, 33 miners who were trapped for more than two months beneath the Chilean earth were raised one by one in a mission that ended October 14, 2010. The last man out was the one who held the group together when they were feared lost, a shift foreman named Luis Urzua who enforced tight rations of their limited food and supplies before help could arrive. “We have done what the entire world was waiting for,” he said immediately after his rescue. “We had strength, we had spirit, we wanted to fight, we wanted to fight for our families, and that was the greatest thing.” Not even a full 24 hours after the rescue began, Urzua made the 2041 foot ascent in a Prescue confetti called Phoenix and emerged from a manholesized opening in the ground to a joyous celebration of comfelt's, balloons and Champagne.
spent 26 minutes alone down below before he strapped himself into the capsule for the ride up. He reached the surface at 12-32 on October 14, 2010. The 33 newly rescued miners recovered from their ordeal on October 15, 2010. Most of the miners were found to be in decent health despite being stuck in a collapsed mine tunnel since August 5. The men were resting in a hospital after being hoisted to the surface. One of the miners had pneumonia and was being treated. Chile and its billionaire President Sebastian Pinera have both burnished their images with the flawlessly executed rescue. Pinera, 60, a credit card and airline magnate who took office in March, is already basking in the glow of success. The rescue took 69 days and about 8 hours. The crowd in ‘Camp Hope’, down a hill from the escape shaft, set off confetti, released balloons and sprayed champagne as Urzua's capsule surfaced. In the capital of Santiago, hundreds gathered waving flags and chanting victory slogans.
General Elections in Kyrgyzstan : Result Surprises World
Parliamentary elections were held in Kyrgyzstan on October 10 and the result was out on October 11, 2010. The results produced no clear winner. Five parties out of 29 contestants cleared the five per cent threshold to win seats in the 120-member Parliament. The only surprise was the strong showing of a nationalist party Ata Zhurt. The bigger surprise was that the results were not a foregone conclusion, making this small, mostly Muslim nation the first in Central Asia to hold free elections in pursuit of a democratic system. The vote turn out was more than 52 per cent. Hurdles galore still await this landlocked country of 5 million people, for the fractured verdict may create difficulties for the government formation and still greater obstacles for government running. The surprise in the election was the 8.6 per cent share won by a nationalist party called Ata-Zhurt, a powerful force in the rural southern part of the country, which has been beset by ethnic and political violence. This parliamentary system was approved in a referendum in June and is a first for Central Asia. Kyrgyzstan has had two coups in the past five years. Askar Akayev, who was President for 15 years, was forced out in 2005. Earlier this year, his successor, Kurmanbek Bakiyev, was ousted after rioting in the streets. In June, political and ethnic violence erupted between Kyrgyz and Uzbeks in the south, killing 400 people and forcing as many as 400,000 from their homes. The interim President, Roza Otunbayeva, has been a proponent of a parliamentary system that was presented as a way to give voice and legislative power to disparate groups. It also was seen as a way to bring peace and common purpose to this land, where the mountains divide north and south into two almost separate countries.
Unknown Miners become Stars
? ? ? ? Real Madrid and Manchester United invited the miners— some avid soccer fans— to watch them play in Europe. A local singer-turned-businessman has given them $ 10,000 each. Apple boss Steve Jobs has sent them all a latest iPod and a Greek firm has offered an islands tour. Miners unlikely to return to old work. Get job offers, book and film contracts.
Chilean President Sebastian Pinera told him, “You are not the same, and the country is not the same after this. You were an inspiration.” The first rescue worker down was last up-Manuel Ganzalez, mine rescue expert with Chile's state-owned Codelco copper company; talked the men through the final hours inside the mine. Then, he
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“The only good is knowledge and the only evil is ignorance.”
“We read, we went for lovely journeys in eastern Europe … Life in East Germany was arduous, regimented and limited, but we tried to make something of it,” Ms. Merkel, who was trained as a physicist, told the paper. U.S. President Barack Obama was quick to congratulate Germany, praising “the courage and conviction of the German people that brought down the Berlin Wall, ending decades of painful and artificial separation”. Washington's Cold War foe also congratulated Germany, with Russian President Dmitry Medvedev saying reunification carried an “enduring historic significance not only for the German people but for the whole of Europe”. After World War II, the victorious powers, the United States, Britain, France and the Soviet Union carved defeated Germany into four sections. With the advent of the Cold War, Moscow erected a border between its eastern section, and the three western Allied sections, including the Wall that split Berlin in two.
Post Nobel, A Cry for Free Speech by Chinese Communist Party Elders
A consistently restricted and regimented order of governance in China has forced even the ruling party elders to cry for free speech in China. A group of Chinese Communist Party elders has issued a bold call to end the country's wideranging restrictions on free speech, just days after the government reacted angrily to the awarding of the Nobel Peace Prize to imprisoned dissident Chinese leader Liu Xiaobo. In an open letter posted online, the retired officials state that although China's 1982 Constitution guarantees freedom of speech, the right is constrained by a host of laws and regulations that should be scrapped. “This kind of false democracy of affirming in principle and denying in actuality is a scandal in the history of democracy,” said the letter, which was dated October 11 and widely distributed by email. Wang Yongcheng, a retired professor at Shanghai's Jiaotong University who signed the letter, said it had been inspired by the recent arrest of a journalist who wrote about corruption in the resettlement of farmers for a dam project. “We want to spur action toward governing the country according to law,” Wang said in an interview. Coming on top of Liu's Nobel Peace Prize, the letter further spotlights China's tight restrictions on freedom of speech and other civil rights, although Wang said the two events were not directly related. Work on the letter began several days before the prize was awarded, and drafters decided against including a reference to Liu out of concern that the government would block its circulation. Reshma Patil from Beijing writes that this criticism of the Communist Party's ‘invisible hand’ is extraordinary for more than its free speech. The 23 signatories of this letter circulated online on October 12, 2010 before it was blocked, spent years on top posts inside the propaganda and media machinery that control the information that reaches Chinese citizens. They include a former director of the Party mouthpiece People's Daily, a former deputy director of news agency Xinhua, a former editor-in-chief of China Daily, a former news head of the central propaganda department, a former director of the News Research Institute of China's top thinktank and a former Party School Professor.
Germany Celebrates 20 Years of Unity
Germany's President Christian Wulff on October 3, 2010 paid tribute to the courage of those who fought for freedom of the country. Germany celebrated 20 years since reunification after decades of Cold War Division. In his first major set piece speech Christian Wulff said, “We remember the momentous day that a people experience only rarely,” when the capitalist west and the Communist East merged barely a year after the fall of the dismantling of the Berlin Wall. “I bow before everyone who fought for freedom …… your courage moved the world,” the President told an audience of dignitaries including Chancellor Angela Merkel and European President Herman Van Rompuy, to general applause.
The Challenges
Mr. Wulff also highlighted the challenges ahead of the reunited Germany, focussing on the difficulties of integrating its large Muslim population, the subject of a fiery debate in recent days. For her part, Ms. Merkel who was brought up in East Germany, recalled her life growing up under communism and said she would have be a straight-forward scientist if the Berlin Wall had not fallen. Ms. Merkel, now considered the world's most powerful woman, said that despite the constraints of life in East Germany, “it is certainly true to say that it was not boring.”
PD/December/2010/987
“Thou shouldst eat to live; not live to eat.”
On October 3, 1990, just under a year after the Wall was yanked down in a bloodless revolution, the reunification treaty bringing the two halves of the country together came into effect amid joyful scenes.
to around 2,50,000 Palestinians, and Palestinians hope to make it the capital of a future state.
Sovereignty
Past peace plans have proposed leaving the Jewish neighbourhoods under the Israeli sovereignty. But Palestinians and the US have said that Israeli construction there is nonethless provocative and undermines peace talks. Egypt's Foreign Minister Ahmed Aboul Gheit said that if Israel continued to build settlements, Arab nations might seek U.N. recognition of a Palestinian state without Israel's approval.
Israel Approves East Jerusalem Houses Ending Freeze
The Israeli government on October 15, 2010 ended an unofficial freeze on new buildings in east Jerusalem, approving the construction of 238 houses in Jewish neighbourhoods as peace talks with Palestine remained stuck over the fate of a broader construction slowdown throughout the West Bank.
Huge US-Saudi Arms Deal
As per press sources, the United States has announced one of the largest weapons sales in its history, worth nearly $ 60 billion to Saudi Arabia. Announcing the deal, Assistant Secretary for Political-Military Affairs Andrew Shapiro said that the US planned to sell the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia “a significant An AH-64 Delta Apache Longbow defence package that helicopter in Conroe, Texas, in this will promote regional recent photo. security and enhance the defensive capabilities of an important Gulf partner with whom we have had a longstanding and close security relationship.” The most significant components of the package include 84 F-15 aircraft, 70 upgrades of existing Saudi F-15s to a more advanced configuration, 70 AH-64D Apache Longbow helicopters, 72 UH-60 Blackhawk helicopters, 36 AH-6i light attack helicopters, and 12 MD-530F light training helicopters. The proposed packages also include aircraft munitions. Support and training services are sufficient, officials said. In approving the sale the Obama administration argued that it would advance US national security, send a strong message to the region that the US was committed to supporting the security of its allies in the Arabian Gulf and enhance Saudi Arabia's ability to deter and defend against threats to its borders and to its oil infrastructure, which is critical to USA's economic interests as well. It has also been asserted that the weapons sale would improve US Saudi interoperability and as a result the US Department of Defence would be able to free up US forces in the region and maximize the effectiveness of the U.S global force posture. Although it has been denied yet confrontation with Iran is a fact in U.S. mind in clinching the deal with Saudi Arabia.
Disturbing Move : Jewish settlement Pisgat Zeev is seen behind Israel's controversial separation barrier on the outskirts of Jerusalem recently.
Plan Draws Swift Palestinian Condemnation
The Israeli Housing Ministry's announcement that developers would be allowed to bid for contracts to build new homes in the neighbourhoods of Ramot and Pisgal Zeev drew swift condemnation from Palestinian negotiators. Peace talks that began in early September are deadlocked over the Palestinian demand that Israel extend a slowdown on settlement construction that expired in September 2010 itself. The Palestinians threatened to quit the negotiations unless Israel reinstated the building restrictions. Curiously enough, the Israeli Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu refused to oblige. Both sides have indicated compromise is possible, but attempts by U.S. mediator to break the impasse have failed. Israel's construction announcement further bedevilled the atmosphere. “This announcement is a clear-cut indication that the choice of Netanyahu is settlements, not peace,” said chief negotiator Saeb Erekat, charging the Israelis with “closing all doors on attempts to revive the direct negotiations”. Mr. Natanyahu's office refused to comment on October 15, 2010 The Israeli settlement slowdown imposed last November in the West Bank did not officially include east Jerusalem, which Israel claims as part of its capital. But before October 15, Israel had quietly halted building there as well without explicitly saying it was doing so. There was no immediate public comment from U.S. officials on October 15. Around 1,80,000 Israelis live in neighbourhoods Israel has built in east Jerusalem since capturing the area from Jordan in 1967. The eastern sector of the city is home
UK Announces Severe Military Cutbacks
In a bid to streamline its armed forces and help reduce its daunting levels of national debt Britain on
PD/December/2010/988
“Having the fewest wants, I am nearest to the gods.”
October 19, 2010 announced plans to cut its military personnel by 10 per cent, scrap 40 per cent of the army's artillery, withdraw troops from Germany within 10 years and cut 25,000 civilian jobs in its Defence Ministry. Unveiling his Strategic Defence and Security Review, the first since 9/11, Prime Minister David Cameron said that the cuts were part of an effort to reconfigure a military that “was over stretched, under equipped and illprepared” to meet the unconventional warfare challenges of the future. He said that Britain intended to remain a significant military power, with a military budget that would still be the fourth highest in the world, after those of the US, China and Russia. The plan calls for the scrapping of the Ark Royal, Britain's only aircraft carrier capable of launching fixedwing jets, along with the fleet of Harrier jump jets operated by the Royal Navy and the Royal Air Force since the 1970s. The demise of the Ark Royal means Britain will have a 10-year hiatus without a carrier-borne strike force until one of two new aircraft carriers is equipped with a new generation of Joint Strike Fighters in 2020. The government would go ahead with plans to build both carriers at $ 9.5 billion only because it would be even more costly to cancel one of them, with both already under construction. But after three years in service, one of them will be either moth balled or sold off. The decision caused costernation among naval veterans, military analysts and others who have joined the Labour Party in accusing the government of hastening the review to meet the needs of its austerity programme.
Previous Strikes
? Chechen rebels seized a theatre in Moscow in 2002, holding 850 people hostage. Around 120 hostages died. ? In September 2004, gunmen demanding Chechen independence seized a school in the town of Beslan in North Ossetia resulting in the death of 330 people, more than half of them children. ? Chechen rebel Doku Umarov claimed responsibility for an August 17 dam disaster in Siberia that killed 75 and for bombing an express train between Moscow and St Petersburg in November that killed 26 people. ? Two female suicide bombers killed 39 people at two crowded Moscow metro stations in March earlier this year. ? A shootout between leader Ramzan Kadyrov's guards and suspected insurgents left 19 people dead in his village in August.
“A special operation to destroy the insurgents has taken place,” Kadyrov said in a brief statement. He said that all the deputies and other people inside the building had been freed. Earlier, Russia's federal Investigative Committee said four attackers had been killed. Interfax news agency also reported that the rebels had taken hostages but it was impossible to confirm this. At least 17 people were injured in the attack, one of the most brazen in Grozny for years. Russia's leaders are struggling to contain a growing Islamist insurgency in the North Caucasus, a strip of impoverished, mainly Muslim provinces along predominantly Orthodox Christian Russia's Southern border. The Kremlin had declared victory in its battle with Chechen separatists following two wars in Chechnya to crush separatists since the 1991 fall of the Soviet Union. The federal government has poured money into rebuilding Grozny, which was devastated in the wars, and Kadyrov boasts that Chechnya is more peaceful than the neighbouring regions of Dagestan and Ingushetia. Russian President Dmitry Medvedev said last November that strife in the North Caucasus was Russia's biggest domestic problem. Human rights activists say the Kremlin has relied for far too long on local leaders and security forces whose heavy-handed tactics have exacerbated the insurgency. Prime Minister Vladimir Putin's policy in Chechnya has been to back Kadyrov, a former rebel who switched sides at the outbreak of Moscow's second war in Chechnya. The bet on Kadyrov, who promised to place everything under control, proved wrong, said Yevgeny Volk, a political analyst at the Yeltsin Foundation, a Moscow-based think tank. Both Putin and Medvedev spoke to Kadyrov by telephone about the attack, a sign of support for the Chechen leader.
Chechen Parliament Attacked by Rebels
Terrorist activity in Chechnya climaxed on October 19, when Islamist rebels killed at least four people as they tried to seize Chechnya's Parliament in a brazen suicide attack that showed that Russia has failed to quell insurgency on its southern flank. Three rebels burst into the Parliament compound in the Chechen capital of Grozny in the morning time as deputies arrived for work and began the attack, which lasted Parliament Attacked : Special Force until government officers survey the scene after a bomb blast in front of the Chechen Parliaforces stormed the ment in Grozny on Oct. 19. Militants building. wearing suicide vests stormed the comOne blew him- plex in Russia's strife-torn Chechnya, self up outside and killing three policemen and injuring 17 two others went on others as they held lawmakers and a rampage inside, officials hostage. The insurgents were spraying bullets later killed in a standoff with security around as they forces. screamed ‘Allahu Akbar’ (God is Greatest), a source said. The remaining two attackers holed themselves up on the ground floor and then blew themselves up when forces loyal to Chechen leader Ramzan Kadyrov stormed the building.
Comment
The dare devil attack on Chechen Parliament reminds us of the similar type of attack on Indian Parliament in 2003. India's security forces killed all the attackers but lost more than half a dozen of their own men, making history by saving all who were inside Parliament. The tentacles of
PD/December/2010/989
“I know nothing except the fact of my ignorance.”
terrorists have expanded so widely and their ugly designs have so upgraded their aims that security of these lofty democratic institutions is pathetically endangered. The terrorist attack on the twin towers and the Pentagon in New York earlier still reminds us how terrorism has made hell of our lives. Despite these horrendous incidents the world still finds itself unable to forge an international strategy to extirpate terrorism altogether. Vested interests of certain countries are really the great stumbling block. How much hell are we the citizens of the world destined to face ?
Iran's Diplomatic Ruse to Scuttle Western Influence in Iraq
According to journalistic sources, particularly the Guardian, Iran is adopting diplomatic ruse to scuttle western influence in Iraq. As per the Guardian sources, Iran has brokered a critical deal with its regional neighbourhood that could see a pro-Tehran government installed in Iraq, a move that would shift the fragile country sharply away from a sphere of western influence. The Guardian can reveal that the Islamic Republic of Iran was instrumental in forming an alliance between Iraq's Nouri-al Maliki, who is vying for a second term as Prime Minister, and the country's powerful radical Shia cleric leader, Maqtada al-Sadr. The deal—which involved Syria, Lebanon's Hezbollah and the highest authorities in Shia Islam—positions Maliki as a frontrunner to return as leader despite a seven-month stalemate between Iraq's feuding political blocks. It also positions Iran as a potent buffer to US Interests at a time when America is looking to change its relationship with Iraq from military overlords to civilian partners. Senior officials in Iraq have given the Guardian details of the behind-the scenes Iranian campaign which began in earnest in early September this year. At the time US had only just withdrawn its last dedicated combat units from Iraq but left behind a political vacuum with no government in place after March elections delivered a seemingly irrevocably split Parliament. The revelations come amid sharp criticism of the US diplomatic role in Iraq since the election.
The Indian move is seen as an effort towards allaying concerns of American companies on account of the newlyenacted Nuclear Liability law by Parliament. “We can confirm that the Indian government has signed the CSC this morning,” International Atomic Energy Agency officials said. The international convention provides for compensation in case of transnational Indian Ambassador to Austria and implications of a Resident Representative to the IAEA nuclear accident and Dinkar Khullar signs the Convention has been signed by 14 on Supplementary Compensation for countries, including Nuclear Damage at the International India. Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) headHowever, only quarters in Vienna on Oct. 27. Johan four countries—US, Rautenbach, Director, IAEA (Office of Argentina, Morocco Legal Affairs), is seen second from and Romania have left. ratified the convention so far. Upon entry into force, the Convention on Supplementary Compensation for Nuclear Damage would establish a uniform global legal regime for compensation to victims in the unlikely event of a nuclear accident. The CSC provides for establishment of an international fund to increase the amount available to compensate victims and allows for compensating civil damage occurring within a state's exclusive economic zone, including loss of tourism or fisheries-related income. It also sets parameters on a nuclear operator's financial liability, time limits governing possible legal action, requires that nuclear operators maintain insurance or other security measures and provides for a single competent court to hear claims.
17th ASEAN Summit
The 17th Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN) Summit was held in Hanoi in last week of October 2010. The leaders from the member countries gathered to discuss the building of the ASEAN Community and other related topics. Delivering his speech at the opening ceremony Vietnamese Prime Minister Nguyen Tan Dung said that the meeting would take stock of the ASEAN Community building process and define priority in the future. Apart from the Annual ASEAN + 1 Summits with China, Japan, South Korea and India, the bloc held summits with Australia, New Zealand, Russia and the United Nations. The ASEAN also considered the elevation of the ASEAN—South Korea relationship into a strategic partnership in addition to the existing ones with China and Japan.
India Signs Nuclear Liability Treaty
? ? ? The treaty has so far been signed by 14 countries. It has been ratified by 4 countries, including the US. Bid to allay fears over liability Bill.
In a significant step which will enable it to do nuclear commerce, India on October 27, 2010, signed the Convention on Supplementary Compensation (CSC), which sets parameters on a nuclear operator's financial liability, at the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) at Vienna.
PD/December/2010/990
“There is only one good, knowledge, and one evil, ignorance.”
The master plans and declarations passed at the 17th ASEAN Summit and related summits created a firm foundation for the region to move forward. The three-day series of summits with the theme of ‘Towards the ASEAN Community from vision to action’ gathered ten ASEAN members and several partners—China, Japan, and United States. ASEAN leaders at the meeting adopted the Master Plan on ASEAN Connectivity to enhance physical, institutional and people to people connectivity in ASEAN. Leaders of ASEAN also passed two important documents at the meeting. The first one is on human resources and skills development for economic recoveryand sustainable growth, aiming to create new impetus for the regional growth. The second one is on welfare and development for ASEAN women and children. It is expected to contribute to the improvement of the social safety net in ASEAN. According to Vietnamese Prime Minister Nguyen Tan Dung who is also ASEAN Chair 2010 ASEAN countries expressed strong determination at the meeting to intensify national efforts to enhance cooperation to address challenges like climate change, natural disasters and pandemic diseases. In the meetings between ASEAN and partners, the discussion through ASEAN-led mechanisms such as ASEAN + 1, ASEAN + 3 and East Asia Summit were fruitful.
News in a Nutshell
Protector of the Seas
Bay Watch : Samudra Prahari, the first-ever pollution-control warship, arrived at Karwar from Mumbai on October 22. The warship has two sophisticated equipments to control oil spillage and pollution and it is the first such warship in Asia and the third in the world. This ship will help control oil pollution, provide deep-sea protection and security to the coast. The ship was commissioned on October 9. Manoj Badkar, deputy inspector general and commanding officer, is in charge.
$ 2.29 billion US Aid to Pakistan to Fight Terror
The United States on October 22, 2010 announced that it would provide a whopping $ 2.29 billion as military aid to Pakistan to bolster its army's antiterror capabilities, notwithstanding India's concerns that Islamabad has been diverting a portion of such assistance against it. Applauding Pakistan's role in the war against terror, US Secretary of State Hillary Clinton said that the US had no stronger partner when it comes to counter terrorism than Islamabad. Ms. Clinton made the remarks at the opening of the third US-Pakistan Strategic Dialogue with her Pakistani counterpart Shah Mahmood Qureshi.
P.Darpan
Fifth East Asia Summit
The fifth East Asia Summit (EAS) was held in Hanoi (Vietnam) in last week of October 2010. The leaders of ASEAN and six dialogue partners gathered to discuss strategic issues of relevance to the region. The six dialogue partners China, Japan, South Korea, India, Australia and New Zealand held talks and exchanged views on regional and international issues in the East Asian region with ASEAN nations that include Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand and Vietnam. Russian Foreign Minister Sergei Lavrov and U.S. Scretary of State Hillary Clinton were invited to attend this year’s EAS as special guests. Prime Minister Doctor Manmohan Singh also held talks with leaders on various strategic issues. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh called for moving beyond making policy declarations and dealing with immediate challenges to greater functional cooperation. Speaking at the Fifth EAS summit, the Prime Minister defined the overall goal of forging a wider Asian community as achieving integration on economic, political, security, social and cultural issues. He also dwellt on the world economic situation ahead of next G-20 summit in Seoul and termed the recovery as fragile. This required ‘firm resistance’ to new protectionist measures in industrialised countries and reduction of existing barriers to trade. Protectionism was not the answer to trade and balance of payments problems, he added.
PD/December/2010/991
“I am not an Athenian or a Greek, but a citizen of the world.”
GUJARAT
BJP Sweeps Gujarat Local Bodies Elections
In Gujarat local bodies elections held in October 2010, BJP swept all six municipal corporation elections, BJP captured the Ahmedabad, Surat, Vadodara, Rajkot, Jamnagar and Bhavnagar municipal corporations. The party claimed 41 of the 53 municipalities while the opposition Congress could only win three municipalities with three going to others. In the Porbandar and the Botad municipalities, the BJP and Congress have each one 21 seats. BJP also registered impressive victory in rural Gujarat as it claimed 21 of the 24 district panchayats. The Party also claimed 162 of the 208 taluk panchayats and 41 of the 53 municipalities, elections for which were held in October 2010. The Congress was wiped out from the entire KutchSaurashtra and Central Gujarat regions. The Congress only won the Gandhinagar and Tapi district panchayats, while in the Broach district panchayat six independents held the key as the BJP won 14 and the Congress 11 seats in the 31-member House. In the elections to the 208 of the 225 taluk panchayats the Congress had 81 taluk panchayats under its control before. The BJP’s strength increased from 127 to 162 taluk panchayats. Two taluk panchayats went to the Janata Dal (United). No party was able to secure a clear majority in six bodies.
Sanskrit Awards Given Away
Haryana Governor Jagannath Pahadia honoured 12 Sanskrit litterateurs in Chandigarh on October 22, 2010. The Governor conferred the Maharishi Valmiki Puraskar, Maharishi Ved Vyas Puraskar and Maharishi Baan Bhatt Puraskar for 2008-09 on Ram Bhagat Sharma, Swami Nigambodh Tirath and Baldev Singh Mehra respectively. The awards for 2009-10 were conferred on Acharya Vijay Pal Vidyawaridhi, R.B. Langyan and Sri Krishan Sharma. The Guru Virjanand Acharya Puraskar, Vidyamartanda Pandit Sita Ram Shastri Acharya Puraskar and Pandit Yudhistir Mimansak Acharya Puraskar for the year 2008-09 were conferred on Sadhu Ram Shastri, Daya Krishan Panth and Devi Dutt Vats. The awards for 200910 were conferred on Ranjit Mishra, Hukum Chand Sharma and Ram Swaroop Shastri. Besides, the Haryana Government has instituted Haryana Sanskrit Gaurav Puraskar for Sanskrit Literature. This award will be given from next year. This was announced during the Sanskrit Sahityakar Samman Samaroh organised on the occasion of Maharishi Valmiki birth anniversary at the Haryana Raj Bhawan in Chandigarh on October 22, 2010. The award would carry Rs. 1·50 lakh in cash. Also, the prize money of the Guru Virjanand Acharya Puraskar, Vidhyamartanda Pandit Sita Ram Acharya Puraskar and Pandit Yudhistir Mimansak Acharya Puraskar has been hiked to Rs. 51,000 each.
JHARKHAND HARYANA
Munda Cabinet Expanded Awards Instituted for Women
The Haryana Government has instituted three statelevel awards to honour those women who have excelled in various fields. This was announced by Haryana Finance Minister on October 17, 2010. The awards are Indira Gandhi Shakti Awards which will be given to those women who have done selfless service to society and have played a model role in the field of rehabilitation of women and children. Another award Kalpana Chawla Shoriya Award would be given to those women who have shown exemplary courage while putting their lives at risk. The Bahin Shanno Devi Panchayati Raj Award (named after woman Speaker of Haryana) would be given to those women panchayati leaders who have done outstanding work on women empowerment and female literary. The Indira Gandhi Mahila Shakti Award would carry Rs. 1 lakh whereas Kalpana Chawla Shoriya Award and Bahin Shanno Devi Panchayati Raj Award would carry Rs. 51,000 each. Jharkhand Chief Minister Arjun Munda on October 8, 2010 expanded his Cabinet by inducting nine more ministers. With their induction, the total strength of Cabinet has gone upto 12. The total representation of Jharkhand Mukti Morcha in the Cabinet is five including Deputy Chief Minister Hemant Soren. The other JMM ministers are Hemalal Murmu, Champai Soren, Haji Hussain Ansari and Mathura Matho. The three new BJP ministers are Baijnath Ram, Vimla Pradhan and Satyanand Jha. The All Jharkhand Students Union (AJSU) and JD(U) members inducted into the cabinet are—Chandra Prakash Chaudhary and Gopal Krishn Patar alias Raja Peter.
KERALA
Congress-Led Front Emerges Victorious in Local Bodies Elections
In a keenly-fought local bodies elections in Kerala Congress-led United Democratic Front (UDF) has
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“A fashion is nothing but an induced epidemic.”
emerged winner in majority of districts, blocks and grampanchayats. The elections were held in October 2010. As per statistics the UDF has wrested control of the Thiruvananthapuram, Pathanamthitta, Kottayam, Idukki, Ernakulam, Thrissur, Malappuram and Wayanad district panchayats, leaving Kollam, Alappuzha, Palakkad, Kannur and Kasaragod to the CPI (M)-led LDF. The LDF secured 25 as against 71 block panchayasts won by the UDF. None of the fronts secured absolute majority in two block panchayats—Perumgadavila in Thiruvananthapuram district and Pandalam in Pathanamthitta district. The UDF has got majority in 530 grama panchayats and the LDF in 258. As in the case of the blocks, neither the UDF nor the LDF got an absolute majority in 52 grama panchayats. Either the independents or the BJP members will prove to be a decisive factor in the 53 grampanchayats. The UDF upstaged the LDF in two out of the five City Corporations, in Kochi and Thrissur, and won 38 out of the 58 municipalities. It may be noted here that during the previous round of local body elections in 2005, the LDF had secured all the five City Corporations and got absolute majority in 90 per cent of the municipalities, blocks and grampanchayats. A shift to the UDF.
discovered oil and natural gas in 25 blocks of the region. 3000-6000 million cubic metre natural gas deposits have also been reported to be found. The 25 oilfields as discovered by Cairn Energy in Barmer-Sanchore basin include Mangala, Aishwarya, Saraswati, Shakti and Rajashwari. Cairn Energy was issued licences for carrying out investigations in 21 blocs and minings lease in 10 blocs by the Rajasthan Government. The state has earned an income of Rs. 517·77 crore as revenue from oil and natural gas till September 2010. P.Darpan
Continued from Page 984
The Centre Constitutes Environment Tribunal
In a bid to protect environment the Centre has taken an important step by constituting a National Green Tribunal on October 19, 2010. The Tribunal will be headquartered in Delhi and it will have four benches. The former judge of the Supreme Court Justice Lokeshwar Singh Panta has been appointed its Chairman. The tribunal can punish those who cause damage to environment or violate environmental laws. The Tribunal can impose a fine of upto Rs. 10 crore on an individual and Rs. 25 crore on a company and can award rigorous imprisonment also. It can take a Suo Moto action on matters pertaining to environment. A Bill was passed about it in the last session of Parliament, now known as National Green Tribunal Act.
PUNJAB
Projects Worth Rs. 2,552 crore Approved
The State Empowered Committee in October 2010 approved mega manufacturing projects in Punjab. They include four industrial parks. Which are Chandigarh Infrastructure Developers, Punnu Land Developers, a consortium of Penguin Buildtech and Veer Colonizers and Builders and Taksonz Developers and Infrastructure worth Rs. 694 crore for the districts of Mohali, Ludhiana and Amritsar. Besides these four industrial parks, three hotels and a health tourism project have also been approved. The investment in these projects stands at Rs. 2,552·08 crore. The projects are expected to generate direct and indirect employment for 25,343 people. The projects approved at the Committee meeting, held under the chairmanship of Chief Minister Prakash Singh Badal, are : Amtek Railcar Industries, Alliance Integrated Metaliks, Madhav Alloys, Chadha Sugars, Nahar Spinning Mills, Max India and Puneet Spintex in the districts of Fatehgarh Sahib, Patiala, Gurdaspur, Ludhiana, Malerkotla and Nawanshahr.
India, Iraq Modify Bilateral Air Service Pact
India and Iraq on October 19 modified a bilateral air service agreement, permitting each to operate up to 12 flights a week to four destinations in the other's territory. The 1955 agreement was modified following two days of consultations between delegates of the two nations, led by Prashant Sukul, secretary, civil aviation ministry, and Iraq's Air Traffic Services director Ali K. Ibrahim. Indian airlines will now be able to operate direct flights to Baghdad, Basrah, Al Najaf and one more point to be specified later.
GOM Nod for India-Malaysia Pact on Roads
A ministerial panel on roads has approved a proposal for an agreement between India and Malaysia on highway projects, road transport and highways minister Kamal Nath said. Earlier, certain clauses in the proposal are believed to have raised eyebrows in the Cabinet and it was referred to a Group of Minister by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh.
UAV Nishant Test Successful
The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has successfully test flown the indigenous unmanned Aerial Vehicle Nishant, which was used to try out the technology for monitoring the UAV’s health in flight.
RAJASTHAN
Barmer Basin has 480 million tonnes Oil
Rajasthan Petroleum Minister Ramlal Jat recently announced : the presence of 3·6 billion barrel that is—480 million tonnes of crude oil in the Barmer—Sanchore basin of the state. It may be added here that Cairn Energy has
Elephant Declared a Heritage Animal
The Central government on October 22, 2010 declared elephant a national heritage animal to step up measures for their protection. P.Darpan
PD/December/2010/993
“A lifetime of happiness ! No man alive could bear it; it would be hell on earth.”
AIS—Automatic Identification Systems. DEAL—Defence Electronics Application Laboratory. FAC—Fast Attack Craft. FIC—Fast Interceptor Craft. HINDRAF—Hindu Rights Action Force. UAV—Unmanned Aerial Vehicle.
He had a stint in the Special Security Group and later served as Inspector-General of Police (Operations) in the BSF in Kashmir. During his tenure in the NPA, Mr. Vijay Kumar made jungle warfare training mandatory to IPS probationers.
Kasturiranjan to Chair JNU Vice-Chancellor Search Panel
As visitor of Jawahar Lal Nehru University (JNU), President Pratibha Patil has cleared the name of eminent space scientist K. Kasturiranjan as her nominee to chair the search committee for selection of the Vice-Chancellor for the University. The term of the incumbent B. B. Bhattacharya got over in June this year.
Mohamed Abdullahi Mohamed
Somalia’s President on October 14, 2010 appointed a Somali-American diplomat Mohamed Abdullahi Mohamed as his Prime Minister, filling a post vacant for almost two months. Mr. Abdullahi (49) takes over from Omar Abdirashid Ali Sharmaske who resigned in September after a long running power struggle with the President.
New Director for Delhi Transco
S. N. Jha, an IAS officer of AGMU cadre, took over as Director (HR) of Delhi Transco on October 8. He has earlier served as Deputy Commissioner MCD, General Manager Delhi State Industrial Development Corporation and Additional Commissioner (Food and Supplies). Mr. Jha has also been given additional charge of Director (HR) of Indraprastha Power Generation Company, Pragati Power Corporation and Delhi Power Company.
K. Vijay Kumar
K. Vijay Kumar, Director, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy (NPA), Hyderabad has been appointed the new Director-General of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) headquartered in New Delhi. Mr. Kumar replaces Vikram Srivastava, who has been transferred and posted as Director of the Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPR&D) in the place of Prasun Mukherjee, who retired on September 30. Mr. Kumar, a 1975–batch IPS officer of Tamil Nadu cadre K. Vijay Kumar, new Directortook charge of his new General of the Central Reserve assignment on October Police Force at its headquarters in 6, 2010. He is the only New Delhi on October 6. IPS officer in the State to have been awarded the President’s Police Medal for Gallantry. Mr. Vijay Kumar is the first officer from the Tamil Nadu cadre chosen to head the CRPF. Earlier, he was part of the Special Protection Group team that provided security to the former Prime Minister, Rajiv Gandhi.
Anirudh Uppal
The central government on October 20, 2010 approved the appointment of senior IPS officer Anirudh Uppal as head of the CRPF in Jammu & Kashmir. Uppal, a 1976-batch Himachal Pradesh cadre officer, will be the new Special Director General of the CRPF in Jammu and Kashmir following the approval of the Appointments Committee of Cabinet headed by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh. Uppal was serving as the Additional Director-General in Indo-Tibetan Border Police and has earlier served as Inspector General with the elite NSG in Delhi.
Indian-American Sworn in as US Top Science Official
IIT Madras alumnus, Subra Suresh, has been appointed as the Director of America's National Science Foundation (NSF), the top US science body with a $ 7·4 billion budget to support scientific institutions. He is the 13th director of the NSF. He has served as dean of the engineering school and as Vannevar Bush Professor of Engineering at MIT (Massachusetts Institute of Technology). A mechanical engineer, who later became interested in materials science and biology, Suresh has done pioneering work studying the biomechanics of blood cells under the influence of diseases such as malaria.
PD/December/2010/994
“Criminals do not die by the hands of the law. They die by the hands of other men.”
From 2000 to 2006, Suresh served as the head of the MIT Department of Materials Science and Engineering. He joined MIT in 1993 as the R P Simmons Professor of Materials Science and Engineering and held joint faculty appointments in the departments of mechanical engineering and biological engineering, as well as the division of health sciences and technology.
Nepalese Teen Named World’s Shortest Man
Nepalese teen Khagendra Thapa Magar, 18, who stands just a little over 2 feet, on Wednesday received a memorable birthday gift—title of the world’s shortest man. Khagendra measured 67·08 cm tall, nearly 2 inches shorter than his predecessor, Guinness World Records announced. He snatched the record from Colombia’s Edward ‘Nino’ Hernandez. On being announced the new shortest living man, Khagendra Thapa Magar is Khagendra, who weighs 6·5 kg, weighed before being said, “I don’t consider myself declared world’s shortest man. to be a small man. I am a big man.”
Napalchyal Sworn in as Uttarakhand CIC
Uttarakhand governor Margaret Alva on October 20 administered an oath of office and secrecy to newlyappointed Uttarakhand Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) N. S. Napalchyal and two other information commissioners—Prabhat Dabral and Anil Sharma—at a simple ceremony held at Raj Bhavan. Napalchyal, 60,who retired voluntarily as Uttarakhand chief secretary, replaces RS Tolia who retired a couple of days ago.
V. Radhakrishnan
Eighty one year old Professor V. Radhakrishnan, eminent radio astronomer and Trustee of the Raman Research Institute, Bangalore, is one of the few Indians who have been criss-crossing the oceans in a yacht, that too designed by him. The son of Sir C. V. Raman, he is on a mission to learn more on his chosen field on his yacht ‘Eldemer’. He is planning to call at many continents while circumnavigating the world. Though Eldemer can accommodate six people, Professor Radhakrishnan Professor V. Radhakrishnan at the is taking along two Kochi marina on October 4. people from Bangalore and two from Kochi on the global expedition. He is not a novice in seafaring, having sailed from Britain to Australia through the Atlantic and the Pacific, in 1965. He has been working on the yacht for the past six years and in between has sailed to Sri Lanka, Oman and Yemen. Professor Radhakrishnan was in Kochi when the Kochi Marina—the first of its kind in India, was commissioned. While in Kochi, he participated in the Vasco Da Gama yacht rally.
Xi Jinping
Chinese Vice-President Xi Jinping has been promoted to Vice-Chairman of a key Communist Party military committee, state media reported on October 18. Party leaders also pledged to make vigorous yet steady efforts to promote political restructuring, Xinhua said, citing a document issued at October 18’s close of an annual meeting of the ruling party’s Central Committee. Xi Jinping Xinhua also gave few details about Xi’s appointment to the Central Military Commission that overseas the 2·3 million member People’s Liberation Army (PLA).
PERSONS IN THE NEWS
Priti Kumar
Priti Kumar (34) is the first motorwoman of western railway. October 13 was a historic day for the Western Railway (WR) when the first suburban train driven by a motorwoman chugged out of Churchgate station in Mumbai amidst a great reception from commuters who gathered at the station to witness the memorable moment. As Priti Kumar drove the Churchgate—Borivli train the cameramen went on a shooting rampage while the commuters cheered as they went on a historic train ride. “It’s a matter of pride for all of us. Priti Kumar, first motorwoman of The train journey is western railway takes first ride to Borivli symbolic of women not being less than men. Gone are the days when women would look only after routine household chores,” said an emotional Prakash Gangad who commuted in the Borivlibound train.
Marisol Valles Garcia
The 20-year old Marisol Valles Garcia has become the Police Chief in Mexico in the borderland where drug gangs have killed public officials and terrified many citizens into fleeing. Ms. Garcia was sworn in on October 20, 2010 to bring law and order to a township of about 8,500 that has been transformed from a sting of quiet farming communities into a lawless no man’s land. The tiny but nergetic Valles Garcia whose only police experience was a stint as a
PD/December/2010/995
“Democracy is a device that ensures we shall be governed no better than we deserve.”
department secretary says she wants her 13 officers to practise a special brand of community policing.
Benoit Mandelbot
Benoit Mandelbrot, a French-American mathematician who explored a new class of mathematical shapes known as ‘fractuals’ died at the age of 85 in Cambridge, Massachusetts U.S.A. The New York Times reported on October 16, 2010. Mandelbrot’s book ‘Fractual Geometry of Nature’, published in 1982 argued that irregular mathematical objects once dismissed as ‘pathological’ were a reflection of nature. He is known as the father of fractual geometry. The fractual geometry he developed would be used to measure natural phenomena like clouds or coastlines that were once believed to be unmeasurable. He applied the theory to physics, biology, finance and many other fields of study. He in fact had effectively revolutionised his field. He has been described as an “icon who changed how we see the world”. In the USA and around the world his work attracted the attention of academics.
DEATHS
Dame Joan Sutherland
Australian opera legend Dame Joan Sutherland was hailed as ‘La Stupenda’ and ‘voice of the century’ on October 10, 2010 after she died following an illness aged 83, leaving behind an extraordinary legacy. Ms. Sutherland dazzled European audiences with her vocal range and ability from the 1950s until after her retirement in 1990, after her family announced her death at her Swiss home on the shores of Lake Geneva. Ms. Sutherland had risen from obscure roots in Sydney, Australia, where she was born to a tone deaf father and musicloving mother in 1926.
Farooq Leghari
Joan Sutherland
Solomon Burke
Soul singer Solomon Burke, who wrote Everybody Needs Somebody To Love’ and recovered the hit ‘Cry to Me’ used in the movie ‘Dirty Dancing’ died at Amsterdam's Schirphol airport. He was 70. Dutch national broadcaster NOS said Burke died on a plane early on October 10 after arriving on a flight from Los Angeles. Mr. Burke was both a Grammy winner and a member of the Rock and Roll Hall of Fame. He was known as ‘King of Rock and Soul’.
Farooq Ahmed Khan Leghari, Pakistan’s eighth President died on October 19, 2010 after a prolonged illness. He was 70. Mr. Leghari was President from November 14, 1993 to December 2, 1997. Mr. Leghari began his political career with the Pakistan People’s Party but fell out with it when he dismissed the then Prime Minister Benazir Bhutto’s government in 1996. Farooq Leghari Born on May 2, 1940, Mr. Leghari in this 1996 file did his schooling and graduation in photo. Pakistan before going to Oxford University for post-graduation. He returned to Pakistan to join the Civil Services from which he resigned in 1973 to join the PPP.
Soundara Kailasam
Eminent Tamil poet and writer Soundara Kailasam, who is the mother-in-law of Union Home Minister P. Chidambaram passed away on October 16, 2010 at her residence in Chennai. She was 83. Though she hadn’t got full academic education, she won laurel for herself in several fields. She was a member of the Senate of the Madras University, Annamalai University and the Thanjavur Tamil Varsity. She also served as a Member of the State Backward classes Commission. Soundara She published poetry collections, Kailasam essays and short stories. She was awarded the Asan Prize for Poetry in 1989 for the poetry collection ‘Soundara Kailasam Kanthaigal’. The Islamic Literary conference held at Kilakkarai 1990 gave an award for her contributions to Islamic literature also. Her book ‘Alavartra Arulalah’ was released by the Islamic Foundation, as a unique recognition to a Hindu woman writing an Islamic text. Mrs. Kailasam was also an orator of great distinction, at a time when few women came forward to make public speeches in the state.
K. E. Eapen
K. E. Eapen, a pioneer in journalism and communication education in the country passed away in Bangalore on October 23, 2010. He was 87. Professor Eapen was actively associated with journalism for over 50 years, having set up three university departments of journalism and communication, and many organisations connected with the field. Professor Eapen was the first convener of the University Grants CommisK. E. Eapen sion (UGC) panel in mass communication, and the first UGC National Lecturer and Emeritus Fellow, Journalism/Communication. Dr. Eapen was recently honoured in New Delhi with the AMIC Asian Communication Award. His book ‘Critical Issues in Communication : Looking Inward for Answers’ proves beyond doubt that he was one of the most distinguished communication teachers and analysts in India.
PD/December/2010/996
“England and America are two countries separated by a common language.”
Nestor Kirchner
The former Argentine President, Nestor Kirchner—the country’s most powerful politician along with his wife, current President Crisitina Fernandez— died suddenly on October 27, 2010 after suffering from severe heart attack. He was 60. Mr. Kirchner was a likely candidate in next year’s presidential elections. He also served as Secretary-General of the South American alliance known as Unasur, as a Congressman and as leader of the Peronist party.
ICC Test World XI : M. S. Dhoni (captain), Virender Sehwag, Simon Katich, Sachin Tendulkar, Hashim Amla, Kumar Sangakkara, Jacques Kallis, Graeme Swann, James Anderson, Dale Steyn and Doug Bollinger. ICC ODI World XI : Ricky Ponting (captain), Sachin Tendulkar, Shane Watson, Michael Hussey, A. B. de Villiers, Paul Collingwood, M. S. Dhoni (wicketkeeper), Daniel Vettori, Stuart Broad, Doug Bollinger and Ryan Harris.
Wei Zhang Wins SASTRA Ramanujan Prize
Nestor Kirchner with his wife Crisitina Fernandez in Buenos Aires in this December 10, 2007.
AWARDS AND HONOURS
LG ICC Awards Given Away : Sachin is Cricketer of the Year
Sachin Tendulkar emerged winner at the LG ICC Awards on October 6, 2010 in Bangalore after receiving two awards simultaneously. He bagged t he Sir Garfield Sobers Cricketer of the Year Award and LG People’s Choice Award. Tendulkar became the second Indian to receive the award after Rahul Dravid got it in 2004. Virender Sehwag with 1, 282 runs to his credit in Test cricket was adjudged ‘the Test Cricketer of the Year’ while Mahendra Singh Sachin Tendulkar with the two Dhoni was named the trophies he received at the LG ICC skipper of a World Test Awards night in Bangalore on XI. A. B. de Villiers of October 6, 2010. South Africa was adjudged the ODI Player of the Year. While Shelley Nitschke of Australia was given the Women’s Cricketer of the Year Award Steven Finn of England was declared the Emerging Player of the Year. The List of the awardees : Sir Garfield Sobers Cricketer of the Year : Sachin Tendulkar, LG People’s Choice Award : Sachin Tendulkar; Women’s Cricketer of the Year : Shelley Nitschke (Australia); Test Player of the Year : Virender Sehwag; ODI Player of the Year : A. B. de Villiers (South Africa); Spirit of Cricket : New Zealand; Umpire of the Year : Aleem Dar (Pakistan); Emerging Player : Steven Finn (England); Associate and Affiliate Player : Ryan ten Doeschate (Netherlands); Twenty-20 International Performance of the Year : Brendon McCullum (of New Zealand for his unbeaten 116 against Australia at Christchurch of February 28, 2010). Inductees into the ICC Hall of Fame : Bishan Singh Bedi, Joel Garner, Courtney Walsh and Rachael Heyhoe Flint.
Wei Zhang—a Benjamin Pierce instructor at the Department of Mathematics. Harvard University (USA) has been honoured with the 2010 SASTRA Ramanujan Prize. As per a recent release from the Shanmugha Arts, Sciences, Technology, Research Academy (SASTRA) University. Dr. Wei Zhang has been recognised for making a profound influence at the young age of 29 in a wide range of areas of mathematics. It may be mentioned here that SASTRA Ramanujan Prize was established in 2005 and is given annually for outstanding contribution by very young mathematicians in areas influenced by Indian mathematician Srinivasan Ramanujan.
Tribal Woman Gets Women’s World Summit Foundation Prize for 2010
Santosh Bai—a former woman sarpanch who belongs to the backward Sahariya tribal community of Baran district in Rajasthan has bagged the prestigious Women’s World Summit Foundation (WWSF) prize for 2010. She was given the award on October 17, 2010 in recognition of Former woman Sarpanch of Balada her achievements village of Rajasthan Santosh Bai challenging men’s receiving Women’s World Summit dominance in her Foundation prize from former State village and defying High Court Judge Panachand Jain in irrational customs Jaipur on October 17, 2010 imposed on women on the pretext of traditional beliefs. It may be added here that Geneva-based WWSF and International Empowerment Network for women has been awarding the prize for women’s creativity in rural life to the members of fair sex from across the world. Santosh Bai of Balada village in Baran district is among the eleven recipients of the prize in 2010. The citation reads Santosh Bai, as an ‘outstanding tribal woman’ who committed herself to ending harmful myths and practices and discrimination against women.
J. K. Rowling Bags Danish Award
Harry Potter author J. K. Rowling has recently won the Hans Christian Anderson Literature Prize. She is the first recipient of the 5,00,000 kroner ($ 93,352) award. The award was given to her on October 19, 2010. It may be added here that the prize is given to a person who can be compared with Anderson, the Danish writer who was born in 1805 and wrote some 160 fairy tales and poems before his death in 1875.
PD/December/2010/997
“Everything happens to everybody sooner or later if there is time enough.”
Howard Jacobson : Winner of the 2010 Man Booker Prize for Fiction
British writer and journalist Howard Jacobson’s novel ‘The Finkler Question’ has won the 2010 Man Booker Prize for Fiction. The Finkler Question is the semi-autobiographical comic take on his Jewish identity. Jacobson who was born in Manchester currently lives in London. He won this prestigious prize after beating Tom Mc Carthy’s C and Emma Donoghue’s Room. ‘The Finkler Question’ is described as a novel Howard Jacobson, about “love, loss and male winner of the 2010 Man friendship” and explores what it Booker Prize for Fiction, means to be Jewish in today’s age. poses with his book The Critics say—the novel has some Finkler Question. wittiest, most poignant and sharply intelligent comic prose in the English language. Jacobson’s other famous novels are ‘Kalooki Nights’ and ‘Who’s Sorry Now’ ?
difficult regions of Ladakh get water supply in April and May—the most crucial period of sowing. Chunibhai Vaidya, a nonagenarian from Ahmedabad, was given the award for outstanding contribution in the field of constructive work. Mr. Vaidya has been active in many movements in Gujarat and Rajasthan for betterment of the poor and the marginalised. The award for development and welfare of women and children was given to Shakuntala Choudhary, a nonagenarian from Assam. The award for promoting Gandhian values outside India was given to Lia Diskin from Brazil. It may be added here that the winners were chosen from 124 nominations across the world.
Miss USA Alexandria Mills Crowned Miss World 2010
Miss USA Alexandria Mills was crowned the 60th Miss World 2010 on October 30, 2010 in China’s Sanya City. Miss Botswana Emma Wareus was named the first
Asian Awards 2010 Presented
India’s Cricketer Sachin Tendulkar was honoured with Lebara People’s Choice Award at the inaugural Asian Awards given in last week of October 2010 in London. Ratheesan Yoganathan CEO Lebara while presenting the award to Sachin Tendulkar said. “Tendulkar is one of the greatest cricketers of all time”. The Asian Awards 2010, presented by Lord Sebastian Coe, saw leaders in business, sports and the arts in attendance, including award winners Yash Chopra, A. R. Rahman and Vijay Mallya alongside guests Jermaine Jackson, Nasser Hussain OBE, Gurinder Chadha, Christian Louboutin and playback singer Sonu Nigam. Oscar-award winning music director Rahman won the award for outstanding achievement in music, while Yash Chopra received the outstanding achievement award in Cinema. Liquor-baron Vijay Mallya was chosen as the ‘Entrepreneur of the Year’ while telecom giant Bharti-Airtel owner Sunil Mittal was named the ‘Philanthropist of the year’. Mittal’s award was collected by Eiesha Bharti Pasricha. Bollywood Star Amitabh Bachchan got the ‘Lifetime Achievement award’. Other recipients of the awards were : Ratan Tata (Business Leader of the Year, collected by Anwar Hasan), Zarin Patel (Public Servant of the year), Prof. Muhammad Yunus (Social Entrepreneur of the year, collected by Shiban Mahbub), Abu Jani and Sandeep Khosla (Outstanding achievement in Arts and Design), George Alagiah OBE (Outstanding achievement in Television).
Miss World 2010 Alexandria Mills
runner-up while Miss Venezuela Adriana Vasini was named the second runner-up. Indian beauty Manasvi Mamgai even failed to find a place in the top 20. The jury included former Miss World winners Denise Perrier Lan franchi (1953), Ann Sidney (1964), Mary Stavin (1977) Agbani Darego (2001) and Maria Julia Mant.
National Safety Awards Presented
Union Minister for Labour and Employment Mallikarjun Kharge presented the National Safety Council of India (NSCI) Safety Awards for 2009 on October 30, 2010 in Mumbai. These awards are given to promote occupational safety, health and welfare of labourers in the industry. Shapoorji Pallonji and Co. Ltd. won the first prize in the construction sector for their project for General Motors India in Talegaon, Maharashtra. Cray Valley Resins India Private Ltd., and the Maharashtra Industrial Development Corporation India (MIDC), Navi Mumbai won the first prize in Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) sector. In the manufacturing sector, the second prize was distributed among five companies including the Kakrapar Atomic Power Station at Anumala, Gujarat. There was no winner of the first prize in this sector. Out of the 290 applicant companies assessed in all three sectors, 54 companies have been awarded for safe labour practices.
Jamnalal Bajaj Awards Presented
President Pratibha Patil on October 28, 2010 presented the Jamnalal Bajaj Awards for 2010 for outstanding contributions in social development. Chewang Norphel, a 74-year-old civil engineer from Ladakh, was presented the award for application of science and technology for rural development. His ‘artificial glacier’ has helped farmers in the dry and
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“Hell is full of musical amateurs.”
NOBEL PRIZES 2010
The Nobel Prizes for 2010 were announced in October 2010.
Medicine
British scientist Robert Edwards has been selected for the 2010 Nobel Prize for Medicine. He has been given this award for his pioneering work in in-vitro-fertilization (IVF). It was Robert Edwards whose pioneering research with his late colleague Patrick Steptoe (who died in 1988) led to the birth of the world’s first test tube baby. The Nobel Assembly at Sweden’s Karolinska Institute which awarded the prize (worth ten million Swedish Kronor) described his work as a milestone of modern medicine. It said in a statement—“His work has made possible the treatment of infertility—a medical condition that affects a large proportion of humanity including more than 10% of couples worldwide” Edwards along with his late colleague Steptoe founded the Bourn Hall Clinic in Cambridge—which is the world’s first In-Vetro-Fertilization Centre.
Robert Edwards
Physics
Russian born Andrei Geim and Konstantin Novoselov of Manchester University were named joint winners of the Nobel Prize for Physics for 2010. They have been bestowed with the award for their groundbreaking work on experiments with graphene—a new form of carbon. Professor Geim is Dutch citizen. The Prize Committee said—“Since it is practically transparent and a good conductor, graphene could be used for producing transparent touch screens, light panels and may be even solar cells”. Thus graphene has immense possibilities. As a material graphene is completely new and almost completely transparent yet so dense that not even helium (the smallest gas atom) can pass through it.
Professor Konstantin Novoselov (left) and Professor Andrei Geim, winners of the 2010 Nobel Physics Prize
Chemistry
Three scientists—Akira Suzuki and Ei-ichi Negishi from Japan and Richard F. Heck from United States of America have won the Nobel Prize for Chemistry for 2010 in October 2010. They have been awarded the Nobel Prize for inventing new ways to bind carbon atom with uses that range from fighting cancer to producing thin computer screens. Akira Suzuki, Ei-ichi Negishi and Richard Heck shared the prize for the development of palladium—‘catalysed cross coupling’. The Nobel Committee for Chemistry at the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences said in a statement—“Palladium—catalysed cross coupling is used in research worldwide as well as in the commercial production of—for example, pharmaceuticals and molecules used in the electronics industry”.
The winners of the 2010 Nobel Prize in Chemistry. (From left) Akira Suzuki, Ei-ichi Negishi and Richard F. Heck.
Literature
Peruvian—Spanish author and one of the most renowned novelists of his generation Mario Vargas Llosa (74) has won the Nobel Prize for Literature for 2010 for “his Cartography of structures of power and his trenchant images of the individual’s resistance, revolt and defeat”. In the words of Peter England— Permanent Secretary of the Swedish Academy—“Mr. Llosa is one of the great Latin American storytellers—a master of dialogue who has been searching for the elusive concept known as the total novel and who believes in the power of fiction to improve upon the world”. Mr. Llosa’s first major international breakthrough came in 1963, with the publication of the novel Mario Vargas Llosa The 2010 Nobel Prize The Time of the Hero. Winner for Literature His other profoundly influential novel was The Feast of the Goat (2000). Other well known works include Aunt Julia and the Scriptwriter (1977), The War of the End of the World (1981) and, more recently, Death in the Andes (1993). ‘Conversation in the Cathedral’ published in 1969 was his monumental work.
Peace
Chinese political activist Liu Xiaobo (aged 54) who is in the jail has been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize for 2010. The Norwegian Nobel Committee which gives the award said—“Mr. Liu has been given the award for his calls for political reform, for his long and non-violent struggle for fundamental human rights Liu Xiaobo. in China”. “The Norwegian Nobel Committee has long believed that there is a close connection between The 2010 Nobel Prize human rights and peace” it said in a statement. “Such rights are a prerequisite for the fraternity between Winner for Peace nations of which Alfred Nobel wrote in his will”.
Economics
Three economists—Peter Diamond and Dale Mortensen of USA and British–Cypriot Christopher Pissarides have won the 2010 Nobel Economics Prize. They have been awarded for their work on why supply and demand do not always meet in the labour market and elsewhere. The jury lauded the trio for their analysis of markets with search frictions which helps explain how unemployment, job vacancies, and wages are affected by regulation and Christopher Pissarides, Peter Diamond and Dale economic policy. It is important to mention that as per traditional theory labour Mortensen : The Nobel Prize Winners of Econo- market should work on their own, with job seekers finding available job and mics for 2010 thereby creating balance. But the Diamond–Mortensen–Pissarides or DMP model–developed by the three show that markets do not always work in this way. The jury also noted that the trio’s work in search theory can also be applied to other areas including housing markets and public economics besides labour markets.
PD/December/2010/999/3
“Indolence is sweet, and its consequences bitter.”
CONSTITUTION/JUSTICE/LAW
Unintentional Disobedience is not Contempt : Says Apex Court
Accidental or unintentional disobedience of court orders does not amount to contempt, unless there is a wilful attempt to obstruct the course of justice, the Supreme Court has ruled. “Accidental or unintentional disobedience is not sufficient to justify one for holding guilty of contempt”, a Bench of Justices J M Panchal and Gyan Sudha Misra held in their judgement. “It is further relevant to bear in mind the settled law on the law of contempt that casual or accidental or unintentional acts of disobedience under the circumstances which negate any suggestion of contumacy, would amount to a contempt in theory only and does not render the contemnor liable to punishment,” the court said. The court gave the verdict while quashing the contempt proceedings initiated against Dinesh Kumar Gupta, Deputy Registrar (Judicial), Rajasthan High Court. Gupta had moved the apex court questioning the contempt proceedings initiated against him by the Single Judge of the High Court on December 8, 2006 for an alleged contempt committed by his predecessor in 2001 vis-a-vis an order passed by the judge on March 22, 2001. The High Court had initiated contempt against Gupta on the ground that the order for initiating inquiry against a Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal (MACT) Judge S. K. Bansal was sought to be scuttled by the registry. Upholding the appeal, Justice Sudha writing the judgement said at the relevant period of order passed by the High Court, Gupta was not the Deputy Registrar (Judicial) as he had assumed office more than four years later. “Besides this, it would also not be correct to overlook or ignore an important statutory ingredient of contempt of a civil nature given out under section 2(b) of the contempt of Court Act 1971 that the disobedience to the order alleging contempt has to satisfy the test that it is a wilful disobedience to the order,” the judge said.
While the report, released on October 11, 2010, shows that the proportion of the under nourished in India is declining, the worsening ranking indicates that other developing countries have done better in tackling hunger. India is home to 42% of the underweight children under the age of five in the world. It is an irony indeed that the policy makers in India who are still fighting over the need to have an expansive National Food Security Act are yet to look at the dismal figures. In 2005-06 about 44% of Indian children below five years were under-weight and nearly half-48%—were stunted. The food insecurity runs so wildly across the country that India is clubbed with minor economies like Bangladesh, Timore-Leste and Yemen, recording the highest prevalence of underweight in children under five. At the beginning of the liberalization era in the early 90s, 24% of the population was undernourished. The situation marginally improved to 22% between 2004 and 2006. Almost 60% of children below five were recorded as underweight in 1988-92. The condition has remained dismal as the latest figure shows 43·5% between 2003-08. The GHI (Global Hunger Index) ranks countries on a scale of 100, with 0 being the best score (no hunger) and 100 the worst. It is composed of three equally weighted indicators : the proportion of undernourished in the population, the prevalence of those underweight in children under five and the under-five mortality rate. The figures for India are 22% (as of 2004-06), 43·5% (2003-08) and 6·9% as of 2008, respectively. These give India a composite GHI of 24·1, which is classified as alarming in terms of the food security situation. The strife-torn Democratic Republic of Congo ranks at the bottom of the list of 84 countries with significant levels of hunger. The data has been compiled for 122 countries in all; the remaining 38 countries have a GHI of less than 5 and are not included in the rankings. No data has been recorded for highly developed countries. South Asia has the highest GHI for any region in the world, at 22·9. The region has, however, made greater progress since 1990 than sub-Saharan Africa, the report adds. India is ranked below all other major South Asian countries—Sri Lanka is ranked 39th, Pakistan 52nd and Nepal 56th.
SURVEY/REPORT/RESEARCH
India’s Position Dismal in Global Hunger Index
? ? ?
More hungry in India than in Sudan. Even Pakistan is ahead. India 67th among 84 developing nations.
Times of India correspondent Rukmini Shrinivasan reports that India dropped two ranks to 67th among 84 developing countries in the International Food Policy Research Institute’s annual ‘Global Hunger Index’ for 2010. Even Sudan, North Korea and Pakistan rank higher than India.
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“I often quote myself. It adds spice to my conversation.”
The 2010 report focuses on child malnutrition, which is the biggest component of hunger worldwide. In India, high 2010 GHI scores are driven by high levels of underweight children, resulting from the low nutritional and social status of women in the country, the report says.
PANEL/COMMITTEE
Parliamentary Panel Favours Death Penalty for Hijackers
While advocating death penalty for hijackers, a parliamentary committee has said it must be awarded to those whose actions result in death of hostages or security personnel. The standing Committee on Transport, Tourism and Culture, headed by Senior CPM leader Sitaram Yechury, submitted its report on the Anti - Hijacking (Amendment) Bill, 2010 to Rajya Sabha Chairman Mohammad Hamid Ansari and Lok Sabha Speaker Meira Kumar on October 18, No More Kandahars 2010. The Committee felt that the proposed amendment to include death penalty in 1982 Anti-Hijacking Act was the need of the hour and unavoidable in the heightened threat of such a daring crime. It endorsed the proposed
amendment that provides for capital punishment to the hijackers as well as to the conspirators and abettors also who commit any of the acts referred to in the prevailing law. It, however, noted that it was not clear in the proposed amendment whether death penalty would be applicable to the hijackers who kill hostages or security men or to all hijackers who have caused or not caused any fatalities. “The Committee is of the opinion that if death penalty was a foregone conclusion for the offence of hijacking, the opportunities for any negotiation or settlement to save lives of passengers may be foreclosed,” the report said. “What about the safety of passengers and crew when the hijackers are sure that they will get death penalty for their offence ?”
DEFENCE
India’s Military Satellites Set for Launch
In order to boost its defence capabilities India plans to launch a series of indigenous military satellites with surveillance, imaging and navigation capabilities to keep a watch on its neighbourhood and help guide cruise missiles. It was revealed by a top defence scientist on October 10, 2010. “There will be a series of defence satellites. I cannot give you the numbers because they are classified” said V. K. Saraswat, Scientific Adviser to the Defence Minister. “Each year, you will find one or two satellites going up”, added the Secretary, Defence R&D and DirectorGeneral of Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
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“If all economists were laid end to end, they would not reach a conclusion.”
Coast Guard Station Commissioned
The Director General of the Indian Coast Guard, Vice Admiral Anil Chopra, formally commissioned the Coast guard station at Veraval in the Saurashtra coast of Gujarat, on October 2, 2010. The station was set up and activated in 2009 for strengthening Joint Coastal Patrolling (JCP) off the Gujarat and Maharashtra coasts. “The aim of this scheme is to intensify the close coast surveillance mechanism to prevent smuggling of arms, ammunition and explosives and infiltration of antinational elements”, an official spokesman of the Indian Coast Guard said. The station will function under the administrative and operational control of Commander Coast Guard Region (North-West) through the Commander Coast Guard District Headquarters-1 (Gujarat) at Porbandar. Commandant (JG) Chandrayan Dey is appointed as the first Commanding Officer of the station. The strengthening of the coastal security set-up coincides with the increased industrial activity on the Gujarat coast bordering with Pakistan.
transport officials to install automated crossing gates at all the nation’s railway crossings to prevent cars, buses and trucks from ignoring the siren.
ADVENTURE/EXPEDITION
Army Expedition Returns from Europe
A 41-day long Indian Army motorcycle expedition that travelled across Europe to spread the message of bonhomie and friendship was flagged in by the Army Chief General V. K. Singh at India Gate, New Delhi on October 11, 2010. The ten member expedition comprising two women officers, five male officers and three jawans from arms and services travelled across Turkey, Greece, Italy, France and Britain to strengthen the Indian Army’s association with these countries. It visited war memorials to pay homage to martyrs of World War II. Flagged off from Delhi on August 20, the team named ‘Lightning Bulleteers’ travelled on six Royal Enfield Classic (500 cc) motorcycles to reach Mumbai on August 22. It was flown two days later to Istanbul to begin its expedition.
FESTIVAL
Mussorie Writers’ Festival Inaugurated
Uttarakhand Governor Margaret Alva inaugurated the third Mussorie International Writers’ Festival at Woodstock School in Dehradun on October 5, 2010 noting that Mussorie has a rich heritage of writing and is home to many distinguished authors who have drawn comfort from the hill resort’s salubrious climate amid sylvan surroundings. The theme of this year’s three-day festival was mountain literature. Among the internationally acclaimed writers those that graced the event included Ruskin Bond, who lives in Mussorie and Stephen Alter, the main driving force behind the festival. More than 25 writers from six countries participated in the festival.
ENVIRONMENTAL AWARENESS
United Nations Rings Alarm Bell on Saving Species
The world must act immediately to stop the rapid loss of animal and plant species and the habitats they live in, the United Nations warned on October 18, 2010 at the start of a major summit on biodiversity in Tokyo. The 193 members of the UN’s Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) gathered in the central city of Nagoya to try to work out strategies to head off a manmade mass extinction. “The time to act is now and the place to act is here, ” CBD executive secretary Ahmed Djoghlaf said as the meeting opened, describing the event as a ‘defining moment’ in the history of mankind. “The savings from a coordinated ecosystems approach to climate change, biodiversity loss, avoiding deforestation and land degradation are incalculable.” The 12-day conference endeavoured to throw a spotlight on a global environmental issue that has drawn less attention in recent years than the related problem of climate change, blamed on a rise in greenhouse gas emissions.
ACCIDENTS
Train Accident in Ukraine
A horrendous railway accident took place in Ukraine on October 12, 2010. A crowded bus collided with a train in eastern Ukraine, killing 40 and leaving 10 in critical condition. The casualties may be higher than these figures. The Interior Minister said that the accident occurred outside the town of Marhanets Victims bodies lie at the side of the in the Dnipropet- track at the scene of an accident outside the town of Marhanets, Ukraine. rovsk region after the bus attempted to cross the track, ignoring a siren that indicated an oncoming train. Prime Minister Mykola Azarov ordered his government to pay family of the dead victims Hryvna 1,00,000 ($ 12,600). He also instructed
TOUR AND TRAVEL
China Unveils World’s Fastest Train
China on October 26, 2010 unveiled what it described as the World’s Fastest Bullet Train, which will connect two of the country’s industrial hubs travelling at an average speed of 350 km per hour.
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“If you cannot get rid of the family skeleton, you may as well make it dance.”
The rail link between Shanghai and Hangzhou, the latest addition to China’s fast- expanding high-speed rail network that is already the world’s largest, covers the 200-km distance in only 45 minutes, reducing the travelling time from 78 minutes. The home-built CRH380 bullet train has been recorded travelling at 420 km per hour, a world record. It will, however, travel between the two cities at less than full tilt, at an average speed of 350 km per hour. China’s high-speed rail network now stretches over 7,431 km. The government plans to expand the network to over 16,000 km by 2020.
On Track for Distinction : A CRH380A train sets out from a terminal of the ShanghaiHangzhou high-speed railway in Shanghai.
Kalaikunda Air Force Station (West Bengal)
A joint exercise by the Indian Air Force (IAF) and the Royal Air Force (RAF) of the United Kingdom of the United Kingdom was held at the Kalaikunda Air Force station in West Bengal’s Paschim Midnapur district in October 2010. The Exercise was named ‘Indradhanush’.
Nagoya
Nagoya—the central city of Japan recently came into news when the 193 members of the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) meeting took place in October 2010 to work out strategies to prevent the mass extinction of species of plants and animals.
New Oxford Centre for Study of Archaeological and Cultural Heritage of Asia
The Oxford University launched in October 2010 a new centre to study the archaeological and cultural heritage of Asia. It is claimed to be the only centre of its kind in Europe. The University sources said that although Asia had some of the world’s richest archaeological and artistic forms of heritage, little was known or taught about this period in Britain. The new centre will look at how the cultural influences, both within the region and in the wider world beyond, might be connected. The research will not only draw on archaeology but also other disciplines such as anthropology, art history, linguistics, molecular genetics, the earth sciences and geography. The centre, to be based in School of Archaeology, will off a new Asia Pacific Master’s degree and new courses in the Archaeology of Asia, Chinese Archaeology and the Palaeolithic Archaeology of Asia.
PLACES IN THE NEWS
4000 Year Old Aryan City
Russian archaeologists have recently discovered some ancient and unknown city in remote Russia. Steppe southern Siberia. The City is believed to be built by the Original Aryan race about 4,000 years ago. The team of archaeologists has discovered 20 spiral–shaped settlements in this hitherto hidden site/city.
1. Conversations with Myself —By Nelson Mandela It is a new collection of Nelson Mandela’s private papers which reveal his years of heartache at missing his family while in prison and his wariness at becoming idolised. Now 92, the man who won the Nobel Peace Prize for his struggle against the white minority apartheid government of South Africa says he does not want to be remembered a larger-than-life saint. 2. The Feast of the Goat —By Mario Vargas Llosa a Nobel laureate. 3. Harmony —By Prince Charles of Britain Prince Charles writes in his book Harmony that Britain could learn lessons from the way people live then lives in Dharavi, India. According to him, Dharavi is better organised than many Western towns and cities, and that the residents instinctively practise sustainable living. 4. War on Terrorism or American Strategy for Global Dominance —By Manzoor Alam 5. WTO and Indian Economy—Issues and Negotiating Strategies : —Edited by Alokesh Barua and Robert M. Stern 6. Globalization and Sustainable Good Governance —Edited by Permanand Singh A Francis Julian; Legal Education and Research Society New Delhi in association with Manak Publications. 7. Daniel Patrick Moynihan : A Portrait in Letter of an American Visionary —By Late Daniel Patrick Moynihan A former U.S. Senator and American ambassador to India.
IMPORTANT DAYS
National Days
December 4 December 14 December 18 December 1 December 3 December 10 Navy Day National Energy Conservation Day Minorities Rights Day
San Jose Mine
33 miners were rescued from Chilean mine—San Jose Mine after being trapped in that mine for more than two months in second week of October, 2010. The 33 miners caught in a collapse on August 5, 2010 spent 17 days in isolation before being located by drillers on August 22, 2010 and later rescued.
International Days
World AIDS Day World Day of the Handicapped Human Rights Day
P.Darpan
PD/December/20101003
“Lack of money is the root of all evil.”
After the approval of Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), the government on October 20, 2010 announced minimum support prices (MSP) for rabi crops 2010-11. For wheat the MSP gets only a marginal hike of 20 a quintal. The MSP of wheat, a major rabi crop was 1100 per quintal in 2009-10 season which has gone upto 1120 per quintal for 2010-11. The support prices of pulses such as masoor and gram dals have been raised sharply by 380 and 340 per quintal respectively to en-courage farmers to produce more pulses so as to curb import bill on pulses. The MSPs of the masoor dal and gram dals have been fixed at 2250 per quintal and 2100 per quintal respectively for the year 2010-11.
imports 3·5-4 million tonne of tur and urad from countries including Myanmar, Kenya, Tanzania, Mozambique to meet domestic demand of 18-19 million tonne. The CCEA also approved increase in mustard MSP by Rs. 20 to Rs. 1,850 per quintal. Safflower MSP has gone up to Rs. 1,800 from Rs. 1680 a quintal. Barley has been increased to Rs. 780 from Rs. 750 per quintal. These hikes in MSPs are based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). It is important to note that the MSP is the price that the government pays to farmers while procuring their produce. The Centre procures wheat and rice from farmers for public distribution system (PDS) and maintains buffer stocks and stragetic reserve for the country.
Indian women have been included. Indra Nooyi, CEO PepsiCo, Shikha Sharma CEO, Axis Bank and Chanda Kochhar MD and CEO, ICICI Bank have been placed at 6th, 89th and 92nd ranks respectively in this prestigious list. The first lady of United States Michelle Obama has topped this list of 100 most powerful women in the world.
6th Indra Nooyi PepsiCo CEO
89th Shikha Sharma Axis Bank CEO
92nd Chanda Kochhar ICICI Bank MD&CEO
Minimum Support Prices for Rabi Crops of 2010-11 Season to be Marketed in 2011–12
( per quintal)
Commodity MSP fixed for 2009-10 season 1100 750 1760 1870 1830 1680 MSP approved for 2010-11 season 1120 780 2100 2250 1850 1800 Change in MSP over 2009-10 season 20 30 340 380 20 120
In the Forbes' list of 100 most powerful women in the world, three
This year, Forbes has divided the 100 power women candidates into four groups of politics, business, media and lifestyle. It ranked the women in each group, and then group against group. Nooyi, Sharma and Kochhar have also been ranked separately under the ‘business’ category. Nooyi is the second most powerful woman in the world in the field of business after Kraft Foods
Wheat Barley Gram Masur (Lentil) Rapeseed /Mustard Safflower
The agriculture ministry is targeting to increase the pulses production to 16·5 million tonne in 2010-11 from about 14·5 million tonne in the previous year. India, the world's largest producer of pulses,
PD/December/2010/1004
“Anything too stupid to be said is sung.”
Chief Executive Irene Rosenfeld. Out of the 39 women listed in the business category, Sharma's rank is 33 and Chanda Kochhar's is 35. Forbes admires Pepsi‘s worldwide campaign, Pepsi Refresh which allocates $ 1·3 million each month for a US project, such as the recent ‘Do Good for the Gulf.’ This project offers stipends to build a shalter to ammals whose owners lost their homes to the oil spill and to provide mental health services and job training. Forbes underlines Shikha Sharma's attempt of focusing on introducing a retail broking platform and the possibility of expanding internationally. Chanda Kochhar has been named as the first woman to run a large Indian bank who expanded her role as chief with her recent acquisition of Bank of Rajasthan, a private sector bank with 463 branches and 4000 employees.
which unemployment, job vacancies and wages are affected by regulation and economic policy. Search theory associated with these Nobel laureates tries to explain such conundrums as how high unemployment can be accompanied by a large number of job openings. One important conclusion of the theory is that more generous jobless benefits lead to higher unemployment us those who are looking for work take longer to find it.
years and total exploration period will be seven years in respect of onland and shallow water blocks. But, in respect of deepwater and frontier areas (Northeast and lessexplored basins), initial exploration period will be five years and total exploration period eight years.
Petroleum and Natural Gas Ministry on October 15, 2010 has launched the ninth round of bidding under the New Exploration and Licensing Policy (NELP). 34 blocks have been put up for the auction under NELP–IX of the blocks offered in the ninth round, eight are deep water, seven in shallow water and 19 blocks on shore. The Ministry has extended the hope to arrange investment of around $ 14 billion in this ninth round of auctioning. Government had launched the 8th round of NELP in the midst of the global economic slowdown which resulted a very poor response. 34 out of 70 blocks could not attract any response and half the awarded blocks went to government-owned Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC). This poor response of the 8th round of NELP could manage only $ 1·1 billion. Government has so far awarded 235 blocks under various rounds of NELP, launched in 1999. As per the declaration of the Ministry, the exploration coverage of India's sedimentary basin has expanded from 11 per cent to 58 per cent after the introduction of NELP regime and the discoveries made under NELP have resulted in in-place hydrocarbon reserve accretion of a staggering 642 million tonne of oil and oil equivalent gas. Government has revised norms for NELP–IX according to which companies would be eligible for bidding for the blocks now on offer after being relinquished by them. Initial exploration period will be four
The Global Hunger Index (GHI) is a tool adapted and further developed by the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI) to comprehensively measure and track global hunger. The GHI incorporates three interlinked hunger-related indicators—the proportion of undernourished in the population, the prevalence of underweight in children, and the mortality rate of children. The GHI aims to raise awareness of regional and country differences in hunger and trigger action to eliminate hunger. The index ranks countries on a 100-point scale, with 0 being the best score (no hunger) and 100 being the worst. Values less than 5·0 reflect low hunger, values between 5·0 and 9·9 reflect moderate hunger, values between 10·0 and 19·9 indicate a serious problem, values between 20·0 and 29·9 are alarming, and values of 30·0 or higher are extremely alarming. According to the Global Hunger Index report, malnutrition among children under two years of age is one of the biggest challenge for reducing global hunger. Report finds that 29 countries, primarily in SubSaharan Africa and South Asia have levels of hunger that are ‘extremely alarming.’
Peter A. Diamond of Massachusetts Institute of Technology, Dale Mortensen of North Western University and Christopher Pissarides from London School of Economics are the three economists who shared the 2010 Nobel Prize in Economics for research into the difficulties of matching supply and demand, particularly in the labour market. As per the declaration of the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences which selects the Nobel laureates, Peter A. Diamond has analysed the foundations of search markets. Date Mortensen and Christopher Pissarides have expanded the theory and have applied it to the labour market. The models developed by these Nobel laureates help in understanding the ways in Nobel Laureates Economics-2010
Ranking of India and Neighbouring Nations in Global Hunger Index-2010
Nation China Sri Lanka Pakistan Nepal India Bangladesh Ranking 9 39 52 56 67 68
(From left) Peter A. Diamond, Dale Mortensen and Christopher Pissarides
PD/December/2010/1005
“Appreciation is a wonderful thing: It makes what is excellent in others belong to us as well.”
India despite of having robust economic growth indications, have been placed at 67th rank in Global Hunger Index which is worse even with the ranks of Sri Lanka (39th), Pakistan (52nd) and Nepal (56th). In the list of 84 nations, China has been placed at 9th place showing better situation in dealing with hunger in the country.
Latest Estimates of Kharif Crops
(million tonnes) Foodgrain Rice Jwar Maize Coarse Cereals Tur Urad Moong Total Pulses Total Foodgrains Commercial Crops Groundnut Soybean All Nine Oilseeds Cotton1 Jute & Mesta 2 Sugarcane 1. Million bales (each of 170 kg) 2009-10 4th Adv. Estimates 75·91 2·82 12·00 23·63 2·55 0·85 0·44 4·30 103·84 3·66 10·05 15·66 23·94 11·29 277·75 2. Million bales (each of 180 kg) 2010-11 1st Adv. Estimates 80·41 3·22 14·06 28·23 3·27 1·08 0·88 6·0 114·63 5·64 9·81 17·27 33·5 10·28 324·91
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has raised the investment application limit for retail investors to 2 lakh from 1 lakh at present. However, SEBI has not made any changes in the quantum of shares reserved for retail investors in public issues. In SEBI’s board meeting held on October 25, 2010, some important decisions taken are—
? Enhances retail application limit to 2 lakh from 1 lakh across all issues. ? Disclosures of risk factors specific to IPOs by insurance companies. ? SEBI also exempted insurance companies from disclosing the disclaimer clause of Irda in the offer document and appointing a monitoring agency. ? Tightens preferential allotment framework for promoters. ? Mandatory for companies to preannounce dates for dividend payment and bonus shares. ? QIB status to insurance funds set up by Department of Posts.
Ministry of Agriculture on September 24, 2010 released the first advance estimates of Kharif crops for the year 2010-11. Better monsoon this year helped Kharif crops to get increased to 114·63 million tonne in 2010-11. This estimated production level may be called satisfactory as it was only 103·84 million tonne in 2009-10. Compared to the last year, all Kharif crops, leaving Jute and Mesta, have been estimated at better produc-
PD/December/2010/1006
“Doubt is not a pleasant condition, but certainty is absurd.”
tion level. Rice has been estimated at 80·41 million tonne and coarse cereals at 28·23 million tonne while these were 75·91 million tonne and 23·63 million tonne respectively last year. Pulses also went to 6·0 million tonne from 4·3 million level of last year 2009-10. Cotton and sugarcane showed better results in first advance estimates for 2010-11. Cotton registered 40% growth and sugarcane 17% growth in 2010-11 estimates as compared to figures of 2009-10. The second advance estimates of agriculture production for 2010-11 will be released by Agriculture Ministry in February 2011.
assessment. Lesotho, in sub-Saharan Africa ranks at 8th place showing smaller gender gap than UK which gets 15th ranking in the list. India has been ranked on poor front in the list Report puts India at 112 ranking out of 134 nations. Last year in 2009 India's ranking was 114th in the list. Both the rankings are almost same showing no improvement in gender equality. India's ranking is the lowest even among BRIC nations. Moreover, India's gender equality performance remains the worst in the region with Sri Lanka and Bangladesh got 16th and 82nd ranking. At the bottom of the ranking table of gender equality are nations— Yemen (134th), Chad (133rd) and Pakistan (132nd).
protect the interest of the exporters. Indications appear that RBI might intervene if Indian rupee appreciates below 43 per dollar level. Federation of Indian Exports Organisation is calling for the step to prevent the ‘distortion’ of the exchange rate.
The World Economic Forum's Global Gender Gap Report assesses gender equality in 134 countries looking at economic participation and opportunity, educational attainment, political empowerment, health and survival. The report examines both men and women's access to resources and opportunities rather than the levels of resources and opportunities available in a country.
The Global Gender Gap 2010 Ranking Top 5 Nations Nation Iceland Norway Finland Sweden New Zealand BRIC Nations Brazil Russia India China 85 45 112 61 South Asia Nations Pakistan Sri Lanka Bangladesh Nepal 132 16 82 115 Rank 1 2 3 4 5
Due to record support of overseas support in stocks and other in flows the Indian rupee has attained the highest level against US dollar since September 2008. Indian rupee was traded at 47·08 per dollar on August 31, 2010 has gained 6·1 per cent to reach 44·20 per dollar on October 7, 2010. Indian rupee has become stronger against dollar by 5 per cent this year which is the biggest annual gain during the past three years. Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) have invested a large funds in stocks since such investments were permitted in 1992. FIIs have bought bonds worth $ 10 billion in 2010 which gave healthy support to Indian rupee even Sensex in India could attain its highest level in 33 months due to FIIs investment support. Attracting with better and faster growth in Indian economy as com-pared with slow growth in Western economies, overseas investment inflows also supported Indian economy. Besides, a weaker dollar has also strengthened Indian currency. Stronger Indian rupee has created a problem before export sector of the economy. Reserve Bank of India may intervene to weaken the rupee and
Iceland, Norway, Finland, Sweden and New Zealand are the top 5 ranking nations in global gender gap
World Economic Situation and Prospects (WESP), mainly developed by UNCTAD, provides an overview of recent global economic performance and short-term prospects for the world economy and of some key global economic policy and development issues. The World Economic Situation and Prospects update as of mid-2010 highlights that while the world economy continued to improve in the first half of 2010, the pace of the recovery is too weak to close the global output gap left by the crisis. It also points out that the recovery is uneven across countries, with encouraging growth prospects for some developing countries, but lacklustre economic activity in developed economies and below potential growth elsewhere in the developing world. Report estimates World Gross Product (WGP) to fall by 2·2 per cent for 2009 which is the first actual contraction since the second world war. A mid growth of 2·4 per cent is the forecast of WESP for 2010 and that too, if continued supportive policy is adopted across the world. According to this scenario, the level of world economic activity will be 7 per cent below from the level of preglobal crisis period. The report also highlights a number of risks and uncertainties to the outlook, including a premature exit from the stimulus measures and a hard landing of the dollar due to the renewed widening of the global imbalances. In terms of policy measures, the report recommends continued fiscal stimulus measures in the short run, a continued focus on the rebalancing of economic growth in a number of respects, better policy coordination, strengthened global governance and more decisive reforms of the global financial system.
PD/December/2010/1007
“Every man is guilty of all the good he didn’t do.”
The 2010 Corruption Perceptions Index shows that nearly three quarters of the 178 countries in the index score below five, on a scale from 10 (very clean) to 0 (highly corrupt). These results indicate a serious corruption problem. For meeting the challenges of the corruption, governments need to integrate anti-corruption measures in all spheres, from their responses to the financial crisis and climate change to commitments by the international community to eradicate poverty. Transparency International advocates stricter implementation of the UN Convention against Corruption, the only global initiative that provides a framework for putting an end to corruption. Denmark, New Zealand and Singapore and tied at the top of the list with a score of 9·3, followed closely by Finland and Sweden at 9·2. At the
bottom is Somalia with a score of 1·1, slightly trailing Myanmar and Afghanistan at 1·4 and Iraq at 1·5. Notable among decliners over the past year are some of the countries most affected by a financial crisis precipitated by transparency and integrity deficits. Among those improving in the past year, the general absence of OECD states underlines the fact that all nations need to bolster their good governance mechanisms. 2010 Corruption Perception Index gives a clear message—transparency and accountability are critical in restoring trust and turning back the tide of corruption. Without them, global policy solutions to many global crises are at risk.
on October 18, 2010. With this biggest public issue, government has expected to raise around 15000 crore. Union Government had fixed the price band at 225-245 per share. On October 25, 2010, government declared Coal India Ltd. IPO’s price at 245 per share, the upper ceiling of the early offered range. Coal India Ltd. has offered 631·6 million shares at a face value of 10 each in the offer. The issue got closed on October 21, 2010. Coal India's IPO was floated in the public after government's decision to sell 10 per cent of its current 100 per cent stake in the company. Retail investors and coal India employees have been decided to get a 5 per cent discount. Coal India Ltd. is the largest coal producer in India. With annual production exceeding 430 million tonne, the company meets over 80 per cent of India's coal needs. On its closing, coal India IPO got subscribed 15·4 times, collecting an unprecedented over 240000 crore. High net worth individual category was subscribed 25 times while the retail category was subscribed 2·25 times. Retail category subscribers will get at least 173 shares on full quota of application. Coal India's allotment of shares will be higher than that of the Reliance Power issue in 2008. When investors got only 17 shares against their full application of 222 shares. It is also worthnoting that Coal India received 1·6 million retail applications against Reliance Power's over 4·5 million applications. On the basis of 30-35 grey market Premium of Coal India, the shares are likely to be listed on November 4, 2010 at 270-280 against the upper end of the price band of 245 per share.
Coal India Ltd.'s initial public offerings (IPO)—the biggest float in India's corporate history was opened
International Monetary Fund (IMF) has projected India's GDP growth rate at 9·7% for the calendar year 2010 and 8·4% for 2011 due to better macro-economic performance and strong industrial growth. Accord-
PD/December/2010/1008
“God is a comedian playing to an audience too afraid to laugh.”
ing to World's Economic Outlook Report of IMF, growth in emerging Asia economies stand at about 9·5% with robust demand from China, India and Indonesia benefiting other Asian economies. Asian Development Bank (ADB) on September 28, 2010 had raised its India's GDP forecast from 8·2% to 8·5%. IMF in its report highlights that India's macroeconomic performance has been vigorous, with industrial production at a two-year high. Moreover, the leading indicators of the economy show a steady improvement which makes IMF's projection for India's growth stronger.
India's GDP Growth Projections by Various Agencies IMF CMIE ADB Govt. of India .? .? RBI ? .? PMEAC .? CRISIL 9·7% 9·2% 8·5% 8·5% 8·1% 2010 2010-11 2010 2010-11 2010
China is expected to grow at an even faster rate of 10·5 per cent in 2010 and 9·6 per cent in 2011, driven by domestic demand. Advanced economies, on the other hand, are projected to grow by just 2·7 per cent in 2010 and 2·2 per cent in 2011. Report forcecasts global trade to expand by 4·8 per cent in 2010 and 4·2 per cent in 2011 with a temporary slowdown during the second half of 2010 and first half of 2011. According to the World Economic Outlook report, growth in emerging Asia economies stands at about 9·5 per cent, with robust demand from China, India, and Indonesia benefiting other Asian economies.
bullish outlook for fast growing economies like India which tackled the global financial melt down better than many other countries. According to the OECD's latest Composite Leading Indicators (CLIs), the global economic expansion is slowing down and there are early signals of turning points in the business cycles. CLIs for Canada, France, Italy, the United Kingdom, Brazil, China and India provide strong signals to a downturn. CLIs for India stood at 100·4 in August 2010 which is a little lower than 100·6 recorded in July 2010. For China also, CLIs slipped down to 101·3 in August 2010 from 101·7 of July 2010. OECD's outlook differs with India's growth projections of various agencies, including International Monetary Fund (IMF). Finance Ministry also projects a robust growth path of around 9 per cent average in the short term. It is worthnoting that India's economic growth was 7·4 per cent in 2009-10 and is projected to be over 8·5 per cent for the year 2010-11.
tion by banks has declined as compared to the figure observed in the previous fortnight. Deposit mobilisation by banks during the fortnight ended September 24,2010 went up by 16590 crore as against an increase of around 20465 crore in the previous fortnight. Bank credit on the other hand rose by 39364 crore which shows a larger quantum than deposits. Credit grew 19·04 per cent on a year-on-year basis at the end of the fortnight September 24, 2010. Outstanding bank credit stood at 3422291 crore as against 3382927 crore at the end of previous fortnight i.e. September 10, 2010.
Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) in its analysis presents an outlook that India and China may face economic downturn in the coming months. The latest analysis of OECD presents a contrast view with the
According to the data released by Reserve Bank of India for the first half of 2010-11 (i.e. April-September 2010), credit in the banking system has shown a faster growth as compared to the last year's statistics. The total outstanding credit of the banking system has risen 5·6 per cent to 34,22,291 crore since the beginning of this financial year. The credit growth rate in the first half of the previous financial year was 3·5 per cent. The central bank has projected a 20 per cent credit growth for the current financial year. Deposits, on the other hand, has sharply slowed down from 7·6 per cent in April-September 2009 to 4·9 per cent in the first half of 2010. RBI has projected 18 per cent deposit growth for the entire year 2010-11 but so far it has not exceeded 15 per cent this financial year. As per the statistics released by RBI, during the fortnight ended September 24,2010 deposit mobilisa-
The latest released data on IIP by the government show only 5·6 per cent growth in August 2010. Due to a sharp decline in the growth of manufacturing sector, industrial growth in India feel to 15-month low level in August 2010. The manufacturing sector, which accounts for a 79·4 per cent share in the index, was the prime reason for the slow pace of growth. Manufacturing sector growth was estimated at 5·9 per cent in August, compared to 10·6 per cent a year ago. In August 2009, industrial growth had entered double-digit levels at 10·6 per cent, for the first time since economic slow-down in September 2008. At the same time, the government revised the estimate upwards for July to 15·2 per cent from the provisional estimate of 13·8 per cent. In August 2010, there was a 2·6 per cent decline in capital goods output. At 72 per cent growth in July, the capital goods segment, with a weight of 9·26 per cent in the index, was the main reason for the unexpected spurt in the overall figures in the previous month.
IIP Overall Growth
(in%) Year 2009-10 2010-11 April 1·13 16·50 August 10·62 5·60
PD/December/2010/1009
“God is always on the side of the big battalions.”
All the three categories of IIP– mining, manufacturing and electricity registered decelerations both on an annual and on-month-on-month basis but manufacturing sector has shown the sharpest dip at 5·9 per cent in August 2010, down from 16·7 per cent in July 2010. Growth in mining and electricity stood at 7 per cent and 1·02 per cent respectively in August 2010 compared with 9·9 per cent and 3·7 per cent in July 2010. Finance Ministry has also shown its disappointment over this IIP growth in August 2010.
lakh to improve project and financial management in Bihar state Electricity Board. Besides, ADB has also approved a loan package of $ 120 million to Assam as assistance in combating flooding and erosion in the state. ? Vodafone asked to pay 11218 crore as tax—Income Tax Department has fixed a revised tax liability of 11218 crore on British Telecom company Vodafone for the $ 11·2 billion deal done by the company with Hutch-Essar in 2007. Initially the tax liability on Vodafone was fixed at 12000 crore which was challenged by Vodafone in Bombay High Court but the petition was dismissed. High Court had directed the Income Tax Department to reassess the tax liability of the company. Vodafone raises strong objections with the tax calculations released by the Income Tax Department. Vodafone terms the revised liability against the conclusions of the Bombay High Court. The case between Vodafone and Income Tax Department is now being heard in the Supreme Court. ? IOC's Paradip refinery to start output by March 2012—According to the official sources of Indian Oil Corporation, the Paradip refinery of the corporation will start commercial production by March 2012 and “History is a pack of lies we play on the dead.”
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ADB to lend $ 132 million to Bihar and $ 120 million to Assam—Manila-based Asian Development Bank has approved $ 132 million (over 585 crore) loan for upgrading electricity system in Bihar and also a loan package of $ 120 million (about 532 crore) to Assam towards efforts to combat flooding and erosion. $ 132 million loan to Bihar is being granted to Power System Improvement Project to upgrade electricity system in the state. The funds have been assigned to be used to install new transmission lines and to renovate and modernise transmission and distribution facilities to improve the quality and reliability of the state's electricity supply network. ADB has also decided to extend a technical assistance grant of $ 3
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become fully operational November 2012. This Paradip refinery unit has a refining capacity of 15 million tonne per year. The estimated cost of the project is around 320 billion. The first stage of the plant will be commissioned in January 2012. The refinery will have a complexity factor of 13, allowing it to process and refine very low quality of crude or crude with high sulphur content. A proposal of building a petrochemical plant near Paradip refinery is also under consideration of Indian Oil Corporation and the decision will be taken within the next three-four months. Indian oil sources also announced that everything produced in Paradip refinery will be for domestic consumption and none of its product will be exported. FDI inflows register 60% decline—Data released by industry department show that the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in August 2010 took a dip of about 60 per cent to $ 1·33 billion which is the lowest in the financial year 2010-11. The FDI inflow in August 2009 was $ 3·26 billion. Despite the smart recovery in the domestic economy and a rebound in exports, overseas investment in the form of equity inflows have been declining since June 2010. The overseas investment in June 2010 was at $ 1·38 billion while that in July 2010 was $ 1·78 billion. The FDI in the first two months of financial year 2010-11 i.e. April and May 2010 stood at $ 2·17 billion and $ 2·21 billion respectively. Cummulatively, in the first five months of the financial year 2010-11 i.e. April to August 2010, the FDI inflows declined by 35 per cent to $ 8·88 billion, compared to $ 13·76 billion in the same period of 2009. Adani targets coal production from Australian mines by 2014end—Adani Enterprises has targetted to start coal production from Australian coal mine by the end of 2014 and a production between 50 and 60 million tonne per annum by 2022. In August
PD/December/2010/1010
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2010 Adani Group had declared to invest $ 6·9 billion ( 30000 crore) for developing mines, a railway and a port for its Gailee Basin coal mine in Queensland, Australia. Adani group which is India's biggest coal importer had agreed to pay $ 2·7 billion ( 12,500 crore) in a cash and royalty deal for the asset. It has high-grade thermal coal deposits of 7·8 billion tonnes. Adani's investment in Australia is the largest very by any Indian company in that country. The Adani Group is a fast growing conglomerate, with combined market capitalisation of just its three listed entities being $ 30 billion ( 1·3 lakh crore) and employing more than 15,000 people. Its principal focus areas are power generation, port ownership and operation, and integrated coal mining and logistics. Madhya Pradesh announces New Tourism Policy—Madhya Pradesh has come forward to promote tourism in the state. The government has announced a newly approved tourism policy for the state which aims at inviting capital investment from private sector and procuring more land for them. The newly announced policy relaxes luxury tax limit from 500 to 2000 and zero tax during off season. Besides, heritage hotels have been granted exemption from tax for a period of 10 years provided they promote minimum one crore investment in the hotel. The other salient features of the new policy are— ? Special Tourism zone proposed. ? Creating land bank for the private investors proposed. ? Water tourism policy incorporated for promoting tourism at various reservoirs of power projects like Indira Sagar, Omkareshwar and Bansagar Dams. ? New hotels in Bhopal and Indore exempted from taxes for 5 years period. ? Existing hotels exempted from taxes in certain conditions provided they ensure
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minimum 50 lakh investment. ? New hotels also exempted from electricity duty if they set up captive power plant. RBI divests stake in NABARD to Government—Reserve Bank of India has divested its 71·5 per cent stake, aggregating to 1430 crore, to the government in National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development. This disinvestment makes RBI's holding down in National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) to only one per cent while it raised government's holding to 99 per cent. Following this changed holding structure in NABARD, the government now holds a greater control in NABARD's decisions with more say and flexibility to issue the directions to NABARD for meeting its credit objectives set for the priority sector. Despite the change in the holding structure, NABARD's board will not be changed. As per the official declaration of the NABARD, there will not be any change in the mandate of bank after the stake transfer. At present RBI has three members on the board of the bank. RBI to issue coins with ‘Commonwealth Theme’—Reserve Bank of India has announced to issue new coins of 5 and 2 to commemorate the Commonwealth Games held in New Delhi in October 2010. RBI has decided to put into circulation coins of 5 and 2 with the theme ‘XIX Commonwealth Games 2010-Delhi.’ Both the newly planned coins of 5 and 2 denomination will be of circular shape and have a diameter of 23 millimeter and 27 millimeter respectively. RBI also announced that the existing 5 and 2 coins will also continue in circulation. Railway earnings rise 7·83% in first half 2010-11—The earnings of Indian Railways show a rise of 7·83 per cent during AprilSeptember 2010, compared to the earnings in the same period of 2009.
The total earnings of Indian Railways during April-September 2010 stood at 44,323·70 crore, against 41,104·78 crore of the same period last year. The total goods earnings have gone up from 27,629·01 crore during April-September 2009 to 29,443·32 crore during AprilSeptember 2010 showing an increase of 6·57 per cent. The total passenger revenue earnings during the first six months of the financial year 2010-11 were 12,689·36 crore, compared to 11,573·60 crore in the same period last year registering an increase of 9·64 per cent. The revenue earnings from other coaching amounted to 1234·89 crore during the AprilSeptember period of 2010-11 compared to 1121·64 crore in the same period last year which shows an increase of 10·10 per cent.
‘Budget Mannual’ Released
Union Ministry of Finance on September 26, 2010 released the ‘Budget Mannual’ showing the entire budget process of the country. It is for the first time when this type of mannual
Pranab Mukherjee is officially released. While releasing this mannual, the Finance Minister Mr. Pranab Mukherjee extended the hope that a transparency in various issues and making of budget will be established with this Budget Mannual. Indian Constitution though mentions budget and grants-in-aids etc. but does not provide any detail. The new Budget Mannual, on the other hand, gives detailed budget making process.
PD/December/2010/1011
“If God did not exist, it would be necessary to invent him.”
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Core industrial growth slowed down—Six core industries— crude oil, petroleum, refinery products, coal, electricity, cement and finished steel have shown a declined growth of 4·1 per cent during April-August 2010 period against—4·8 per cent growth obtained during the same period of 2009. In April 2010 this sector had 5·4 per cent growth which slipped down to 3·7 per cent in August 2010. As compared to the August 2009 period, core industries growth also show a big decline as it was 6·4 per cent in August 2009. Core sector industrial growth deeply affects Index of Industrial production as these six core industrial segment accounts for 26·7 per cent of the country's total industrial output.
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Six Core Industries Growth April-August 2010
(in %)
Crude oil Petroleum Refinery Coal Electricity Cement Finished Steel Overall Core Sector 6·5 5·3 0·9 4·4 4·6 3·5 4·1
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Indian Post Department to issue ‘Debit Cards’—Indian Post Department has finally announced to issue ‘debit cards’ on the lines of debit cards issued by banks. These debit cards will be issued with the collaboration of ‘Master Cards.’ Reserve Bank of India has granted permission to Indian Post Department for issuing debit cards. Head post offices of Indian Post Department will issue these cards. After their top-up with desired amount, these cards may be used in various commercial complexes accepting master cards for shoping Money withdrawals from ATMs can also be made with these cards. e-commerce and electronic money transfer from internet may also be done with the use of these debit cards.
Trade Deficit shrinks in September 2010—In September 2010, India’s exports increased by 23 per cent which took India’s exports to the highest level in the nearly two years. This supportive growth in exports made trade deficit shrunk to $ 9·12 billion. According to the latest data released by Commerce Ministry exports grew by 23·2 per cent in September to $ 18·02, while imports rose by 26·1 per cent to $ 27·14 billion. As a result, trade deficit shrunk to $ 9·12 billion compared to $ 13·06 billion in August, which was a 23-month high. During the first six months of 2010-11 i.e., April-September 2010 exports went up by 27·6 per cent to $ 103·3 billion. On the other hand, imports clocked 30 per cent growth during the AprilSeptember period 2010 reaching $ 166·5 billion. Taking the note of this encouraging scenario of country’s exports, government has extended hope of achieving export target of $ 200 billion for the year 2010 despite the recent appreciation of the Indian rupee.
SENSEX
The term ‘SENSEX’ has been derived by combining two words Sensitive-Index. It is a sensitive share price index to reflect movements in share prices. It incorporates share prices of 30 select sensitive companies.
Repo Rate and Reverse Repo Rate
Repo rate is the short for repurchase rate. It is the discounted interest rate at which a central bank repurchases government securities from the commercial banks. In simple terms, the rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks is called repo rate. Reverse Repo rate is the rate at which commercial banks park their surplus funds with RBI.
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India's Trade April-September 2010
(in billion $) Export Import Trade Deficit 103·3 166·5 – 63·2 + 27·6% + 30·3% —
Railway to convert trains number in 5-digit—Indian Railways has initiated a plan to convert the numbers of trains into 5-digit. At present, trains numbers are of 4digit. As per the official report of Indian Railways, one additional digit will be pre-fixed in the existing 4-digit numbers of the trains under this newly proposed train number system. Shatabdi, Rajdhani, Duranto, Sampark Kranti, Jan Shatabdi, Garib Rath and other Mail/Express/Superfast trains number will be added number 1 at the beginning of the existing number. Passenger trains numbers will get number 5 as additional digit in existing number while MEMU and DEMU trains will get additional number P.Darpan 6 and 7 respectively.
PD/December/2010/1012
“Indeed, history is nothing more than a tableau of crimes and misfortunes.”
National
? Armando Emilio Guebuza who recently visited India is the President of ? Mozambique ? Recently Mozambique President Armando Emilio Guebuza visited India. During his visit India signed three agreements besides agreeing upon a credit line of $ 500 million for infrastructure projects in Mozambique. Lal Bahadur Shastri Award has been bestowed on ? Aruna Roy ? President Pratibha Devisingh Patil presented the prestigious Lal Bahadur Shastri National Award for Excellence in Public Administration Academia and Management to Aruna Roy on October 1, 2010. Aruna Roy is a social and political activist. The First National Cerebral Palsy Day was observed on ? October 3, 2010 ? Indian Academy of Cerebral Palsy, an academic body of doctors and rehabilitation professionals from across the country decided to observe October 3, as the National Cerebral Palsy Day to highlight the growing cerebral palsy—a brain disorder which affects mostly children becoming the commonest cause of childhood disability in India. The new Director General of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) is ? K. Vijay Kumar ? K. Vijay Kumar who was Director of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy. Hyderabad has been appointed the new Director General of Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) headquartered in New Delhi. LG ICC Cricketer of the Year Award and LG ICC Peoples’ Choice Award for 2010 have been bestowed on
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? Sachin Tendulkar ? Sachin Tendulkar emerged winner at the LG ICC (International Cricket Council) Award on October 6, 2010
after winning the Sir Garfield Sobers Cricketer of the Year Award and LG Peoples’ Choice Award for the year 2010. ? Sahitya Akademi Fellowship has been conferred on ? Kushwant Singh ? Eminent writer, historian and columnist Khushwant Singh has been conferred the Sahitya Akademi Fellowship—an honour reserved for the immortals of literature. The World’s largest Diamond Bourse which was recently inaugurated in Mumbai is
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? Bharat Diamond Bourse (BDB) ? Bharat Diamond Bourse (BDB) the world’s largest diamond bourse was inaugurated on October 17, 2010 in
Mumbai with the primary objective of establishing necessary infrastructure facilities for promotion of export of diamonds. ? In terms of Medal tally, in recently held Commonwealth Games in Delhi, India achieved ? Second Position ? With Badminton Star Saina Nehwal snatching a three-game victory over Malaysia’s Mew Choo Wong India took second position by grabbing 38 gold medals (in total 101 medals) ahead of England which got 37 gold medals. The nation which occupies top position in underweight children among Commonwealth Nations is ? India ? In a recent report ‘Commonwealth or Common Hunger’ prepared by an NGO ‘Save the Children’. India among the Commonwealth Nations is on the top in underweight children with seven million under five severely malnourished. The recently-held joint exercise by the Indian Air Force (IAF) and the Royal Air Force (RAF) of United Kingdom was named ? Indradhanush ? Indradhanush—a joint exercise by the Indian Air Force (IAF) and the Royal Air Force (RAF) of the United Kingdom was organised in October 2010 at the Kalaikunda Air Force Station in West Bengal’s Paschim Medinipur district.
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? Rustom I ? Rustom I—India’s medium altitude and long endurance Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) developed by the
India’s medium–altitude and long endurance Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) is Bangalore-based Aeronautical Development Establishment was successfully test-flown in Bangalore on October 16, 2010.
PD/December/2010/1013
“Self-sacrifice enables us to sacrifice other people without blushing.”
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The adult HIV prevalence in the country has declined from 0·45% in 2002 to ? 0·29% in 2008 ? In a report by the National AIDS Control Programme (NACO) on its “Response to the HIV Epidemic in India”, it has been revealed that the people living with HIV have declined from 2·73 million to 2·27 million between 2002 and 2008. The HIV prevalence has declined from 0·45% in 2002 to 0·29% in 2008.
International
? The winner of Ryder Cup is ? Europe ? Europe won Ryder Cup (Golf) in Newport (Wales) on October 4, 2010 after defeating United States of America by 14–1/2 points to 13–1/2 points. The winner of the 2010 Nobel Prize for Medicine is ? Robert Edwards ? British scientist Robert Edwards for his pioneering research in in-vitro fertilization has been awarded the Nobel Prize for Medicine for 2010. The winners of Nobel Prize for Physics for 2010 are ? Andre Geim and Konstantin Novoselov ? Russian-born Andre Geim and Konstantin Novoselov of Manchester University have been named joint winners of this year’s Nobel Prize for Physics for 2010 for their groundbreaking work on experiments with graphene—a new form of carbon. The winners of the 2010 Nobel Prize for Chemistry are ? Akira Suzuki, Ei-ichi Negishi and Richard F. Heck ? Ei-ichi Negishi, Akira Suzuki and Richard F. Heck have been selected for the 2010 Nobel Prize for Physics for their work on palladium-catalyzed cross couplings in organic synthesis. The winner of Literature Nobel for 2010 is ? Mario Vargas Llosa ? Mario Vargas–a Peruvian–Spanish author won the Nobel Prize for Literature 2010 for his cartography of structures of power and trenchant images of individual’s resistance, revolt and defeat in his compositions. The winner of Nobel Peace Prize for 2010 is ? Liu Xiaobo ? Jailed Chinese political activist Liu Xiaobe was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize for 2010 for his long and nonviolent struggle for fundamental human rights in China. The winners of Nobel Prize for Economics for 2010 are
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? Peter Diamond, Dale Mortensen and Christopher Pissarides ? Peter Diamond and Dale Mortensen of United States and British Cypriot Christopher Pissarides won the 2010
Nobel Economics Prize recently for their work on why supply and demand do not always meet in the labour market and elsewhere. ? The Man Booker Prize winner for fiction this year is ? Howard Jacobson ? British writer and journalist Howard Jacobson’s novel The Finkler Question won the Man Booker Prize for Fiction this year. The novel was judged the best of the six books on the shortlist. The longest railway tunnel of the world which was recently completed is ? Gotthard Base Tunnel ? The World’s longest railway the Gattahard Base Tunnel—the 57 km long high-speed and freight rail connection deep beneath the Swiss-Alps—was recently completed. The tunnel is designed to slash journey times between Zurich and Milan by over an hour. The woman athlete who was adjudged the best athlete of the XIX Commonwealth Games was ? Trecia Smith
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? Jamaica’s triple jumper Trecia Smith was adjudged the outstanding athlete of the Commonwealth Games on
October 14, 2010 and thus was presented the David Dixon Award by the Commonwealth Games Federation President Michael Fennell. ? The country which achieved number one position in terms of medals tally in 19th Commonwealth Games in New Delhi is ? Australia
? Australia grabbed number one position in medals tally by winning 177 medals (74 gold, 55 silver and 48
bronze medal) in recently held Commonwealth Games in New Delhi. ? The winner of Korean Grand Prix is the Formula One World Championship lead. ? CBD which recently came into news stands for
? Fernando Alonso
? Ferrari’s Fernando Alonso won Korean Grand Prix in Yeongam in October 2010 which has brought him into ? Convention on Biological Diversity
? The 193 members of the UN’s Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) was organised in Nagoya—Central
city of Japan in order to work out strategies to prevent mass extinction of species of plants and animals.
P.Darpan
PD/December/2010/1014
“A witty saying proves nothing.”
Recruitment in the Indian Navy for Short Service Commissioned Officers as Pilot
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 15, 2010. Age Limit—19 to 23 years. Educational Qualifications—A graduate degree in any discipline with 65% marks should have qualified Mathematics and Physics at 10 + 2 level. How to Apply—Application Forms in accordance with the prescribed format and complete in all respects. Selection Procedure—The candidates will be issued call up for Service Selection Board (SSB) interview. Stage I will consist of Intelligence Test, Picture Perception and Group Discussion Stage II will consist of Psychological Test, group task. Successful candidates will undergo Pilot Aptitude Battery Test (PABT) followed by Aviation Medical Examination. See Employment News October 16-22, 2010 for more details.
How to Apply—Candidates can apply for the post either on the prescribed Application (Offline) or submit the application Online followed up by sending a printout of the online application as per the format given in Employment News October 16-22, 2010. See Employment News October 16-22, 2010 for more details.
Central Agricultural University Imphal Recruitment for Various Posts
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 11, 2010. Total Vacancies—76. Educational Qualifications—As per the requirement of the post . Age Limit—As per the requirement of the post. See Employment News October 16-22, 2010 for more details.
Recruitment in the Office of the Principal Accountant General
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 15, 2010. Total Vacancies—275. Educational Qualifications— 10th pass. Age Limit—18 to 27 years. Selection Procedure—The selection of candidates shall be based on a Preliminary Screening Test followed by Interview. See Employment News October 16-22, 2010 for more details.
Recruitment in Indian Bank for Probationary Officers (JMG Scale I)
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 11, 2010. Total Vacancies—850. Educational Qualifications— Graduation in any discipline. Selection Procedure—The written examination comprises. Objective and Descriptive papers. Objective Test consists of Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, English Language and General Awareness. After Objective Paper there will be descriptive paper. How to Apply—Applications have to be submitted by the eligible candidates only online i.e. through internet on our Bank's website www. indianbank. in See Employment News October 9-15, 2010.
Recruitment in Reserve Bank of India for Officers in Grade B
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 15, 2010. Total Vacancies—80. Educational Qualifications—A first class Bachelor's degree with a minimum 60% marks or an equivalent grade. Selection Procedure—Selection will be through Written Examination's (WE) and Interview Phase I (Objective Type test) consist of test of General Awareness (II) English Language (III) Quantitative Aptitude and (IV) Reasoning, Phase II Descriptive type test consist of Paper I English, Paper II Economic and Social Issues and Paper III Finance and Management.
National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination 2011
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 15, 2010. Total Vacancies—335 (195 for the Army, 39 for Navy, 66 for the Air Force and 35 for Indian Naval Academy.) Educational Qualifications— 12th class pass of the 10 + 2 pattern of School Education. Age Limit—15 to 17 years. Selection Procedure—Two stage selection procedure based on Psychological Aptitude Test and Intelligence Test will be conducted. The paper in all the subjects will consist of objective type questions only. The question papers of Mathematics and General Ability Test will be set bilingually in Hindi and English. See Employment News October 16-22, 2010 for further details.
Recruitment in Indian Air Force as Airman in Group X (Technical Trade)
Last Date (Receipt of Applications Forms)—November 8, 2010. Educational Qualifications— Candidates should have passed Intermediate/10 + 2 pass marks in Mathematics and Physics with a
PD/December/2010/1016
“No man has a good enough memory to make a successful liar.”
minimum of 50% marks in overall aggregate. Selection Procedure—Candidates will be tested in English, Physics and Mathematics as per CBSE syllabus of AISSCE. Question papers will be objective type and bilingual (English amd Hindi) except English Paper. How to Apply—Application should be in A4 size paper as per the format given in Employment News October 9-15, 2010. See Employment News October 9-15, 2010 for more details.
How to Apply—Candidates are required to apply online through Bank's website www.psbindia.com for more details. Log onto Employment News October 23-29, 2010 for more details.
Selection Procedure—Candidates will be subjected to Physical Efficiency Test. Written Objective test will assess General Awareness/ General Knowledge, Knowledge of Elementary Knowledge in English/ Hindi. How to Apply—As per the format given in Employment News October 23-29, 2010. See Employment News October 23-29, 2010 for more details.
Recruitment in Punjab and Sind Bank for Various Posts
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 15, 2010. Total Vacancies—700. Educational Qualifications— Graduation in any discipline with minimum 55% marks. Selection Procedure—Objective Test will consist of Test of Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, General Awareness, Computer Knowledge and English Language and Descriptive paper will consist of English Comprehension. How to Apply—Candidates are required to apply online through Bank's website www.psbindia.com. See Employment News October 23-29, 2010 for more details.
Oriental Bank of Commerce : Recruitment of Clerks
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 24, 2010. Total Vacancies—1105. Educational Qualifications— Degree in any discipline or its equivalent or 10 + 2 examination or its equivalent with minimum 50%. Age Limit—18 to 28 years. Selection Procedure—The selection will be on the basis of written test and interview. The Objective Test will comprise Test of Reasoning, English, Clerical Aptitude, Numerical Ability Description Test will consist of four questions out of which the candidates are required to attempt 3 questions only. How to Apply—To apply, candidates should first log onto website www.obcindia.com.in. See Employment News October 23-29, 2010 for more details.
M.P. PSC State Services Exam 2010
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 15, 2010. Total Vacancies—305. Educational Qualifications— Graduation degree from a recognized University. Age Limit—21 to 30 years. Selection Procedure—In prelims Objective Test will consist of Paper I of General Studies and Paper II of Optional Paper. How to Apply—The candidates can apply online through the website www.mponline.gov.in or www. mppsc.com. or www. mppsc.nic.in. Log onto www.mppsc.com for more details.
Recruitment in the Indian Navy for Permanent Commissioned Officers
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 15, 2010. Educational Qualifications— BE/B. Tech. in Electronics. How to Apply—As per the format given in Employment News October 23-29, 2010. Selection Procedure—Short Service Candidates will be called for interview. Stage I will include Intelligence Test, Picture Perception Test and Group Discussion. The second stage includes Psychological Test. See Employment News October 23-29, 2010 for more details.
Recruitment in Punjab and Sind Bank in Clerical Cadre
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 15, 2010. Total Vacancies—300. Educational Qualifications— Pass with 60% marks in aggregate in Higher Secondary Examination/ 10 + 2 of 10 + 2 + 3 pattern. Selection Procedure—Objective Test will be based on : (a) test of Reasoning Ability, (b) test of Numerical Ability (c) test of English Language and (d) test of Clerical Aptitude and test of Computer Knowledge. Descriptive Paper on English will be of qualifying nature.
Recruitment in Employees’ State Insurance Corporation
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 30, 2010. Total Vacancies—47. Educational Qualifications— Matriculation. Mode of Selection—Through Open Competitive Examination (Objective type) or Interview or both. How to Apply—The application in the prescribed proforma given in Employment News October 23-29, 2010 should be sent. See Employment News October 23-29, 2010 for more details.
Recruitment in IndoTibetan Border Force for Constables
Total Vacancies—175. Educational Qualifications— Matriculation or 10th class pass. Age Limit—18 to 23 years.
PD/December/2010/1018
“No man is good enough to govern another man without that other’s consent.”
Recruitment in Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan for TGT Teachers
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—December 7, 2010. Total Vacancies—559. Educational Qualifications— Bachelor’s degree and B.Ed. or equivalent Degree from a recognized University.
Upper Age Limit—35 years. Selection Procedure—Prelim exam will have the paper in two parts. Part I will consist of General Knowledge, General Awareness, Current Affairs, General Science and Indian Constitution Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude and Teaching Aptitude and Part II will be based on English Language and Hindi Language. Main Exam will have a Descrip-
tive Paper. After Main Exam there will be interview. How to Apply—Candidates are required to download the Application Form from KVS's website. No other Application Format will be accepted. See Employment News October 30–November 5, 2010 for more P.Darpan details.
FORTHCOMING COMPETITIVE EXAMS.
2010
M.P. PSC Assistant District Public Prosecution Officers Exam. (Nov. 14) UCO Bank Clerical Cadre Exam. (Nov. 14) FCI Assistant Grade III Recruitment Exam. (North Zone) (Nov. 14) United Bank of India Probationary Officers Exam. (Nov. 14) Narmada Malwa Gramin Bank Officers Scale-I Exam. (Nov. 14) Recruitment of Postal Assistant, Sorting Assistant in M.P. Postal Circle (Nov. 14) National Talent Search Examination/State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Selection Test 2010-11 (Nov. 21) Vanrakshakas Direct Recruitment Exam. in Rajasthan Forest Department (Nov. 21) SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10 + 2) Exam., 2010 for Recruitment of Data Entry Operator and Lower Division Clerks (Nov. 27-28) M.P. School Education Department, Principal Higher Secondary School Recruitment Exam. (Nov. 28) United Bank of India Clerical Cadre Recruitment Exam. (Nov. 28) FCI Assistant Grade III Recruitment Exam. (South Zone) (Nov. 28) Punjab National Bank Management Trainees Exam. (Nov. 28) U.P. Combined State/Upper Subordinate Service (Mains) Exam., 2009 (Nov. 29–Dec. 14) Assistant Manager Grade ‘A’ Recruitment Exam. in ‘SEBI’. (Dec. 5) Federal Bank Clerks and Probationary Officers Recruitment Exam. (Dec. 5) Union Bank of India Customer Relation Executive Recruitment Exam. (Dec. 5) SSC Junior Translator/Junior Hindi Translator Exam., 2010 (Dec. 5) Special Examination for Recruitment of SIs and ASIs in CPOs, 2010 (Dec.12) Hadoti Kshetriya Gramin Bank, Kota Clerk-cumCashiers Exam. (Dec.12) Vijya Bank Specialist/Generalist Officers Recruitment Exam. (Dec. 12) CSIR-UGC Test for JRF and Eligibility for Lectureship (Dec. 2010) (Dec. 19) Hadoti Kshetriya Gramin Bank, Kota Officer (Scale-I) Exam. (Dec. 19) FCI Assistant Grade III Recruitment Exam. (West Zone) (Dec. 19) Rashtriya Military School Common Entrance Test (Class VI) (Dec. 19) Bank of Maharashtra Probationary Officers Exam. (Dec. 19) UPSC Special Class Railway Apprentices Exam., 2010 (Dec. 19) Oriental Bank of Commerce Probationary Officers Exam. (Dec. 26) (Online Closing Date : 10 Nov., 2010) UGC National Eligibility Test (NET) Dec. 2010. (Dec. 26) U.P. Combined Lower Subordinate Service Special Selection (Pre.) Exam., 2008 (Dec. 26)
2011
Indian Bank Probationary Officers Exam. (Jan. 2) (Online Closing Date : 11 Nov., 2010) S.S.C. Stenographer (Grade ‘C’ & ‘D’) Re-examination, 2010. (Jan. 9) Oriental Bank of Commerce Clerical Cadre Recruitment Exam. (Jan. 9) (Online Closing Date : 24 Nov., 2010) Punjab and Sind Bank Probationary Officers Scale-I Exam. (Jan. 16) Clerical Recruitment Exam. in State Bank of India’s Associate Banks (Jan. 16) Madhya Bharat Gramin Bank Officers Scale-I Exam. (Jan. 23) (Closing Date : 18 Nov., 2010) GATE 2011 Online Exam. (Papers : GG and TF, AE and MN) (Jan. 30) Punjab and Sind Bank Clerical Cadre Exam. (Jan. 30) Madhya Bharat Gramin Bank Office Assistants Exam. (Jan. 30) (Closing Date : 18 Nov., 2010) U.P. PCS Review Officer/Assistant Review Officer etc. General Selecion (Pre.) Exam., 2010 (Jan. 30) Reserve Bank of India Grade ‘B’ Officers Exam. (Closing Date : 15 Nov., 2010) (Feb. 6) Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Entrance Exam. (For Class VI) (Feb. 6) Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Post Graduate Teacher Preliminary Exam. (Feb. 11) (Closing Date : 30 Jan., 2011) Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan TGT & Liberarian, Primary Teacher (Pre.) Exam. (Feb. 12) (Closing Date : 30 Jan., 2011) UPSC Combined Defence Service Exam. (I), 2011 (Feb. 13) GATE 2011 Offline Exam. (Papers : AR, BT, CE, CH, CS, ME, PH and PI, AG, CY, EC, EE, IN, MA, XE, MT and XL (Feb. 13) Madhya Pradesh State Services (Pre.) Exam., 2010 (Feb. 20) (Online Closing Date : 15 Nov., 2010) Indian Air Force Airman Recruitment Test (Group ‘X’ Technical Trade) (Feb.) Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Post Graduate Teacher (Mains) Exam. (April 8) Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan TGT & Librarian, Primary Teacher (Mains) Exam. (April 9)
PD/December/2010/1019
Career Article
Civil Services Examination
Learn to Survive in New CSAT Culture
—Atul Kapoor
I am sure most of you must have heard the traditional story of ‘the elephant’ and ‘blind men’. How each one of them interpreted the different parts of elephant’s body based on their knowledge and belief ? Each one of them was convinced about their own explanations. With due regards to all, for last few months, the moment the news of winds of changes in Preliminary examination hit the surface, the ‘gyaan’ spread all throughout and before even UPSC could think about and act, the proposed Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT), and phrase ‘ethical and moral dimension of decision-making’ were like ‘Elephant’ and people all around came out with their version of what it is all about. In these moments of uncertainty, many didn’t wait for the UPSC announcement and each one of them came out with their interpretation about CSAT to gain the first mover advantage among candidates. Most of them were so much prejudiced by their conviction as if UPSC was going to fire another Salvo (in name of CSAT). Many serious candidates who were preparing for Civil Services Examination were anxious to know the changes as the information available was built around CSAT in such a way that perhaps UPSC was going to introduce ‘Rocket Science’ which will require super-special, technical knowhow and would be restrictive to some section of candidates. 2011 included the statements about the decision of Government of India to introduce change in the pattern of the Preliminary Examination. It has been made clear that no changes are being introduced at this stage in the Civil Services (Main) Examination and Personality Test in the scheme of Civil Services Examination (CSE). huge variety of unrelated and often esoteric subjects that are not relevant for the public services and were not comparable for the purpose of evaluation. Search for more intelligent tool to assess suitable people for recruitment for the coveted ‘Civil Services’ posts ended with idea of introducing aptitude test in shape of Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT). The UPSC is looking to adopt change in recruitment process to assess key features of personality which are critical to the job in question and have eye on the essential and the desirable qualities that meet the job requirement. An expert committee was set up by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) to develop the curricula for these proposed new courses. Prime Minister Mr. Manmohan Singh and the vision of UPA government along with UPSC deserves a special mention and compliments for bringing in such a big change to a sensitive examination like this in a way that it would involve ’Aam Aadmi’ and every educated and intelligent youth eligible for the examination would feel confident to appear in Civil Services Examination as misleading notions and lots of myths which surrounded this examination are more or less dispelled. Recently, while delivering the speech, UPSC Chairman touched the issues about the upcoming changes and said “UPSC has also been constantly striving to innovate and improve our systems to recruit the best talents in a fair and just manner.” Further he added “The quality of selection in the recruitment heavily depends on the way the Recruitment Rules are framed. The procedures of framing of Recruitment Rules which were archaic are thoroughly revamped so as to be in sync with the new technologies / subjects / disciplines that has emerged in various fields.”
CSAT: Straight Path to Career Development
The change is a welcome step as the Civil Services Examination particularly Preliminary Examination, now, falls in line with other one-day examinations and would certainly boost the morale of the young generation. Earlier there existed a division among aspirants for Civil Services Examination and other one-day examinations as the pattern itself created the divide. The serious candidates who had talent and potential always preferred to prepare separately for Civil Services Examination as it has different pattern and thus required different approach. Now, one who aims to be ‘Civil Servant’ would find it relatively easy to deal with other open competitive examinations like opportunities in Banking and SSC Examinations.
Wait; there is something you must know
The major reforms in the existing system of civil services examinations are result of suggestion relating to issues involving ‘recruitment in Civil Services’ as have been studied from time to time by various Committees and Commissions and most recently, by the Second Administrative Reforms Commission. These reports have highlighted the issues relating to changes in selection process that included replacing the existing regime which had allowed the proliferation of a
The Plan for CSE 2011
The pattern and frame-work of syllabus for the coming Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2011 were released by Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) on October 18, 2010. The announcement about the scheme of Civil Services Examination
PD/December/2010/1020
“For what do we live, but to make sport for our neighbours, and laugh at them in our turn ?”
“Today, UPSC is one of the few Institutions in which people still have faith”, he said.
Preliminary Examination : The Exam Comprises a World of Diversity
After 3 decades of pattern which involved 2 papers of General Studies and an optional paper, Preliminary Examination is now going to don a new look from Civil Services Examination 2011. In this radical change the incoming system will provide a level-playing field and equity, since all candidates will have to attempt common papers. Paper I is almost similar to existing General Studies paper. Some new topics have been added and General Mental Ability portion has been moved to Paper II. As per the new pattern, the Preliminary Examination shall now comprise two compulsory Papers of 200 marks each and of two hours duration each. The questions will be of multiple choices and objective type. Paper I (200 marks) Duration : Two hours ? ? ? ? Current events of national and international importance History of India and Indian National Movement Indian and World Geography-Physical, Social, Economic, Geography of India and the World. Indian Polity and Governance–Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc. Economic and Social Development–Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc. General issues on Environmental Ecology, Biodiversity and Climate Change-that do not require subject specialization General Science. Comprehension Interpersonal skills including communication skills; Logical reasoning and analytical ability Decision making and problem solving General mental ability Basic numeracy (numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude etc.) (Class X level), Data interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency etc. Class X level) English Language Comprehension skills (Class X level).
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Paper II (200 marks) Duration : Two hours
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(Last item in the Syllabus of Paper-II) will be tested through passages from English Language only without providing Hindi translation thereof in the question paper.
No more than this has been told by UPSC
Prospective Candidates need good information and clarity in order to understand and articulate development needs related to the examination. The framework of the syllabus as released by UPSC outlines the areas which you need to prepare and are broad in nature.
PD/December/2010/1021
“Better to remain silent and be thought a fool than to speak out and remove all doubt.”
However, more clarity would emerge once UPSC brings out sample questions which would give a fair idea about the examiner’s mind-set. As per UPSC announcement, a set of sample questions for both Papers would be put on the UPSC website soon. The fallacy about CSAT faded as the light on the proposed structure cleared most of the doubts and to the surprise of most of the people, the inclusion of new topics in Paper I and the pattern of Paper II is nothing typical and is general in nature.
you need study material for preparation as well as for practice which will influence your performance in the examination.
ability of the candidate. It is an instrument designed to produce a quantitative assessment of the candidate. Aptitude tests have become a regular feature in the selection procedures for Civil Services recruitment world over as these assess candidate’s skills including logical reasoning, judgement, decision making and comprehension. The tests are based on multiple choice questions and meaningful and reliable as everyone answers the papers in the same examination conditions resulting in fair evaluation. The Aptitude Tests are designed in such a way that they attempt to measure whether the candidate has the specific abilities and intellectual capabilities required for the job. Moreover, the design of the Aptitude test is such that the influence of any particular subject does not have much impact. It is to be noted by those candidates who come from rural or semi-urban areas and from vernacular languages and may have some doubts about some areas included in syllabus of Paper II. For them this explanation should act as breather to some extent.
Things just keep better, don’t they ?
getting
Adopt a Fresh Approach
Although the syllabus looks simple yet you need to read between the lines as this is no small examination. It will require a shift from very general to the highly specific, widening out the scope of interest. The framework for syllabus clearly indicates richness and complexity and would require a move in the strategy for Preliminary Examination for effective preparation. However, Paper I strengthens the point of preparing for Mains (General Studies) along with Preliminary Examination to understand topics better and to gain competitive edge. The role of magazines like Pratiyogita Darpan and books is going to be huge as now relevant and up-todate information is going to assume a greater value. Besides, for Paper II,
Civil Services Examination, the rigorous examination across the world as it is known, is moving towards more specifics to take care of the changing trends in the society as well as the economy. The changes introduced now aim to test the problem solving, analytical, logical reasoning and decisionmaking skills of the aspirants. The outgoing pattern was really effective but it had a very little stress on testing managerial skills in the examination. The government has remodelled the Civil Services Examination with an idea of making the Civil Services jobs more attractive and making it a new economy job. The new pattern is bound to attract highly talented and brilliant students with specialised skills towards Civil Services as the changes in our economy have created a need for specialists at various jobs.
Learn new skills and way of thinking
Earlier, candidates with excellent preparation in his/her subject were able to make it in Preliminary Examination despite average preparation in General Studies. Now, the rule of the game is going to change at the first stage of examination. If you look at the outgoing pattern, the candidates were focused more on the optional paper which had higher weightage (300 marks) and with a little less attention on General Studies (150 marks) with the aim to get average score which safely can take them to next level. With new changes, now, Paper I which actually is General Studies as known earlier is going to get due respect and importance it always deserved. This should play the vital role as you are aware of the examiner’s expectations and can read the trend.
Preliminary Examination : CSAT has Finally Arrived
If you ask me, in my view UPSC had adopted the soul of the changes introduced now a little earlier. Why to go back, even a glance at Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2010 would reveal that UPSC has done away with the conventional things and has moved towards analytical approach and applications. The questions on current affairs are not at all directly based on facts and figures but test your observation, grip on your information and general awareness. Even, the General Studies papers of Civil Services (Mains) Examination 2009 coagulate the belief that UPSC has moved from mugging to clear understanding of the topics.
CSAT
(Upkar’s Useful Books)
UPKAR’s CSAT-Civil Services In Preliminary Exam. (Paper-II) Press ,, CSAT Logical Reasoning and Analytical Ability 60/,, Multi-Dimensional Reasoning 265/,, Data Interpretation, Analysis & Sufficiency 65/,, Civil Services Science and Technology (By : Vimal Kumar Singh) 210/,, Quicker Objective Arithmetic 199/,, Comprehension and Precis Writing 85/,, Correct English How To Write It 195/-
“The brain with a problem is the one with the solution” a simple philosophy
Paper II is all about Aptitude that aims to test intelligence, aptitude or
Coaching Institutes : Same Game; Different Names
Coaching for Civil Services Examination has come a long way. It is not easy for anyone to guide Civil
Continued on Page 1029
PD/December/2010/1022
“Force is all-conquering, but its victories are short-lived.”
IBSA : An Emerging Forum for South-South Cooperation
—Arunoday Bajpai IBSA or India-Brazil-South Africa Dialogue Forum has emerged as a potential forum for relaunching a viable process of South-South cooperation. IBSA was established in 2003; initially, as a mechanism for trilateral cooperation between the three regional powers and emerging economies representing the three continents, where majority of the poor and developing countries are located. Within a span of seven years IBSA has displayed the potential to emerge as a platform for cooperation among developing countries. During the Millennium Development Goals Summit Sept. 20-22, 2010 held at the United Nations, IBSA was awarded the 2010 United Nations Millennium Development Goals Award for South-South Cooperation. This is the international recognition of its role as a forum of South-South Cooperation. The significance of IBSA is also highlighted due to a number of regional and strategic factors. First, the three member states of IBSA namely India, Brazil and South Africa are regional, middle ranking powers in their respective regions like India in South Asia, Brazil in Latin America and South Africa in Southern Africa even entire Africa. Secondly, these three member states are emerging economies with a viable infrastructural and technological base. This viability enables these countries to initiate and manage various projects and programmes of development in poor countries without external assistance. Thirdly, due to their size, strategic location and level of technological and economic development, the three member states are also part of G-5 outreach countries which hold annual consultation with G–8 group of rich countries. Mexico and China are other two members of G–5 out-reach group. Besides, these three countries are also important members of G–20 group of countries, which is destined to play an important role in the management of global economic architecture and other global issues. Observers predict that sooner or later, the G–20 is going to replace the G–8 group of rich countries. As larger developing countries, the members of IBSA occupy a middle ground between the developed and developing poor countries. This enables them to articulate and coordinate the view-points of poor countries on various global issues such as climate change, financial reforms or trade negotiations at the forums dominated by rich countries. The fourth factor of IBSA's potential emerges from the complementaries between the three members. For example,
if Brazil has advanced technology in the field of ethanol and bio-fuels, South Africa is ahead in mining and coal liquification technologies and India has gained ground in the field of Software small and medium enterprises and wind energy. These complementaries can be exploited for the mutually beneficial trilateral cooperation among the three members of IBSA.
South-South Cooperation
South-South cooperation has been a pet ideal of developing third world countries since 1970s. The establishment of NAM (Non-Aligned Movement) in 1961 and UNCTAD in 1964 emphasised the need for mutual cooperation among developing countries. It should be noted that since majority of developing and poor countries are located in the Southern hemisphere of the globe, the mutual cooperation among them is known as South-South Cooperation. On the other hand as all rich countries are located in the Northern hemisphere, the cooperation and dialogue between the developed and developing countries is known as North-South Dialogue.
Price : Rs. 475/-
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“He can compress the most words into the smallest ideas of any man I ever met.”
As developing countries have been largely the producers and exporters of primary commodities and raw material, the terms of international trade have been against these countries. UNCTAD helped these countries in the field of trade promotion and policy. Also, initially the scope for mutual cooperation among developing countries was limited to exchange of primary commodities with few exceptions. The Non-alignment raised the voice of South and demanded the establishment of the New International Economic Order (NIEO) which was passed by the UN General Assembly in 1974. The NIEO was intended to promote the emergence of a global financial and economic order which was t o be fair, equitable and inclusive. But due to the protectionist and intransigent approach of the rich countries, the idea of NIEO could not be given practical shape. However, the NAM, as a result of failure of NEIO, initiated some concrete majors to promote South-South cooperation, which was intended to achieve the goal of
self-reliant growth in developing countries. In its 1989 Summit NAM decided to establish South Commission to promote the cooperation among developing countries. The South Commission was established in 1990 with Dr. Manmohan Singh as its first Secretary-General, but it could not achieve the desired success. In 1990s, the onslaught of globalisation has adversely affected the trade, investment and economic development of poor countries. In fact, majority of the poor African countries have been marginalised in the process of globalisation. Also, the NAM became less significant in economic spheres as its leaders looked to the west in their own interest and survival. Thus, in the post-cold war era, the idea of South-South cooperation became redundant. It is in this moment of history that the initiative of IBSA by large developing countries is poised to play a historical role in South-South cooperation. The developing countries of 1990s are not the same as the developing countries of 1970s. Now many of them, particularly the members of
IBSA : Some Important Facts
Origin
IBSA emerged on June 6, 2003 when the foreign ministers of India, Brazil and South Africa signed ‘Brasilia Declaration’, which, among other things, expressed desire for closer cooperation among three countries on regular basis on various bilateral, regional and global issues. It also incorporated common perspective of developing countries on some pressing issues such as opposing trade protectionist policies of rich countries, demanding the restructuring of UN Security Council or making the process of globalisation more inclusive and humane. Organisational Structure : The organisational structure of IBSA consists of three organs. First the Summit meeting which is held on annual basis and is attended by the Presidents or Prime Ministers of three member states. Summit is the highest decisionmaking body of IBSA, which deliberates upon the common policies and approach of the organisation. So far following four Summit meetings of IBSA have been held : S. N. First Second Third Fourth Place Brasilla (Brazil) Tshwane (S. Africa) New Delhi Brasilia (Brazil) Time/Year 2006 2007 Oct. 2008 April 2010 The second important organ of IBSA is trilateral commission in which the foreign ministers of member countries are represented. It also holds its meeting on annual basis. The major responsibility of trilateral commission is to monitor the implementation of joints projects of cooperation and development as decided in the Summit till date, 6 meetings of trilateral commission have been held. The commission also holds its preparatory meeting before the Summit meetings.
The third, structural mechanism is known as ‘Focul Point’ which consists of the senior officials of the member states. It is responsible for making proposals of various programmes and schemes of cooperation for mutual cooperation among the member countries. The focul point also coordinates the implementation of these programmes and schemes.
Objectives
IBSA does not have a Charter and has not laid down its objective as such. However, by going through the various issues and approaches raised by it in various declarations, the following objectives of IBSA may be identified : (A) The primary objective of IBSA appears to be to promote economic cooperation among three countries and facilitate trade and investment in the three regions— Asia, Africa and Latin America. (B) It also strives for promoting cooperation among developing countries popularly known as South-South cooperation. (C) IBSA articulates, coordinates and presents the collective viewpoints of developing countries on various global issues at different international forums. (D) It aims to achieve the target of inclusive and humane social and economic development and to strive for the removal of hunger and poverty in member states as well as developing countries.
Areas of Cooperation
IBSA has identified certain areas of cooperation among member states as well as the nodal countries to initiate and facilitate such Cooperation. So far 16 sectoral areas of cooperation have been identified. These are : Agriculture, Climate Change and environment, culture, defence, education, energy, health, human settlement, information technology public administration, science and technology, social development, tourism, transport and trade and investment. In order to give concrete shape to the programmes of cooperation, 16 working groups have been set—one for each area of cooperation. Also, on the basis of level of expertise gained by member states, each one has been designated as lead country in certain areas to coordinate and initiate schemes for mutual cooperation. For example, in energy sector, Brazil has been declared lead country in ethanol and bio-fuels, South Africa as lead country in coal liquification and India as a lead country in the field of solar and wind energy. Similarly, in the field of science and technology, India has been designated lead country in subfields in nano-technology and HIV/AIDS, South Africa in biotechnology and T.B. and Brazil in the field of oceanography and Malaria. India has also been declared as lead country in the field of education. Again, many tripartite memorandums of understanding (MoU) have been signed to advance the cooperative efforts.
PD/December/2010/1024
“I will prepare and some day my chance will come.”
IBSA have much diversified economic and technological base. The three countries of IBSA are placed in better condition to represent the voice of South to the rich countries' forums and negotiate a better term of deals. Accordingly, IBSA has initiated many measures to promote South-South Cooperation. In 2003 itself, IBSA launched the IBSA Fund Facility for Alleviation of Poverty and Hunger. With the help of this facility, a number of development programmes have been launched in developing countries like Burundi, Cape Verde, Guinea Bissau, Haiti, Laos and Palestine. These development programmes are likely to bring developing countries in the ambit of IBSA initiated South-South cooperation. Besides, IBSA has proposed trilateral trade agreements among regional blocks of developing countries. In 2009 April and June respectively, the preferential Trade Agreements (PTA) between SACU (Southern African Customs Union) and MERCOSUR and India and MERCOSUR were signed. MERCOSUR is a trade block of Latin America, which was created in 1991 with the membership of Argentina, Brazil, Uruguay and Paraguay by the treaty of Asuncion. At present, the trade negotiations are at advanced stage for agreement between India and Southern Africa Custom Union (SACU). The SACU is the Custom Union of Botswana, Lesotho, Swaziland, Namibia and South Africa. This agreement will further expand the scope of trade cooperation among the developing countries. It should be noted that the present phase of South-South cooperation as envisaged by IBSA is distinct from earlier such phase of 1980s and 1970s because it is more pragmatic and realistic in the present era of globalisation.
tries. They also hoped the early conclusion of Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA) between India and Southern African Custom Union. 5. Leaders also welcomed the signs of recovery of global financial crisis. They hoped that the measures of financial recovery would also reflect the concerns of developing countries. They also demanded the expansion of finances of multilateral development Banks in the interest of developing countries. 6. On Climate Change, the declaration reflected the concerns of developing countries as articulated in the Copenhagen conference organised in Dec. 2009. The leaders again emphasised that the climate change negotiations should be completed on the basis of the principle of ‘Common but differentiated responsibility’. These negotiations should be inclusive and transparent and rich countries should bear the historic responsibility in the mitigation of climate change crisis. 7. On political issues the IBSA declaration expressed concern over the progress on the front of nuclear disarmament. It demanded a comprehensive, impartial and verifiable process of abolition of nuclear weapons. They condemned terrorism in all its manifestations and termed it as the gravest danger to the international peace and security. They demanded the early conclusion of the comprehensive UN convention on terrorism and resolved to cooperate to fight this menace.
Brasilia Declaration : April 15, 2010
The fourth IBSA Summit was held at Brasilia on April 15, 2010 and the declaration signed by top leaders of India, Brazil and South Africa reflect the scope and breadth of activities and approach covered by this organisation. The major highlights of the 45 points Declaration are given below : 1. On global issues, leaders reiterated their demand for the UN Security Council to make it more representative to the needs of developing countries. This mainly includes the expansion of membership of the Security Council in both permanent and non-permanent category. Similarly, IBSA declaration demanded the democratic reform of Bretton Woods institutions like World Bank and International Monetary Fund (IMF). 2. The declaration resolved to achieve the goal of inclusive Socio-economic development under globalisation in the interests of poor people and poor countries. 3. Leaders welcomed the formation of Human Rights Council for the better enforcement of human rights at global level. They also demanded the abolition of all forms of descrimination against women and emphasised on the goal of comprehensive process of women empowerment. 4. On international trade negotiations, IBSA demanded early conclusion of Doha round of trade negotiation with focus on development. They resolved against the protectionist policies followed by the rich coun-
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“If I were two-faced, would I be wearing this one ?”
8. IBSA recognised South-South cooperation as an essential and specific mechanism for development. They further resolved to deepen the process of SouthSouth cooperation in technological and economic fields. They viewed South-South cooperation as a partnership for development among participating countries based on the principles of equality and respect for the Sovereignty of the nations. The three leaders reiterated their commitment to collectively contribute at least one million U.S. dollars per annum to the IBSA Fund Facility for the Alleviation of poverty. 9. The leaders also passed resolutions on certain regional issues like Afghanistan, Haiti Ginea Bissau etc. 10. IBSA declaration also called for expediting the process of cooperation among three countries on various areas such as education, agriculture, culture, health, energy etc. They also reiterated their resolve to encourage the interaction among three countries through various non-official channels. 11. It was decided that the 7th meeting of trilateral commission shall be held in Delhi at the end of 2010 and the 5th Summit of IBSA shall be held in South Africa in 2011. The perusal of above points proves that IBSA has emerged gradually as a voice of South at global level and it has the potential to act as a forum for South-South Cooperation.
Thirdly, the magnitude of global problems such as poverty, hunger or ill health has assumed such magnitude and complexity that it cannot be solved without the global efforts. In brief, in this era of globalisation, the national problems have also assumed global dimensions. For examples, observers feel that the ongoing global financial crisis is likely to have more negative impacts on poor people and their livelihood.
What are Millennium Development Goals or MDGs ?
The Millennium Development Goals or MDGs were determined by the world leaders in 2000 at the Millennium UN Summit organised by the UN General Assembly. The Heads of States/Government of 147 countries participated in this millennium Summit. The Summit produced Millennium Declaration which was signed by the representatives of 189 countries. The Millennium Development Goals are the part of this Declaration. There are eight Millennium Development Goals with 21 targets and 60 indicators to assess their progress. These goals were to be achieved within a period of 15 years. In brief, these goals cover major issues involved in the socioeconomic development of poor countries or poor people of the world. The eight millennium development goals and their targets are given below : Goal 1 : Eradicating Extreme Poverty and Hunger— This goal includes three targets : (a) The proportion of people in the globe shall be less than half, those who live on the daily income of less than one U.S. dollar. (b) Achieving decent employment for women, men and young people. (c) The proportion of people who suffer from hunger should be less than half by the year 2015. Goal 2 : Achieving Universal Primary Education— The target is that by the year 2015, all children both girls and boys should complete a full course of primary schooling. Goal 3 : Promoting Gender Equality and Empowerment of Women—The target is to eliminate gender disparity in primary and secondary education preferably by the year 2005 and at all levels by the year 2015. This also includes ensuring the seats held by women in National Parliaments of different countries. Goal 4 : Reducing Child Mortality Rate—The target is to reduce child mortality (under five years of age) rate by two-third between 1990 and 2015. Goal 5 : Improving Maternal Health—The target in this goal is to reduce the maternal mortality ratio by threefourth between 1990 and 2015. The second target in this category is to ensure universal access to reproductive health by the year 2015. Goal 6 : Combating HIV/ AIDS, Malaria, and other Diseases—The first target under this goal is to reverse the spread of HIV/AIDS and halting their spread by the year 2015. The second target is to ensure universal access to treatment for AIDS/HIV by the year 2010 for all those who need it. The third target under this goal is to reverse the incidence of malaria and other major diseases and halting their incidence by the year 2015.
MDG Review Summit 2010 : Hope and Despair
The second Millennium Development Goals Summit was held at UN General Assembly on Sept. 20-22, 2010, which was marked by rhetoric of hope and optimism amidst pessimistic realities. The Summit was attended by 140 heads of states or governments. India was represented by her External Affairs Ministers Shri S. M. Krishna. The obvious purpose of the Summit was to take the stock of the success and failures in the achievement of eight Millennium Development Goals, which were outlined by the UN General Assembly ten years back in 2000. This Review Summit was the second such exercise as the first summit was held in 2005. The Millennium Development Goals are the most ambitious programme of the United Nations since its establishment in 1945. These goals aim at the comprehensive targets of socio-economic development at global level, particularly in poor developing countries of Asia and Africa. Gradually, it has been realised by the global policy makers that in a large part of the world population suffers from hunger, poverty, poor health or socioeconomic degradation, it poses grave threat to the global peace and security. Secondly, the ongoing process of globalisation has resulted in the marginalisation of large chunk of poor people in developing countries. If this marginalisation continues, the objective of sustained global socio-economic development could not be realised.
PD/December/2010/1026
“If this is coffee, please bring me some tea; but if this is tea, please bring me some coffee.”
Goal 7 : Ensuring Environmental Sustainability— This goal has four targets. The first, is reversing the loss of environmental resources and integrating the principles of sustainable development into the national policies and programmes. The second target is to reduce the proportion of people by less than half by the year 2015, who do not have sustainable access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation facilities. The third target is to make significant reduction in the biodiversity loss by the year 2010. The fourth target is to achieve a significant achievement in the lives of at least 100 million slum dwellers by the year 2020. Goal 8 : Developing a Global Partnership for Development—The first target under this goal is to develop further an open, rule based, predictable, non-discriminatory trading and financial system. The second target is to address the special needs of the least Developed countries. The third target is to address the special needs of the land locked developing countries and small island developing countries. The fourth target is to deal comprehensively with the debt problems of developing countries through national and international measures in order to make their debt sustainable in the long term. The fifth target is to provide access to affordable essential drugs in developing countries with the help of pharmaceutical companies. The 6th target is to make available to developing countries the benefits of new technologies especially the information and communication technologies with the cooperation of private sector. A careful perusal of these goals indicates that the first seven goals are the measures of socio-economic development of poor people and the 8th goal is the major instrument to achieve the above objectives.
estimated that by the year 2015, 12 lakh children will suffer child mortality in addition to earlier figures. Additionally, by the year more than 3·5 lakh children would not get access to primary education and 10 crore additional people would not get safe drinking water. The food crisis of 2008 is not over and it may require to double efforts to eliminate this crisis. It is now well recognised that additional 40 to 70 billion dollars shall be needed to achieve the MDGs by the year 2015. The mobilisation of these resources depends upon the commitment of extra resources by developed countries as official Development Assistance. In 1970, the United Nations determined that the developed countries would transfer 0·7 per cent of their GDP as official Development Assistance to developing countries. But that has not actually happened. At the first Review Summit 2005 and G–8 Summit at Gleneagles in 2005 the rich countries agreed to increase their ODA by $ 50 billion at 2004 prices and to double their aid to Africa by the year 2010. However, the donor countries could not advance additional financial assistance and their ODA amounted just $ 119 billion in 2009 which was 0·31% of their GDP. This is less than half of the UN target of 0·7 per cent. In the current terms, the ODA has actually fallen by more than 2 per cent over previous years. If we leave aside Scandinavian countries, all developed countries failed to meet their Official Development Assistance (ODA) targets. Besides the lack of financial resources, there are other factors also responsible for poor progress of MDGs in
Assessment of Progress
The progress in the achievement has been uneven. Some countries and regions achieved considerable progress, while others lagged behind. It is estimated that China has been successful in reducing the number of people below poverty line from 452 million to 278 million in the first 10 years’ period. India has achieved some success in percentage term in poverty reduction due to economic development. On the other hand, the countries of Sub-Saharan have not been able to reduce poverty and face the risk of not achieving the target by the year 2015. According to the estimates of the World Bank, the rate of poverty was 52% in 1981, which came down to 25% in 2005 and 18% in 2009. For the Bank, the major factor in increasing the number of poor people is the lack of success in poverty reduction in African countries. With increasing population and due to ongoing global financial crisis, the efforts for poverty reduction have faced setback. Consequently by the year 2010 the absolute number of poor people in the globe has increased. According to a World Bank study, nearly 6·4 crore more people have come under poverty line by the year 2010. The per day income of these people is less than one dollar. It is
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“If you would win a man to your cause, first convince him that you are his sincere friend.”
developing countries. These are curruption in administrative inefficiency, lack of effective monitoring and lack of political will. Besides the lack of progress in poverty and hunger reduction other MDGs are also not likely to be achieved by the year 2015. For example, 25% of children below the age of five years are underweight, mainly due to lack of
The Millennium Development Goals Report 2010
As a backgrounder of the MDG Review Summit, the UN has released Millennium Development Goals Report-2010, which recognises that the progress in achieving MDGs has been uneven. It claims that without a major push forward, many of the MDGs targets are likely to be missed in most regions of the world. Old and new challenges threaten to further slow progress in some areas or even undo successes achieved so far. The major highlights of this report are : 1. The report is optimistic about meeting the poverty reduction targets. Though an estimated 1.4 billion people were living below the poverty line in 2005, by the year 2015 this number is likely to be 920 million which is 15% of the total population and half the percentage of poor people in 1990. 2. Due to improvement in health facilities, child deaths have reduced from 12·5 million in 1990 to 8·8 million in 2008. 3. The progress in the field of fight against HIV/AIDS and malaria and universal primary education appears to be satisfactory. 4. Though the rate of deforestation is still high, it has slowed down in comparison to previous years due to the success of tree planting schemes. 5. Increased use of safe drinking water has reduced the gap between rural and urban areas as the 94% people are covered under the schemes of safe drinking water. 6. The mobile telephony continues to expand as 52% people have become subscribers to mobiles by the end of the year 2009. The climate change would have major impact on vulnerable sections of society. Arms conflict and natural disasters continue to increase the population of refugees as in 2009, 42 million people have been displaced, fourfifth of them are from developing countries. The progress has been slow and tardy in the field of gender equality and women empowerment in all fronts from access to schooling to political decision-making.
quality food, inadequate water, sanitation and health services and poor care and feeding practices. Gender equality and women empowerment, which are essential for reducing poverty and hunger, have made poor progress; with inadequate opportunities for schooling of girls and poor access of women to political authority. Even, in India, the women reservation Bill has become controversial and is not likely to be passed by Parliament in near future due to lack of political consensus.
MDGs Review Summit : The Outcome Document
At the end of the Review Summit (Sept. 20-22, 2010) the 65 the session of United Nations General Assembly adopted the 32 page outcome Document which expresses the commitment of world community to achieve these goals by the year 2015; makes assessment of progress of realisation of MDGs; outlines the Action Agenda with respect to each goal to achieve the success within the given time limit. The main highlights of the outcome documents are given below : 1. The outcome document emphasise on the commitment of the world leaders to achieve these goals. “We are committed to making every effort to achieve the MDGs by 2015, including through actions, policies and strategies defined in the document in support of the developing countries…we are convinced that the Millennium Development Goals can be achieved, including in the poorest countries, with renewed commitment, effective implementation and intensified collective actions by all member states and other stakeholders at both the domestic and international levels.” The outcome document describes that the MDGs have achieved uneven progress with respect to different goals and different regions of the world. It also lists the challenges faced by these goals in future. According to this document, successe have been made in combating extreme poverty, improving school enrolment and child health, reducing child deaths, expanding access to clean water, expanding access to HIV/AIDS prevention treatment and care and controlling malaria and other diseases. However, the document notes that the progress has been uneven among regions and between and within countries. There has been a slow progress in reaching full and productive employment and decent work for all, advancing gender equality and empowerment of women, achieving environmental sustainability and providing basic sanitation etc. 3. The outcome document also proposes an Action Agenda to achieve the MDGs by the year 2015.
2.
7.
8.
The report is sensitive to the gaps in the achievement of progress between the rich and the poor people as well as regions of the world. This disparity is also visible in terms of rural and urban areas. For example, while 77 per cent of the population in 20% of the richest households use improved sanitation facilities, the share is merely 16 per cent with respect to poorest households. Similarly in South Asia, 60 per cent of children in the poorest areas are underweight compared to 25% of children in richest households. In developing countries, the girls in the poorest 20% of households are 3·5 times more likely to be out of school than the richest households. The reports calls for devising suitable measure so bridge the gap between the rich and the poor to achieve the Millennium Development Goals.
9.
The major points suggested in the Action Agenda are promoting and strengthening national ownership and leadership of development as key determinants of progress; devising the rules based regime of international economic order based on recognition of interdependence
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“It has been my experience that folks who have no vices have very few virtues.”
of nations; mobilisation of extra financial resources and their effective utilisation as a central point of global partnership of development, fulfilling the financial commitment by rich countries, modernisation of international financial institutions, improving the policy coherence for development at all levels; developing trade as an engine of growth and development, promoting sustained, inclusive and equitable growth, fighting corruption at both national and international level, making regional efforts including South-South cooperation to achieve MDGs, effective deployment of UN funds and specialised agencies and working with all stakeholders including private sector in strengthening partnership to achieve these goals. The Action Agenda also suggests measures with respect to each specific goals. Whatever may be the progress of MDGs so far, it is no mean achievement that the global community led by the United Nations is vitally concerned with the socioeconomic development of poor countries of the world. This assumes special significance in view of the negative impacts of the globalisation in the poor regions of the world. The very declaration of the Millennium Development Goals by the world body and the concerns to achieve them have serious implications for the global P.Darpan socio-economic development.
Sensing an opportunity, many Civil Services coaching institutes have introduced the CSAT Courses. But, it is very difficult for single man to do justice with the areas Preliminary Examination syllabus covers. For special needs you require specialist who can bring in important insights.
Understand, and Face it Effectively
The scene is clear now and you need to do something to figure out your requirements relating to new pattern of Preliminary Examination. It is time to get ready to absorb the information and make good decisions. It is time for action ; get organized and move towards your dreams and objectives. My effort has always been to make a minor contribution to breaking the shackles of apprehensions that surround this examination. If you have some specific queries, doubts relating to this examination, you can always reach me at [email protected] In the next issue, we will come up with detailed analysis of areas under Paper I and Paper II and how you can prepare these effectively. The non-serious seems to have all the time in the world and can wait for step-by-step announcements for commencing preparation. If you aim to appear in Civil Services Examination 2011, it is time to work out systematic plan covering the complete scheme of the examination as for some serious aspirant time appears to be perpetually running out.
P.Darpan
Continued from Page 1022
Services candidates as this examination is getting creative as well as innovative. Only those who have rich experience and insights about the Civil Services Examination can track the trends and spot the evolving requirements of the candidates. Howsoever concerned the UPSC or government may be about the role of coaching institutes, the fact that the changes occurred in past few years have really unnerved many a serious candidates. More so, now, with CSAT in place, those who were preparing for quite some time suddenly are faced with new challenges which put them at par with fresh candidate. This is an unending tussle and UPSC would continue to bring in rapid changes to the Civil Services Examination to cater to evolving needs and the institutes would keep on adjusting and working out the solutions to these modifications from time to time. Coaching is known to be all about raising the level of candidate’s show in examination and focussed on preparation that helps candidate to perform to the best of their ability. If you need support, be sure to find the right coaching institute as your decision would certainly decide your chances of success in Preliminary Examination.
New Edition
(Including Previous Years’ Solved Papers)
By : Dr. Lal & Jain Code No. 444 Rs. 135/-
Main Features
? Previous Years’ Solved Papers ? General Awareness ? English Language ? General Intelligence and General Aptitude ? Numerical Aptitude
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Great Opportunity for New Entrants : Party for some; Pain for others
The present scenario is again a boon for many as introduction of Paper II is sure to bring in many new players who were operational in an arena of one-day examinations where aptitude tests are an integral part of the syllabus.
UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2
? E-mail : [email protected] ? Website : www.upkar.in
PD/December/2010/1029
“Most folks are about as happy as they make up their minds to be.”
Personality Development
Communication is to Personality What Light is to Beauty
—Sanjay Dosaj
Listening
Listening skills—According to Allan and Barbara Pease ‘The ability to read a person’s attitudes and thoughts by their behaviour was the original communication system used by humans before spoken language evolved’. Thus we see that receiving information was the primitive communication system. The importance of listening can thus very easily be understood. God has given us two ears to listen while only one mouth to speak. Clearly with an intention, that we should speak less and listen more. There are distinct advantages of speaking less and listening more. Firstly, if we speak less we will have more time to think and fewer words to select in the same time. Thus, there will be fewer chances of mistake and also we can prepare better language to convey the message. Hence there are better chances of achieving the purpose of communication, less energy consumed and better result achieved. Listening is one of the most difficult arts of communication process, most of us are not ready to accept that we do not listen, or at least do not listen to the extent that we actually should. Most of the times when we feel that we are listening, we are only hearing. There is a huge difference between hearing and listening. Hearing is with senses, listening is with the mind—While on the move on the road or elsewhere, or doing some other important work, we may hear something but very little of what we hear in this way is retained and is washed off our memory in a short time, because we have not made a conscious attempt to store it for a longer time. Thus we see that hearing may be sub-conscious. On the contrary, listening is always conscious, we have to make a conscious attempt to listen. We have to
concentrate on the speaker, our mind simultaneously works to analyse the data as we continue to listen. Listening is a means of interpersonal oral exchange and is an active process of eliciting information, ideas, attitudes and emotions. Fallacies about listening—There are many fallacies attached to listening, we usually carry a good image about ourselves and do not readily accept our mistakes, hence we carry an attitude that ‘I do not have listening problem’. Listening is not my problem—I always pay attention to what is being talked about and if I have not been able to perceive something, it is the fault of the speaker who was not able to convey it clear enough. Listening and hearing are the same—We often consider listening and hearing to be the same thing and hence while somebody is talking, our mind tends to be drifting to something else. We continue to hear but the mind stops working on the received data, the retention is less and for a shorter duration, we are not able to perceive enough of the data and the communication is failed. Good readers are good listeners—Good readers may not necessarily be good listeners. There is no relation between being a good reader and a good listener. While reading, your absolutely different senses are at work i.e., eyes, on the other hand while listening, your ears are at work. The brain however is utilized during both but the data is processed in different centres of the brain. Smarter people are better listeners—Smarter people may be more effectively able to conceal their weakness of not listening, but it is not necessary that they are better listeners. Better listening requires proper training of the mind which is entirely different from being smart.
Listening improves with age— This again is a myth, the brain needs to be trained continuously for good listening otherwise the quality may deteriorate. Learning not to listen—When we have a different opinion or we are not convinced with the speaker, we tend not to listen to his point. Thinking about what we are going to say rather than listening to the speaker—This is one important reason why people tend not to listen to the speaker. Talking when we should be listening—In case when we are not convinced with the speaker, we tend to interrupt and present our logics to not being so, this interferes with listening process. Hearing what we expect to hear rather than what is being actually said—Presuming what the speaker is going to say is another reason why people tend to get distracted and fail to listen. Not paying attention—There may be innumerable reasons for not paying attention like disinterest, not being convinced etc. Preoccupation—Thinking something else, while the other person is talking. Prejudice—Due to some prejudice, we decide consciously or subconsciously not to listen to what is being said. Barriers to active listening— Besides the above there may be several barriers to effective listening. Environmental barriers—Extra noise in the vicinity will hamper the hearing and hence the perception of the message. Physiological barriers—If the person listening has some physiological problems like he is hard of hearing, premature or under developed to understand the message.
Continued on Page 1038
PD/December/2010/1030
“Nearly all men can stand adversity, but if you want to test a man’s character, give him power.”
?????????????????? Inspiring Youth ????????????????????
“Intelligent hardwork, perseverance and 100% faith in myself are the secrets of my success.”
—Ashique Karattil Toppers—Indian Economic Service Exam., 2009 (3rd Rank)
‘Pratiyogita Darpan’ arranged an exclusive interview with Ashique Karattil who has been selected in Indian Economic Services 2009 and has achieved 3rd rank. He deserves all admiration and our heartiest congratulations on his splendid success. This important, thought provoking and highly inspiring interview is being presented here in its original form.
PD—Achieving top slot in the IES Examination is no small feat : accept our heartiest congratulation on your splendid success. Ashique—Thank you very much for your wishes. PD—Can you recall the exact moment when you realized the importance of IES ? Ashique—I was aware of the importance of Indian Economic Service during the period of my post graduation. But I thought that only those candidates having excellent academic background could succeed in such exams. PD—Finally, at what point of time did you make up your mind to make career in IES. Ashique—I was an underachiever in my academic life (Had only minimum pass marks for most of the exams). Since I didn’t get admission in any college, I did my B.A. and M.A. through private study. I couldn’t even apply for many competitive exams because of requirement of minimum marks for qualifying exams. It was out of these tough and desperate situation that I made up my mind to make a career in IES. PD—You must have read IAS Toppers’ interviews in newspapers/ magazines : what inspired you the most ? Any particular success story which your journey to this result ? Ashique—Many of civil service topper interviews have vicariously motivated my mind. I appreciate you for providing such inspiring success stories for the aspirants. PD—Was IES a planned decision or your parent’s wish ? Did you keep in mind some time frame, for the examination preparation and number of attempts ? “Pratiyogita Darpan is one of the best magazines in the country that focusses on competitive examination. The contents are reliable, upto date and presented in attractive style PD helped me a lot in my preparation. PD Extra Issue on Indian Economy is perhaps the best of PD family. PD Year Book is also very good covering all important national and international events in an attractive manner.”
—Ashique Karattil
Ashique—It was a planned decision of mine backed by my wife. Though my parents were oblivious of civil service and its importance, I had their blessings. PD—Were you confident of your success in this examination and how did you react to the news of your success ? Ashique—Yes, I had 100 per cent confidence in my potential and believed that hardwork will be paid off. When I knew that I got 3rd rank, I was elated. PD—In how many attempts have you achieved this success ? How do you visualize your preparation/previous attempts ? Ashique—I succeeded in my first attempt. PD—While the changing economic environment offers immense lucrative career opportunities in various sectors, still what kept you motivated towards IES ? Ashique—For a candidate like me, not having a good academic profile, there was hardly any lucrative career opportunities. My desire to participate in policy making of the country also motivated me. PD—In your opinion at which Educational Level should one start preparing for IES and what should be the minimum period of time required to prepare for IES ? Ashique—After post graduation in economics, one can aspire for IES, I think a dedicated and consistent preparation of one year is good enough. PD—What is the importance of medium of examination for exams like CSE ? Ashique—Indian Economic Service Exam is conducted in English medium only. PD—Does the educational, financial and demographic status of the family of an aspirant have any impact on the preparation ? Ashique—Yes, To some extent we are the victims of our environment. However, if we are determined we can be the architect of our fortune. PD—In your opinion what role do the Competition Magazines play when you are preparing for an examination like IES ? Ashique—Standard textbooks, magazines and newspapers were the guide in my journey towards success. Good competition magazines are better source of reliable information encapsulated in an attractive manner. It saves a lot of time and energy.
PD/December/2010/1031/5
“I do not want people to be agreeable, as it saves me the trouble of liking them.”
Bio-Data
Name—Ashique Karattil Father’s Name—Hamza K Mother’s Name—Fathima N Wife’s Name—Shafeekha Son—Ryan Age—30 years Educational Qualifications— 10th—46% (1995), Kerala Board GBHSS, Tirur Pre-Degree—45% (1997) Calicut University, TMG College, Tirur B.A. (Eco.)—51% (2001) Calicut University, Private Registration M.A. (Eco.)—55% (2003) Kerala University, Private Registration B.Ed.—61% (2006) Calicut University, MCTE Kuttayi, Tirur M.Ed.—65% (2008) Calicut University, DAMTEC, Chelembra NET in Education and Economics.
Ashique—Intelligent hardwork, Perseverance and 100 per cent faith in myself are the secret of my success. PD—To whom would you like to give the credit for your successes ? Ashique—To my parents, wife, brother, sisters-in-law and parents inlaw. I want to thank PM institute of Civil Service Exam, Farook College Calicut and its principal Prof. Kuttialikutty and other faculties who helped me a lot. I am also grateful to assistant Prof. Thomas Mathew and my friends Shameer, Noushad, Rashid, Chacko, Munir, Abdu and others. My success is my gift to my son Ryan.
PD—Any suggestion/advice you would like to give future aspirants. Ashique—I would like to suggest the future IES aspirants that keep faith in your potential. If you are determined to succeed, no one can stop you. Intelligent hard work will be paid off. I wish best of luck to all the aspirants.
Personal Qualities
Favourite Person—Mahatma Gandhi, Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru and Manmohan Singh. Strong Point—Determination and intra-personal intelligence Weak Point—Poor hand writing Hobbies—Playing football, Arm wrestling and watching movies.
MY STRATEGY FOR SUCCESS
FOR INTERVIEW
My experience as a teacher in a private parallel college helped me in sharpening my skill of communication. My interview was held on August 11, 2010 in the board of Vijay Singh. It went for around 30 minutes. The Chairman and board members were very cordial. During the course of interview Chairman encouraged me through his non-verbal communication. Since my hobby was football, questions were asked about World Cup Football 2010. The questions asked in the interview were related to following areas— 1. RBI autonomy and fiscal dominance of monetary policy. 2. IPL twenty-twenty; its economics and politics. 3. The impact of poverty alleviation programmes on rural economy 4. The correlation between economic and social indicators of development. 5. Euro zone Debt Crisis.
PD—According to a recent report published by a reputed survey agency, PRATIYOGITA DARPAN (Hindi) is the largest read and the only Career & Competition magazine in top four magazines in India. How do you find Pratiyogita Darpan ? Ashique—PD is one of the best magazines in the country that focusses on competitive examination. The contents are reliable, upto-date and presented in attractive style. P.D helped me a lot in my preparation. PD—Please give your comments on the PD Extra Issues Series on ‘General Studies’ and a few Optional Subject ? Ashique—PD extra issue on Indian Economy is perhaps the best of PD family. PD—Did you refer to Pratiyogita Darpan-Year Book ? What is your option about the contents, size and the time of publishing ? Ashique—I have read PD Year Book. It covers all important national and international events in an attractive manner. PD—What is the secret of your success ?
Time Management
From my past life experience, I realized that time and tide wait for none. I used to study 8 hours a day during my one year thorough preparation. P.Darpan
List of Books
Micro Economics—Pindyck & Rubinfeld, H. L. Ahuja. Macro Economics—Dorn Bush & Fisher, Mankew. International Economics— Salvatore, H. G. Mannur. Development Economics—Todaro, Thirlwall, Lekhi. Public Finance—H. L. Bhatia. Environmental Economics—Katar Singh and Shishodia. Indian Economy—Uma Kapila, Mishra & Puri. Mathematics for Economics— Mehta-Madnani.
PD/December/2010/1032
“One half of the world cannot understand the pleasures of the other.”
?????????????????? Inspiring Youth ????????????????????
“Intelligent hardwork and support of my family are the secrets of my success.”
—Anurag Chaudhary Topper—Civil Services Exam., 2009 (34th Rank)
‘Pratiyogita Darpan’ arranged an exclusive interview with Anurag Chaudhary who has been selected in Civil Services Examination 2009 and has achieved 34th rank. He deserves all admiration and our heartiest congratulations on his splendid success. This important, thought provoking and highly inspiring interview is being presented here in its original form.
PD—Achieving top slot in the CS Examination is no small feat; accept our heartiest congratulations on your splendid success. Anurag—Thank you very much for the wishes. However much of the credit goes to people around me especially my parents, my brother, other family members, teachers, friends, seniors and most importantly GOD without whose grace I could not have achieved this success. PD—Can you recall the exact moment when you realized the importance of Civil Services ? Anurag—Actually during my School, College days, while I was growing up I saw many things around me which agitated me. And I thought that I should do something about it. Civil Services gives me opportunity to bring about a positive change in the lives of many people. PD—Finally, at what point of time did you make up your mind to make career in ‘Civil Services’ ? Anurag—I started the preparation during final year of my graduation. PD—You must have read IAS Toppers’ interviews in newspapers/ magazines; What inspired you the most ? Any particular success story which influenced your journey to this result ? Anurag—This was one of the reasons why I started preparing early. I really liked the interview of Mr. S. Nagarajan (Rank 1, 2004). Later I contacted him personally. Here I would like to thank him as he helped me change my optional from Physics to Sociology and throughout the preparation he helped me with his inputs.
“Pratiyogita Darpan is a very good magazine. I have read PD Economy Extra Issue. It is very important for better understanding of economic issues. It is extremely well written and is updated regularly. Almost everyone preparing around me used to follow it for the preparation. ”
—Anurag Chaudhary
PD—Was CSE a planned decision or your parent’s wish ? Did you keep in mind some time frame, for the examination preparation and number of attempts ? Anurag—Right since my childhood my father always wanted me to be an IAS. However when I entered IIT Kanpur and met many seniors who were in the service, I decided to start preparing for it. I always wanted to clear, it in 1st attempt itself, however I made many mistakes and therefore, it took nearly 3 years and 4 attempts to clear Civil Services. Last year in CSE 2008 I was also selected and presently I am undergoing training at Income Tax academy in Nagpur. PD—The first step is the most difficult; how to prepare ? Which optionals ? What to read ? How much to read ? Many such questions come to your mind when you really get serious about Civil Services Examination ? From where did you get the right advice ? Anurag—(a) Read Topper’s Talk—I have been following this right after I thought to prepare. I knew what books they were reading, what mistakes they made. Basically you should not try to reinvent the wheel. (b) Talk to seniors—There would be someone from your town, college who has got through, try to talk to help. People are very generous and share things with you don’t hesitate to ask, it may save lot of your time. I asked help from innumerable seniors and friends. PD—Were you confident of your success in this examination and how did you react to this news of your success ? Anurag—Yes I was confident of clearing the exam. However I did not think that I would get such a good rank. It was a pleasant surprise. I was very happy to know the result. PD—In how many attempts have you achieved this success ? How do you visualize your preparation/previous attempts ? Anurag—This was my 4th attempt. In last attempt also I cleared the exam and currently I am in IRS. In the first 2 attempts I made many mistakes like not proper selection of optional etc. therefore, I was not successful in the first 2 attempts. PD—Were you preparing for other career opportunities as well while preparing for your ultimate goal i.e. Career in Civil Services ? Anurag—No this was the only exam I was preparing for with full
PD/December/2010/1033
“Silly things do cease to be silly if they are done by sensible people in an impudent way.”
dedication. However in order to have backup career I appeared in other exams as well. I got 99·7 percentile in CAT-2007 and 4th Rank in Indian Engineering Service, 2008. PD—While the changing economic environment offers immense lucrative career opportunities in various sectors, still what kept you motivated towards Civil Services ? Anurag—I believe that the Civil Services gives me opportunity to bring about a positive change in the lives of many people. Actually during my School, College days, while I was growing up I saw many things around me which agitated me. And I thought that I should do something about it. I was extremely lucky that people around me always cheered me up and motivated me. I am extremely thankful to my parents for that who asked me to concentrate on exams and do not worry about anything else.
(b) Compatibility between GS, Essay and Optionals (Geography and Sociology are very helpful in GS and essay preparation). (c) It would be better if your graduation subject and optional is one and same. It would help and reduce much effort. (In my 1st interview I got only 75 marks because I could not answer many basic questions on my graduation. Retrospectively I believe that I should have given proper attention to my Background.) PD—What were your optional subjects ? Give the basis of selecting them. Anurag—Prelims : Physics Mains : Geography & Sociology PD—Did you keep the same optional subjects in all your attempts ? Anurag—No in my 1st attempt I had Physics and Geography in Mains. Later from 2nd attempt I left Physics and took Sociology. PD—In your opinion at which Educational Level should one start preparing for Civil Services and what should be the minimum period of time required to prepare for Civil Services Examinations ? Anurag—Ideally one should utilize the graduation period to start the preparation process. One should also choose such graduation subject which apart from providing job security, would be relevant for Civil Services Preparation and Job ahead. One should prepare for at least one year ahead before planning to write the exam. PD—What is your opinion regarding the general view that science subjects have better chance to score than Humanities ? Anurag—In my case I had brushed my chances both with science and humanities. However I turned out that I did not choose my optional well. In my view both science and humanities are equally good and it should be one’s interest and availability of guidance to select the right optional. I have friends from both streams making it to the top.
Personal Qualities
Favourite Person—My Father. Strong Point—Strong Determination and Will Power. Weak Point—Impatience. Hobbies—Reading, Travelling, Meeting people and to learn from their experiences. PD—What is the importance of medium of examination for exams like CSE ? Anurag—Basically choice of medium is important to express your ideas well. Apart from this medium of exam doesn’t matter at all in this exam. PD—Does the educational, financial and demographic status of the family of an aspirant have any impact on the preparation ? Anurag—I believe that it does. If you have well-to-do family your task is simpler, you just have to study and in other cases candidate would also think about how to survive in an environment where both stay and coachings are getting expensive day by day. In my opinion one can go back to one home town after getting basic guidance. I also did find Delhi to be very expensive and I prepared from my home town only as soon as my coachings were over. PD—In your opinion what role do the Competition Magazines play when you are preparing for an examination like Civil Services ? Anurag—They play a very important role. Long before preparation I used to borrow the magazines from my cousins and seniors and used to go through topper’s column. It helped me to decide from where to prepare, how to prepare and what to study, what to leave and how to avoid mistakes that your seniors made. Later on magazines play an important role in understanding various issues, bringing various points that you missed while reading the newspapers. In fact even after getting through the exams one should read them for being in touch with current happenings. PD—According to a recent report published by reputed survey agency, PRATIYOGITA DARPAN (Hindi) is the largest read and the only Career & Competition magazine in top four
Bio-Data
Name—Anurag Chaudhary Father’s Name—Dr. Ram Karan Chaudhary Mother’s Name—Smt. Nirja Chaudhary Date of Birth—15-9-1983 Educational Qualifications— B. Tech (Civil Engg.)—20022006, IIT Kanpur, 7·5/10 (75%) 12th—(2001) U.P. Board, Mahanagar Boys’ Inter College, Lucknow (71%) 10th—(1999) U.P. Board, Mahanagar Boys’ Inter College, Lucknow (83%) Previous Selections— 1. Civil Services Exam., 2008— Indian Revenue Service (Income Tax) 2. Engg. Services Exam., 2008— 4th Rank 3. CAT 2007—99·69 percentile 4. BPCL in 2006 (as campus placement). PD—While making final choice for optional subject/s, what's important and what's not ? Share your thoughts and opinions. Anurag—(a) Your Interest in the subject (I found Geography and Sociology extremely interesting).
PD/December/2010/1034
“A large income is the best recipe for happiness I ever heard of.”
magazines in India. How do you find Pratiyogita Darpan ? Anurag—It is a very good magazine. Although I was not able to follow it regularly as I am from English medium, yet I always made it a point to book my copy when topper’s interview used to come in that issue. PD—Please give your comments on the PD Extra Issues Series on 'General Studies' and a few Optional Subjects? Anurag—I have read PD ‘Economy’. It is very important for better understanding of economic issues. It is extremely well written and is updated regularly. Almost everyone preparing around me used to follow it for the preparation. PD—Did you refer to Pratiyogita Darpan—Year Book ? What is your opinion about the contents, size and the time of publishing ? Anurag—No I haven’t gone through it. But would like to see it if I have chance. PD—What is the secret of your success? Anurag—Intelligent hardwork and support of my family. PD—What preference in services have you opted for? Anurag—IAS only. PD—To whom would you like to give the credit for your success ? Anurag—Most importantly God Almighty and my parents. Apart from them my brother Abhishek, friends esp Deepak, Nishant, Pankaj and IIT friends and my Teachers esp. Shashank Sir, Upendra Sir, Devdutt Sir, and my seniors in IIT in Delhi and some candidates like Nagarajan who throughout my preparation provided me valuable source for guidance and kept me motivated. PD—Any suggestion/advice you would like to give to the future aspirants. Anurag—1. Give everything you have for the exam. 2. Have a backup career. It would help you in lean phase. 3. Don’t run after coachings. Join them only if you feel you can’t do without them, and before joining them ask your seniors.
4. Have faith in you. Don’t be deterred by small failures. You have chosen a right career. Have confidence in your efforts, your talents,
Workhard and success would be yours. Best of Luck. Thank You very much and wishing you all the best for your future endeavours.
MY STRATEGY FOR SUCCESS
FOR PRELIMS
As I had Physics in the PT, I did not face any problem as I was a science student. However I made it a point to thoroughly read all NCERTs especially History, Geography and Biology from 6th to 12th which helped me make my knowledge base broader. Apart from that I was regular with the newspapers and magazines. I devoted equal time to both GS and my prelims optional. As for negative marking I did not face any major problem in this regard. 1st of all negative marking reduces scope of guess work so I was able to concentrate my energies on questions which I knew well and 2nd I had already had experience of appearing in negative marking exams before like IIT entrance etc. the essay before writing. Well structured essay would fetch you more marks. Try to make your essay by bringing in various examples. I chose the Health essay and I chose it because only a week before I had gone through issue of Yojana which was about the same. This topic fetched me 130 marks.
List of Books
Prelims Optional : Physics 1. 2. 3. 4. Beiser BS Agarwal (for various parts) Last 15 years question papers HC Verma (both part 1 and 2) Mains Optional I : Geography 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 1. 2. 3. 4. 6th to 12th NCERTs ALS Class Notes and Printed Material Goh Cheng Leon R. B. Bunnet Penguins’s Dictionary for Geography (Physical and Human) Khullar’s Indian Geography Mazid Hussain’s Models and theories in Geography Past 15 year questions Important places in news (from all the magazines) Orient Longmann Atlas Optional II : Sociology George Ritzer (for Thinkers) M. Haralambos 11th and 12th NCERTs India : Development and Participation (Amartya Sen and Jan Dreze) Nadeem Hasnain’s book on Indian Society IGNOU MA Notes (for topics that were not covered in the above material)
FOR MAINS
The key to mains is clear understanding of concepts. The subject should be very clear to you. The help in this regard can be taken from NCERTs in Geography and Sociology. Apart from that taking guidance from good teachers and consulting your seniors made a big difference. Once this was done, hardwork and constant practice would see me through the Mains. The Current Affairs should cover the period from January 2010 to Aug. 2010. I didn't join any Test Series. What I did was to solve last 15 years’ papers…and I continuously improved upon those answers till I was satisfied..thats all.
FOR ESSAY PAPER
Essay paper requires you to have a clear view of things around you. So if you are in touch with newspapers and magazines then it would help you. Pick the topic you are comfortable with. Then at least spend around 50 per cent of the time formulating
5. 6.
Continued on Page 1038
PD/December/2010/1035 “Everybody likes to go their own way–to choose their own time and manner of devotion.”
?????????????????? Inspiring Youth ????????????????????
“Hardwork, perseverance, belief in God are the secrets of my success.”
—Rahul Dwivedi Topper—Civil Services Exam., 2009 (40th Rank)
‘Pratiyogita Darpan’ arranged an exclusive interview with Rahul Dwivedi who has achieved 40th rank in Civil Services Exam., 2009. He deserves all our admiration and our heartiest congratulations on his splendid success. This important, thought provoking and highly inspiring interview is being presented here in its original form.
PD—Achieving top slot in the CS Examination is no small feat; accept our heartiest congratulations on your fantastic performance and splendid success. Rahul—Thank you very much. It is the blessings of my parents and the Almighty God that enabled me to reach here. PD—Can you recall the exact moment when you realized the importance of Civil Services ? Rahul—Actually thanks to my family I have always been knowing about civil services but it was when I was working in my company I saw the movie Swades when I realized the importance of public service and working for my country and its people. PD—Finally, at what point of time did you make up your mind to make career in ‘Civil Services’ ? Rahul—That I have to write this examination was always in my mind but it was only in 2006 when I seriously started thinking about making career in Civil Services. PD—You must have read IAS Toppers’ interviews in newspapers/ magazines; what inspired you the most ? Any particular success story which influenced your journey to this result ? Rahul—I used to read the interviews of IAS toppers especially in Pratiyogita Darpan in childhood. Each was an inspiration in itself. PD—Was CSE a planned decision or your parent’s wish ? Had you kept in mind some time frame, for the examination preparation and number of attempts ? “I have known Pratiyogita Darpan (Hindi) since my childhood when I used to read this just know about the toppers. That this magazine is the largest read magazine is a testimony to the fact that it is liked by the majority of the aspiring candidates. PD Extra Issues are quite informative and act as a supplement to the standard course of preparation. In Pratiyogita Darpan–Year Book all aspects are fairly good.”
—Rahul Dwivedi
Rahul—It was a planned decision and fortunately I found my parents on the same side. I did not have any particular time frame in my mind. My only effort was to improve my performance in the current attempt over the previous one. By the blessing of God I have been successful in that. PD—The first step is the most difficult; how to prepare ? Which optionals ? What to read ? How much to read ? Many such questions comprehend your mind when you get really serious about Civil Services Examination ? From where did you get the right advice ? Rahul—I don’t disagree with that. In fact I could not get any proper guidance in the first attempt because the exam pattern had undergone a sea change and all my relatives were not aware of this ! Only when I landed up in Delhi did I get the right guidance as to which optionals to choose, what to read and more importantly what not to read. PD—Were you confident of your success in this examination and how did you react to this special news of your success ? Rahul—Honestly speaking somewhere in the back of my mind I knew that I could make it. But then there were equally good number of candidates who were preparing for the examination. So when I got the news through my friend at NADT, my first reaction was : ‘don’t lie !!’ PD—In how many attempts have you achieved this success ? How do you visualize your preparation/previous attempts ? Rahul—This was my fourth and last attempt. I got into Indian Revenue Service (Income Tax) in my previous attempt (Rank 226). The first attempt was like unguided missile and the result was that I landed nowhere. PD—Were you preparing for other career opportunities as well simultaneously till you achieved your ultimate goal i.e., Career in Civil Services ? Rahul—No. I already had the experience of working in private sector and had the chance to go to US when I had left that job. So there was no point I could have thought of other avenues. PD—While the changing economic environment offers immense lucrative career opportunities in various sectors, still what kept you motivated towards Civil Services ?
PD/December/2010/1036
“The enthusiasm of a woman’s love is even beyond the biographer’s.”
Rahul—Diverse nature, social prestige, greater interaction with the people and the power to bring about change. PD—While making final choice for optional subject/s, what's important and what's not ? Share your thoughts and opinions. Rahul—The most crucial aspect is whether you are able to generate interest in that optional because you have to study that for at least 1.5 years. The other crucial aspects are recent scoring pattern, syllabus and its utility for General Studies.
Bio-Data
Name—Rahul Dwivedi Father’s Name—Shri Ram Murti Dwivedi Mother’s Name—Smt. Subhadra Dwivedi Date of Birth—August 15, 1983 Educational Qualifications— 10th—1997, U.P. Board, GIC Allahabad (86%, 18th Rank in all over the state with highest marks in Mathematics 100/100). 12th—1999, U.P. Board, GIC Allahabad (76%). B. Tech—2004, IIT Madras (7·1/10). Previous Selections—IRS (IT) in CSE 2008, Rank 226. PD—What were your optional subjects ? Give the basis of selecting them. Rahul—Prelims : Mathematics Mains : Mathematics and Pali Literature PD—In your opinion at which Educational Level should one start preparing for Civil Services and what should be the minimum period of time required to prepare for Civil Services Examinations ? Rahul—There is no hard and fast rule though if one is determined to go for civil services only then one must start it in the final year of graduation and as a general rule at least one year before one is actually going to take prelims. PD—What is your opinion regarding the general view that Science subjects have better chance to score than Humanities ? Rahul—I think reverse is true given the current scenario.
PD—What is the importance of medium of examination for exams like CSE ? Rahul—Does not matter much. One should choose the medium one is comfortable with. However if one is comfortable in both one’s mother tongue as well as English then English should be preferred. PD—Does the educational, financial and demographic status of the family of an aspirant have any impact on the preparation? Rahul—To some extent yes. It affects the availability of guidance. I think I am lucky enough not to have such adverse situations against me. However, one should not be deterred under such circumstances and must give the best shot. PD—In your opinion what role do the Competition Magazines play when you are preparing for an examination like Civil Services ? Rahul—They help the candidates by keeping them abreast of the current affairs as well as the changes that are taking place in the examination. They also act as a supplementary tool. PD—According to a recent report published by reputed survey agency, PRATIYOGITA DARPAN (Hindi) is the largest read and the only Career and Competition magazine in top four magazines in India. How do you find Pratiyogita Darpan ? Rahul—I have known this magazine since my childhood when I used to read this just to know about the toppers. That this magazine is the largest read magazine is testimony to the fact that it is liked by majority of the aspiring candidates. PD—Please give your comments on the PD Extra Issues Series on 'General Studies' and a few Optional Subjects.
Rahul—They are quite informative and act as a supplement to the standard course of preparation. PD—Did you refer to Pratiyogita Darpan—Year Book ? What is your opinion about the contents, size and the time of publishing ? Rahul—I went through some of the topics. I think all aspects are fairly good.
Personal Qualities
Favourite Person—No one in particular. I like many : Buddha, Mahatma Gandhi, Abraham Lincoln, Swami Vivekanand etc. Strong Point—Hardwork, Perseverance and not comparing myself with others. Weak Point—Too Idealistic. Hobbies—Playing Keyboard, Reading, Lawn Tennis. PD—What is the secret of your success ? Rahul—Hardwork, Perseverance, belief in God and not worrying about the result especially in the last attempt. PD—What preference in services have you opted for ? Rahul—Since I was already into IRS(IT) the preference was IAS followed by IPS. PD—To whom would you like to give the credit for your success ? Rahul—The blessings of my parents and God. PD—Any suggestion/advice you would like to give to the future aspirants. Rahul—Believe in yourself, have positive attitude, there is no substitute to hardwork. Success usually comes to those who are too busy to be looking for it.
MY STRATEGY FOR SUCCESS
FOR PRELIMS
Since I am from Engineering background I devoted more time to GS than Mathematics. For GS I went for more exhaustive reading while for Mathematics it was more about practice. As for negative marking I avoided blind guessing and I went first for those questions whose answers I was sure about. After that I went for those whose answers I could find by eliminating other options.
PD/December/2010/1037 “We have all a better guide in ourselves, if we would attend to it, than any other person can be.”
FOR MAINS
I believe that quality is much more important in mains than quantity. So I stressed a lot on writing practice and preparing my own notes on important topics so as to avoid last moment panic and to have faster revision.
Poor motivation—The speaker is unable to generate enough interest in the listener due to badly prepared subject or poor/unclear language. How to become an effective listener ? Here are the steps to be followed to improve your listening. Steps to be followed to improve listening— ? ? Hearing—Conscious effort made for attentive hearing. Focussing on the message— Instead of the language or the way of presentation, the focus should be on the subject of the message. Comprehending and interpreting, analysing and evaluating— Simultaneous analysis in the brain and storing the message after well understanding the meaning and the purpose of the speaker. Responding—Interaction with the speaker on points where you are not clear. Remembering—Making a conscious effort to remember the message and the purpose of it.
Take notes effectively—Notes help you for later reference and hence better retention. Be a physically involved listener—Interact with the speaker, ask questions, clear your doubts and ensure understanding. Avoid negative mannerism— Avoid prejudice or not listening attitudes. Excercise your listening muscles—Make a conscious effort to listen and pay attention. Follow the golden rule—That if you will listen to others, they will feel obliged and interested in you and reciprocate in the same way. P.Darpan
FOR ESSAY PAPER
I chose some relevant topics, wrote essays on those and got those evaluated from my friends and a teacher. In the exam I wrote essay on ‘Are we a soft sate’ because it was relevant topic, had no dearth of facts and I had the feeling of the direction in which I had to write the essay .
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FOR INTERVIEW
I formed the group of likeminded people. Kept abreast of current affairs and attended as many mocks as possible. I again faced the board of Dr. K. K. Paul. It lasted for 35 minutes. The questions asked were mainly opinion based like issue of smaller states, naxalism, executive Vs. judiciary. Why I wanted to leave IRS, why I went to IIT Chennai when I am from typical Hindi heartland region etc.
Continued from Page 1035 FOR INTERVIEW
Dress well, have enough number of mocks, appear confident, listen to all questions attentively. Be indifferent to marks in interview, it would help you to be your natural self in Interview. I faced Madam Shashi Uban Tripathi Board on 27th March Morning Session. It lasted around 30 minutes. My first question was why you want to leave IRS (they interrupted me many times in between). In fact that question went up to 5 minutes. Then they asked me what changes I would like to bring myself in the system. Why we should take you over others. Then there were few questions from my optionals (Geography and Sociology), then some questions on my Background (Civil Engg), NCC program and other extra activities that I have done.
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How can you achieve the above steps ? Prepare to listen—No body can claim that he knows everything about any subject, hence, prepare yourself mentally to listen, believe in the fact that even if you know more than the speaker, he might have to offer something which you do not know. Adjust to situation—If there are any environmental barriers, correct them or adjust to them. Focus on ideas or key points— Focus on the subject matter of the message instead of trying to find faults with the language or the presentation. Accept responsibility for understanding—Accept the speaker and the message along with its demerits. Encourage others to talk— Encourage other to talk so that you get a more elaborated message to achieve a better understanding of it. Establish eye contact with the speaker—This helps in achieving better attention.
List of Books
Prelims—The Hindu, Pratiyogita Darpan Economics Special Issue, Special Issues on Current Affairs, Brilliant Tutorials prelims notes and other standard books. For Mains all the standard books.
Time Management
Definitely time management is very crucial. My strategy was to study GS and both optionals every day by giving them time as per the P.Darpan requirement.
Time Management
As one of the major reasons for candidates scoring less is time management (esp. in GS). I used to attempt 50 marks in every 30 minutes. So I never have to leave any topic unanswered. Further, attempt those questions 1st with which you are most comfortable. Do statistics in middle. Due to my rigorous practice and revision during preparation I was able to handle this problem with ease. P.Darpan
Continued from Page 1030
Selective listening—Some problems may be self generated like we tend to hear only what we want to or what we are interested in. Negative listening attitudes— Same thing applies when we do not want to listen to the speaker because we presume that he does not know or that we are better than him at the subject being handled.
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“Friendship is certainly the finest balm for the pangs of disappointed love.”
Civil Services Examination
Aptitude and Ethical Decision-Making
—Rajendra Ghuge
As and when the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) adopts the new pattern, the Scheme of the Civil Services Examination may change in its orientation. The overall pattern and purpose could appear as represented in the diagram below : judgement. In this process, everyone (even those remotely connected) claim authoritative information, at times making the justification appear more authentic than perhaps even the UPSC can imagine. It is somewhat like watching cricket, in which each becomes a source of solace. I can speak from experience that the ‘unstopables’ will get through, no matter what the challenges or even impediments. In fact, when I ‘cracked’ the IAS exam, the content pattern of the Optional Subjects questions was radically changing. I felt then that the more complex or innovative the UPSC makes the system, we can make it easier for the UPSC to decide who it wants in the system, by intelligent adaptation to the changed situation. In fact the essence of a dynamic bureaucracy is innovation and improvisation in order to manage reality and change, be it in the country or abroad. That is the spectrum of Civil Service ‘role & responsibility’, considering that the CSE is a mechanism for recruitment to services as different in nature from each other like IAS, IFS, IPS, IRS, etc. So what is the significant common factor for having a common examination ? In the answer to this question is the answer to solving the puzzle called Aptitude Test, as the primary ‘filter’ or screening level. The Prelim Test may not count as a score input for the final result, but it is the first level that rejects so many aspirants and selects so few of them to be eligible for the next level i.e. Main Examination. In this consequence shall be the importance of C– SAT (in fact the entire CSE-P.T). I remember, sometime last year, our Prime Minister having stated in one of his speeches that he expects administrators to be role models and lead from ahead .........(not an exact quote but the sense is correct). This automatically implies no ‘back-seat’ driving shall be acceptable. This idea alongwith the concept of ‘performance audit’ gives us a logical clue as to what the C–SAT is likely to investigate/evaluate as Aptitude Quotient for Civil Services. Soldiers don't make Generals, generals make soldiers; followers don't make leaders, leaders make followers; ... and this applies to the
INTERVIEW Evaluates :
6 Attitude
Intellect Confidence 6 Compatibility 6 Communication Skills 6 Officer-Like Qualities (OLQs)
6
6 Aptitude 6
MAIN EXAMINATION GENERAL STUDIES : Assesses extensive knowledge and the ability to cope with a diversity of subjects and issues.
G
OPTIONAL SUBJECTS : Assesses intensive knowledge and proficiency in subjects of personal choice.
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ESSAY : Assesses perspective & intellect.
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PRELIMINARY TEST GENERAL STUDIES : Evaluates extensive knowledge and general awareness.
G G APTITUDE
& ETHICAL DECISION-MAKING: Aim is to assess orientation & intelligence along with reasoning ability (within a limited time frame).
We can now proceed to focus on the Aptitude and Ethical decisionmaking aspects of the examination, which is the theme of this series of articles in P. D. The 1st Part of this article attempts to examine the Aptitude aspect while the 2nd Part deals with Ethical Dimensions of Decision-making. It is quite ironical that every time the UPSC contemplates some alteration in the CSE pattern, the issue becomes the hot-spot of debate, then rationalization and finally profound
one of us becomes a ‘virtual’ player, umpire and commentator. To an extent it may be a positive phenomenon, as an indicator of our involvement, but can become a negative one too if we happen to misinterpret the issue on the basis of Speculation. Extending the logic, for the ‘unaware’ CSE candidates or IAS aspirants, it is a zone of confusion, since the pattern is still a suspense and therefore a cause for anxiety. This is why even unsolicited advice
PD/December/2010/1039/6
“Great ideas need landing gear as well as wings.”
Bureaucracy as well. This is what the C–SAT would be expected to assess viz. clearly defined ‘OFFICER-LIKE QUALITIES’ (OLQs), which have a 10-POINT INDEX. This interesting concept/index will be deeply discussed in a later episode of this series since it is a vast domain in itself. The C-SAT has nothing to do with any subject-specific knowledge. In an aptitude test you have to basically comprehend, de-construct, and resolve the problem by choosing from the given alternatives, in a limited time-frame. The entire exercise is to evaluate Psychological orientation, Professional alignment and Intellectual capability of the candidate. It does not mean that there is no scope for enhancing ‘response value’ and ‘reaction time’ to overcome aptitude test ‘firewalls’. One theory is that given enough time, most aptitude questions can be solved correctly. Even if this is assumed to be true, do we get all the time we need for answering questions in the CSE (?)—No ! there is always a sense of urgency and paucity of time. As significantly, and this is my experience with aptitude tests, the more time you give a question, the more are the chances that you would get confused are immense. This is not an issue about correct or incorrect, it is about confusion ...........inability to decide even if you are ‘fairly sure’ about the correct choice. The psychological pressure of an examination environment can compound the problem. Let us now proceed to sample problems of an aptitude test : Ex. 1 Instruction : Arrange in the order of logical decision-making— (A) Possibility (B) Probability (C) Variability (D) Certainty Choice : (i) ABCD (ii) CDAB (iii) ACBD (iv) DCBA Ex. 2 Instruction : Arrange in the order of priority— (A) Food (B) Clothing (C) Shelter (D) Freedom Choice : (i) ABCD (ii) DABC (iii) ABDC (iv) BDAC
Ex. 3 Instruction : What should be the priority order for an ethical civil service— (A) Fidelity (B) Honesty (C) Efficiency (D) Integrity Choice : (i) ABCD (iii) DBCA Ex. 4 Instruction : What should be the priority of mechanisms as instruments of effecting positive/constructive change— Choice : (A) Economic (B) Political (C) Social (D) Psychological For Development : (i) ABCD (ii) ACDB (iii) ABDC (iv) BACD For Growth : (i) ABCD (iii) ADBE For Progress : (i) BACD (iii) BCDA Ex. 5 Instruction : If personal ethics clashes with state ethics, what should be the basis of executive decisions— Choice : (i) Personal Ethics (ii) State Ethics (iii) Evasive Tactics (iv) None of ‘A’, ‘B’, & ‘C’ (Answers and justification will appear in next P.D. Issue) The various types of questions in aptitude tests will be taken up with sample questions in this series, to include ‘fallacies’, ‘paradoxes’, ‘differentials’, ‘functionals’, ‘relationals’, ‘inductive-deductive logic’, ‘reasoning & extension’, ‘permutation & combination’, ‘probability equations’, ‘statement jumbles’, ‘data interpretation’, etc. In effect the aptitude test along with certain elements of the psychometric test is an intelligent combination which “The impossible is often the untried.” (ii) ADCB (iv) BACD (ii) BCAD (iv) ACBD (ii) ADBC (iv) CADB
attempts to guage the ability and propensity of candidates in identifying the problem, analysing the problem, exploring options at resolving the problem and at times chosing the ‘best possible’ answer under the situation defined in the problem. We can now proceed to the 2nd part of our theme—Ethical and Moral Dimensions of DecisionMaking. In this section, we shall examine the individual factors that influence moral philosophy and values. Over a larger context, these factors come to constitute a national psyche. So when we talk of ethical decision-making we have to consider these factors as important determinants of the value system on which ethical decision-making is based. Although there are some universal principles of humanity, we cannot overlook the prevalence of ethical relativism to quite an extent. A systematic method to understand these specific factors and the influence on ethical values is to categorise them into ‘conditioning’ (‘which’ and ‘how’ influences shape human thinking and morality) and ‘antecedents’ (the background and direct inputs that form human attitude and personality). Conditioning factors such as historical legacy or the shared past that a group of people have gone through is an important influence on the behaviour of people. This is the reason why there is response variation to any situation in different groups of people. This creates problems for response expectation ........... which can be seen in the differing or diverse answers to the same aptitude test question. So is the case with geographical factors which reflect in group cohesion within a certain territory and diffusion between various groups belonging to different territories. In this manner, even the other conditioning factors do create response variation to situations. That is why a safe strategy for C-SAT would be to understand what the UPSC expects its civil services officers to be. If this is done, much of the problem in answering aptitude and ethical decisionmaking would be solved. The point is to come out of our prejudices and preconceived notions and look at aptitude questions dispassionately.
PD/December/2010/1040
INDIVIDUAL FACTORS, MORAL PHILOSOPHY and VALUES
Conditioning and Antecedents
Historical Geographical Cultural Social Economic Political Religious Legal Experience Education Inter-personal Community Cross-Cultural Circumstances Psycological Attitude Influences
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All these influence human thinking and human response to situation. It needs self discipline to maintain scientific objectivity. ? Moral compulsions and legal compunctions—These also influence choices and at times people pretend to be different from what they are, in answering aptitude questions. ? Psychological association between conduct, morality and ethereal or divine response based on reciprocity and proportionality. When people link these, they are seeking to find
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answers to ethical decisionmaking in prayer or luck factor. this is a delution. Religion as an influential factor in determining morality and values through concepts such as conscience, sin, God's justice, good and evil, heaven and hell, etc. however, in ethical decisionmaking of the ethical criteria for state decisions may be at variance with individual morality. it is the state view that must prevail. State – Civil Society - Welfare Factors Matrix : IndividualSociety-State—A considerable interplay o ethical eriteria and social justice takes place and generally social justice is assimilated into ethics. Community Castigation Vs. Community Recognition—This issue emerges when progressive and conservative ethics come face-to-face on any issue. Community influence & public authority—This is an extension of the preceding point. If the traditional community is unable to influence progressive public authority, it tries to be obstruc-
tionist and confront public authority. It is a matter of what are the perceived ethical criteria. Public authority is not personal and it has public concerns and interests. Therefore sectarian ethics has to be superseded by secular ethics. All these issues would constitute questions on ‘Ethical and Moral Dimensions of Decision-making’. An interesting angle to these questions is that at times a question is rephrased and repeated with many other questions in between. So, if a candidate has made a contrived choice once, he/she is likely to forget the response and make a contradictory choice the second time. This exposes the intention of the candidate and it would lead to losing marks. Finally, once we get into the Q&A mode, the candidates would surely attain the expected level of proficiency. Prior to that stage, we need to have our concepts in perfect order, in fact to reach that stage itself.
The author is a former diplomat bureaucrat and is presently associated with guiding CSE aspirants.
P.Darpan
PD/December/2010/1041
Economic and Social Development
United Nations Summit on Millennium Development Goals
—Dr. Amresh Chandra
United Nations Summit on the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) concluded on 22 September, 2010 in New York with the adoption of a global action plan to achieve the eight anti-poverty goals by 2015 target date. It followed announcement of major new commitments for women’s and children’s health and other initiatives against poverty, hunger and disease. The outcome document of the three-day Summit – Keeping the Promise : United to Achieve the Millennium Development Goals – reaffirms world leaders’ commitment to the MDGs and sets out a concrete action agenda for achieving the Goals by 2015. Based on examples of success and lessons learned over the last ten years, the document spells out specific steps to be taken by all stakeholders to accelerate progress on each of the eight Goals. It also affirms that, despite setbacks due to the economic and financial crises, remarkable progress has been made on fighting poverty, increasing school enrolment and improving health in many countries, and the Goals remain achievable. They include eradicating extreme poverty, reducing child mortality rates, fighting disease epidemics such as AIDS, and developing a global partnership for development. These are the goals and targets : 1. End poverty and hunger— Over the years, we've been inundated with the statistics and the pictures of poverty around the world, so much so that many people in both the North and South have come to accept it as an unfortunate but unalterable state of affairs. The truth, however, is that things have changed in recent years. The world today is more prosperous than it ever has been. The technological advances we have seen in recent years have created encouraging new opportunities to improve economies and reduce hunger. will be able to complete a full course of primary schooling. 3. Gender equality—Poverty has a woman's face. Global prosperity and peace will only be achieved once the entire world's people are empowered to order their own lives and provide for themselves and their families. Societies where women are more equal stand a much greater chance of achieving the Millennium Goals by 2015. Every single Goal is directly related to women's rights, and societies where women are not afforded equal rights as men can never achieve development in a sustainable manner.
The Target
Eliminate gender disparity in primary and secondary education, preferably by 2005, and in all levels of education no later than 2015. 4. Child health—One of the darkest characteristics of poverty is that is seems to prey on the vulnerable and defenceless. In lowincome countries, one out of every 10 children dies before the age of five. In wealthier nations, this number is only one out of 143.
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The Targets
Halve, between 1990 and 2015, the proportion of people whose income is less than one dollar a day. ? Achieve full and productive employment and decent work for all, including women and young people. ? Halve, between 1990 and 2015, the proportion of people who suffer from hunger. 2. Universal education—Every human being should have the opportunity to make a better life for themselves. Unfortunately, too many children in the world today grow up without this chance, because they are denied their basic right to even attend primary school. A sustainable end to world poverty as we know it, as well as the path to peace and security, requires that citizens in every country are empowered to make positive choices and provide for themselves and their families.
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Background of MDGs
When 189 Heads of State and government from the North and South, as representatives of their citizens, signed onto the Millennium Declaration at the 2000 UN Millennium Summit, there was a palpable sense of urgency. Urgency to "free our fellow men, women and children from the abject and dehumanizing conditions of extreme poverty, to which more than a billion of them are currently subjected.” Since then many events have been unfolded while trying to meet those goals. The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) are eight international development goals that all 193 United Nations member states and at least 23 international organizations have agreed to achieve by the year 2015.
The Targets
Reduce by two-thirds, between 1990 and 2015, the under-five mortality rate. 5. Maternal health—Many people consider the day their child was born the happiest day in their life. In poorer countries, the day a child born is all too often the day its mother dies. The lifetime risk of dying in pregnancy and childbirth in Africa is 1 in 22, while it is 1 in 120 in Asia and 1 in 7,300 in developed countries.
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The Targets
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The Targets
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Ensure that, by 2015, children everywhere, boys and girls alike, “Desire creates the power.”
Reduce by three quarters, between 1990 and 2015, the maternal mortality ratio [MMR].
PD/December/2010/1042
Achieve, by 2015, universal access to reproductive health [UARH]. 6. Combat HIV/AIDS—Malaria, together with HIV/AIDS and TB, is one of the major public health challenges undermining development in the poorest countries in the world. Malaria kills an African child every 30 seconds. Many children who survive an episode of severe malaria may suffer from learning impairments or brain damage. Pregnant women and their unborn children are also particularly vulnerable to malaria, which is a major cause of prenatal mortality, low birth weight and maternal anaemia.
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By 2020, to have achieved a significant improvement in the lives of at least 100 million slum dwellers.
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The Targets
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Have halted by 2015 and begin to reverse the spread of HIV/ AIDS. Achieve, by 2010, universal access to treatment for HIV/ AIDS for all those who need it. Have halted by 2015 and begin to reverse the incidence of malaria and other major diseases.
8. Global partnership—The Millennium Goals represent a global partnership for development. The deal makes clear that it is the primary responsibility of poor countries to work towards achieving the first seven Goals. They must do their part to ensure greater accountability to citizens and efficient use of resources. But for poor countries to achieve the first seven Goals, it is absolutely critical that rich countries deliver on their end of the bargain with more and more effective aid, more sustainable debt relief and fairer trade rules, well in advance of 2015.
In cooperation with the private sector, make available the benefits of new technologies, especially information and communications.
Outcome of the Summit
General Assembly adopts the following outcome document of the High-level Plenary Meeting on the Millennium Development Goals— We, Heads of State and Government, gathered at United Nations Headquarters in New York from 20 to 22 September 2010, welcome the progress made since we last met here in 2005 while expressing deep concern that it falls far short of what is needed. Recalling the development goals and commitments emanating from the Millennium Declaration and the 2005 World Summit Outcome we reaffirm our resolve to work together for the promotion of the economic and social advancement of all peoples. They (participants) were convinced that the Millennium Development Goals can be achieved, including in the poorest countries, with renewed commitment, effective implementation and intensified collective action by all Member States and other relevant stakeholders at both the domestic and international levels, using national development strategies and appropriate policies and approaches that have proved to be effective, with strengthened institutions at all levels, increased mobilization of resources for development, increased effectiveness of development cooperation and an enhanced global partnership for development. In the summit emphasis was put on a broad based policy formulation and its execution–they recognize that all the Millennium Development Goals are interconnected and mutually reinforcing. Therefore the need is to pursue these Goals through a holistic and comprehensive approach. Outcome document call on civil society, including non-governmental organizations, voluntary associations and foundations, the private sector and other relevant stakeholders at the local, national, regional and global levels, to enhance their role in national development efforts as well as their contribution to
The Targets
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Develop further an open, rulebased, predictable, non-discriminatory trading and financial system. Include a commitment to good governance, development and poverty reduction both nationally and internationally. Address the special needs of the least developed countries Includes : tariff and quota free access for the least developed countries’ exports; enhanced programme of debt relief for heavily indebted poor countries (HIPC) and cancellation of official bilateral debt; and more generous ODA for countries committed to poverty reduction. Address the special needs of landlocked developing countries and small island developing States (through the Programme of Action for the Sustainable Development of Small Island Developing States and the outcome of the twenty-second special session of the General Assembly). Deal comprehensively with the debt problems of developing countries through national and international measures in order to make debt sustainable in the long term. In cooperation with pharmaceutical companies, provide access to affordable essential drugs in developing countries.
7. Environmental sustainability—Reducing poverty and achieving sustained development must be done in conjunction with a healthy planet. The Millennium Goals recognize that environmental sustainability is part of global economic and social well-being. Unfortunately exploitation of natural resources such as forests, land, water, and fisheriesoften by the powerful few have caused alarming changes in our natural world in recent decades, often harming the most vulnerable people in the world who depend on natural resources for their livelihood.
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The Targets
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Integrate the principles of sustainable development into country policies and programmes and reverse the loss of environmental resources. Reduce biodiversity loss, achieving, by 2010, a significant reduction in the rate of loss. Halve, by 2015, the proportion of people without sustainable access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation
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PD/December/2010/1043
“You must do the thing you think you cannot do.”
the achievement of the Millennium Development Goals by 2015, and commit as national Governments to the inclusion of these stakeholders. In an effort to achieve those goals some of the important steps taken by different stakeholders are :
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Initiative for maternal, newborn and child health adopted at the G8 Summit.
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The European Union [EU] offered funding amounting to € 1 billion to the most committed and needy countries to make progress on the goals they are furthest from achieving. The World Bank announced an increase in the scope of its results-based health programmes by more than $ 600 million until 2015 to scale up essential health and nutrition services and strengthen the underlying health systems in 35 countries, particularly in East Asia, South Asia and sub-Saharan Africa. The World Bank will increase its support to agriculture to between $ 6 billion and $ 8 billion a year over the next three years, up from $ 4.1 billion annually before 2008, under its Agriculture Action Plan to help boost incomes, employment and food security in many low-income areas. France announced funding of $ 1.4 billion to the Global Fund to Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis and Malaria for 2011-2013, an increase of 20 per cent. The United States announced a commitment of $ 50.82 million over the next five years for a Global Alliance for Clean Cook stoves, a public-private partnership led by the United Nations Foundation seeking to install 100 million clean-burning stoves in kitchens around the world. The United Kingdom announced a tripling in its financial contributions to fight malaria, increasing its funds for malaria from £ 150 million a year to £500 million by 2014. Canada reaffirmed its commitment to mobilize more than $10 billion from G8 and non-G8 leaders, key donors and private foundations over the next five years through the Muskoka
Belgium pledged € 400,000 for the Fourth United Nations Conference on Least Developed Countries, to take place in Istanbul, Turkey, in 2011.
Challenges of MDGs
Although developed countries' aid for the achievement of the MDGs has been rising over the recent years, it has shown that more than half is towards debt relief owed by poor countries. As well, the remaining aid money goes towards natural disaster relief and military aid which does not further the country into development. According to the United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (2006), the 50 least developed countries only receive about one third of all aid that flows from developed countries, raising the issue of aid not moving from rich to poor depending on their development needs but rather from rich to their closest allies. Many development experts question the MDGs model of transferring billions of dollars directly from the wealthy nation governments to the often bureaucratic or corrupt governments in developing countries. This form of aid has led to extensive cynicism by the general public in the wealthy nations, and hurts support for expanding badly needed aid. The recent announcements of help and aid by the developed world and other donor institutions to the third world countries are welcoming steps but how it unfolds on the ground is critical in achieving the main objective.
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While underlining the importance of a comprehensive approach to meet the MDGs, Indian Prime Minister, Dr. Manmohan Singh said, "The Millennium Development Goals that we have set for ourselves cannot be met unless governments are proactive. No government in any civilized society can ignore the basic needs of people. The goal of the development process must be to include every last member of our society in that process". Member countries of the UN and other participating bodies in the summit reiterated their commitment towards the MDGs. We request the General Assembly to continue to review, on an annual basis, the progress made towards the achievement of the Millennium Development Goals, including in the implementation of the present outcome document. Ten years after the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) agreed by world leaders became the greatestever commitment for a ‘more peaceful, prosperous and just future’, progress is slow and many hardwon achievements have been undone after the global food, fuel and economic crises. Unless an urgent rescue package is evoloved to accelerate fulfilment of all the MDGs, we are likely to witness the greatest collective failure in history and thus alarmingly endangering the well-being of future generation. P.Darpan
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Conclusion : Pro-activism of all Required
In the words of UN Secretary General Ban Ki-Moon—this Summit has laid a solid foundation for the progress we need in our quest to achieve the Millennium Development Goals by the internationally agreed deadline of 2015. Through the participation of a large number of Heads of State and Government as well as leaders from civil society, the private sector and the philanthropic community, this event has galvanized worldwide attention.
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PD/December/2010/1044
“Your goals, minus your doubts, equal your reality.”
Sociological Article
Changing Face of Indian Women : From Vedic Period to Modern Age
—Pooja Sehrawat, M.S.W. M.Phil
Introduction
Indian women have seen many ups and downs in their life from the beginning of the world. In primitive times (pre stone & post stone age) she was living a happy life with her male partner and children. The vedic period was the golden period for the women. They had all privileges and enjoyed a happy socio-economic, religious, political and cultural life. During post vedic period, gradually the status of women started declining and she was deprived of her social, economic, religious and political rights. The medieval time filled her life with agony. It was the worst time for women. They were confined within the four walls of the house and treated as slaves. During the British rule the position of Indian women started improving and with the cooperation of prominient social reformers women succeeded though slowly, to regain their socio-economic and political rights of which they were deprived in earlier times.
in the performance of religious rites. The educational opportunities were also open for women and they were free to study vedic literature. Gargi and Maitreyi can be named as welleducated women of this period. In this period women were not restrained in purdah system. They were not confined within the four walls of the house. The women had considerable freedom in selection of their life partners through the system of ‘Swayamvara’. During this period the wives proved good companions and partners of their husbands in their social and household activities. In those times widow remarriage was allowed. Widows were not treated inhumanely by the society in the name of custom, tradition and belief. On the whole it can be said that women enjoyed all freedoms during vedic period. They had equal participation in all the spheres of life with men without any difference of sex, caste, creed, religion etc.
stopped. All these restrictions and suppression resulted in decline of women’s status and position in the society and men started treating her as his slave and consumable commodity.
Status of Women in Medieval Period
With the Muslim invasion in India during medieval period the status of women further declined. In this period certain ill practices like Sati, Child marriage, Devdasi system, purdah system, ban on Widow remarriage became part of social life in India. The Muslim emperors captured the wives of defeated Hindu Kings and kept them in their herums. In order to escape from humiliation the Queens of defeated Hindu Kings burnt themselves alive before the coming of mughals in their palace e.g. Rani Padmavati burnt herself alive before Aurangzeb reached in her palace. Child Marriage became common in those days because the Hindu masses in order to save their daughters from muslim’s humiliation got their daughters married at an early age. Purdah system closed the doors of education for women. Polygamy also became popular in these days. Hindu women were strictly instructed by their husbands to remain in Purdah (in veil) all the times. Though the above practices were adopted in order to protect the women from muslim invaders, gradually they took the shape of custom and tradition. Inspite of these adverse conditions some women viz. Razia Sultana, Chand Bibi, Noor Jahan, Jija Bai took active part in politics and showed their excellence and ability.
Status of Women in Vedic Period
The vedic period in Indian history is considered as golden period with regard to the status of women in society. In this period women were enjoying a very specific and respectful position in their homes and in society. During this period she was considered even greater than gods as is said, ?tuuh tUeHwfe'p LoxkZnfi xjh;lh? and ?;( ukfjLrq iwT;Urs r( jeUrs
Status of Women in Post Vedic Period
In post vedic period the status of women started declining with the emergence of Smritis (especially Manu Smriti). In this period ‘Manu’ emerged as law maker of Hindu society and he equated women with shudras and slaves. Manu clearly said that women must be kept under control. “In childhood a woman must be subject to her father, in youth to her husband and when her lord is dead to her sons”. Women were expected to follow men as his shadow and at that time strong emphasis was laid on faithful and uncomplaining wife. Women had no separate identity. And they were known as weak, helpless, powerless and dependent member of society. The women were also not allowed to make participation in social, economic, religious and political spheres of life. Women education was banned. The system of widow remarriage was “Thought is behaviour in rehearsal.”
nsok#? She was enjoying her social life
equal to men and sometimes even higher to men. Men and women were just like the two sides of a coin. Without one the other was incomplete. Both of them were just like the two wheels of a house cart in which the importance of both the wheels was equal. Women were free to participate in social, economic and political activities equally with men. They were also free to participate equally
Status of Women in British Period
From the beginning of 19th century, prominient social reformers started a struggle for the revival of
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rights and freedoms of women in Indian society and they succeeded in their mission to a great extent. A few of the social reformers were Raja Rammohan Roy, Inshwar Chandra Vidyasagar, Jyoti Rao Phuley, Maharishi Dayananda Saraswati, Swami Vivekananda etc. Raja Rammohan Roy raised voice against Sati Pratha (system) and by his efforts in 1829 British Government enacted ‘Sati Prevention Act’. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar supported widow remarriage and in 1856 succeeded in getting passed ‘Widow Remarriage Act, 1856’ Jyoti Rao Phuley and Maharishi Dayananda Saraswati were great supporter of women education and Maharishi Dayananda Saraswati opened separate schools and colleges for women’s education. Swami Ramakrishna Paramhansa and Annie Besant were few other prominient social reformer of this time. On the other side, in political sphere Rani Laxmi Bai, Kittur Chennamma and Begum Hazrat Mahal showed their knowledge, skill, capacity and power against the British rulers. In 1917, the first women’s delegation met the secretary of the state to demand women’s political rights supported by the Indian National Congress. The All India Women’s Education Conference was held at Pune in 1927. Bhikaji Cama, Vijay Laxmi Pandit, Kamla Nehru, Kasturba Gandhi, Aruna Asaf Ali, Sucheta Kriplani, Sarojini Naidu were famous freedom fighters who actively participated in India’s struggle for Independence with Mahatma Gandhi and Pt. Nehru.
(iii) Equality of opportunity to all individuals without any discrimination of caste, sex, religion as per Article 6 (iv) Right to adequate means of livelihood as per Article 39(a) (v) Equal pay for equal work as per Article 39(d)
(vi) Just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief as per Article 42 Apart from these articles of Indian Constitution several Acts also have been enacted by Government of India with the objective to protect women’s rights and also to protect them from sufferings and exploitation. The important Acts are as under— (i) (ii) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and
(iii) The Hindu Minority Guardianship Act, 1956
(iv) The Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 (v) The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961
(vi) The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 (vii) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 (viii) The Domestic Violence Act, 2005 Due to all these legal and constitutional efforts and also because of expansion of education, liberalisation and globalization the ideology of Indian society towards women has changed. The modern Indian woman has became a significant part of society and she is playing a vital role in the country's public life. The women of today have opted for new horizons and paths to satisfy her quest for self expression and creativity. The women are taking active part in all spheres of life i.e. political, social, economic, religious etc. The Census of India 2001 has registered 25·60 per cent of female population as workers numbering 127·22 million out of a total female population of 496 million.
Smt. Rabdi Devi in Bihar, Nandini Satpati in Uttar Pradesh were successful chief ministers of their respective states. Smt. Pratibha Devisingh Patil is holding the office of the President of India. Meera Kumar is holding the post of Speaker of the Lok Sabha, Smt. Sheila Dixit has been continuously ruling over Delhi since 1999. Besides this, women are holding key posts in almost all the departments of central and state governments. Not only in civil areas but in defence also they are doing excellent jobs. Sania Mirza, Saina Nehwal. P. T. Usha, Malleshwari, are some of the prominent figures of games and sports. They have earned name and fame in sports. Mother Teresa had done extraordinary work in the field of health. Lata Mangeshkar and Asha Bhonsle are the famous singers of India and world also. Arundhati Roy and Medha Patekar are the famous social activists. Nirupama Roy is holding the post of foreign secretary in the Ministry of External Affairs. Indian woman, today and without any difference of caste, creed, religion, sex etc. are enjoying all human rights and freedoms. However, 33 per cent reservation bill for women in Indian Parliament and state legislative assemblies is waiting for clearance in Lok Sabha. P.Darpan
Status of Women after Independence
After Independence of India certain legal, constitutional and developmental efforts were made to revive/raise the status of women and also to protect women from torture, suppression and exploitation. The Constitution of India guarantees— (i) (ii) Equality before law as per Article 14 Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, sex, caste and creed as per Article 15(I)
Conclusion
After Independence Indian women progressed speedly particularly in Indian politics. Mrs. Indira Gandhi ruled over the country for 14 years, Smt. Jaya Lalita in Tamil Nadu, “Goals are dreams with deadlines.”
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Legal Article
Section 497 IPC Must be Amended
—Sanjeev Sirohi
It would certainly amount to an exaggeration if we say that Section 497 IPC pertaining to adultery must be abolished but certainly we won't be overstating or exaggerating if we state that it needs to be amended suitably at the earliest to meet the present circumstances because we are now living in 2010 and not in 1810 or 1910. We are totally dumbstruck to see that even after so many years of independence, this most discriminating section in not only IPC but in our entire criminal law which imposes punishment on men alone even though women fully consented to it or even lured him as an abettor still remains untouched after so many years. What a pity! Section 497 says : “Whoever has sexual intercourse with a person who is and whom he knows or has reason to believe to be the wife of another man, without the consent or connivance of that man, such sexual intercourse not amounting to the offence of rape, is guilty of the offence of adultery, and shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to five years or with fine, or with both. In such case the wife shall not be punishable as an abettor.” It is beyond at least our comprehension why a married women alone has been given a blank cheque of open exemption to indulge in free sex with as many men as she likes and yet not be punishable as an abettor even though notwithstanding that it was she who lured them and they all will be punishable for being men ? Can on earth there be any such discriminatory law which openly discriminates between men and women and punishes men alone even though women abetted it ? We know that even in England itself adultery is not a criminal offence because IPC is their creation. In some European countries, adultery is mildly punished. For instance, in France, a wife guilty of adultery is punishable from minimum three months to maximum two years of imprisonment. The husband, however, has discretion to end her sentence and take her back. The adulterer is similarly punished. In Malaysia, Singapore and Hong Kong, adultery is not punishable. In US, 6 states do not punish adultery at all, in 20 states both transgressors are guilty and in 8 states both transgressors are guilty. If the woman is married but if she is single then only man is guilty. In Pakistan and most Islamic countries, adultery can be punished with death also. In Philippines it is the married woman who is alone liable for adultery. Just recently, Justice S.N. Dhingra of Delhi High Court said : “We are living in an era of equality of sexes. The Constitution provides equal treatment to be given irrespective of sex, caste and creed. An unemployed husband who is holding an MBA degree cannot be treated differently to an unemployed wife who is also holding an MBA degree.” Does this concept of equality not apply in case of adultery also ? A crime is a crime whether it is murder, theft or adultery. If a woman can be punished for murder, theft and other offences then why not for adultery also ? Time has come when this gross injustice perpetuated on men is rectified. To be brutally honest, if there is one section in the IPC which we detest the most—it is obviously Section 497. This we say not beings men but as human beings. No other section of IPC so blatantly discriminates between men and woman with men here being at the receiving end and women being at the gaining end. No men can ever even stare continously at a women without her consent, leave alone the question of having physical relationship. Don't get us wrong. We are not against women rather we strongly support equality demanded by them with men in all spheres including permanent commission in armed forces. We are just saying why “Dare to be naive” adultery should be a special exception ? Either there should be no punishment at all both for men and women or both should be awarded equal punishment or only that individual who is married and breaks the faith of his/her spouse by indulging in it should be held liable irrespective as to whether he/she is a men or a women. We must learn something from Ranbir Penal Code 1932, s. 497 applicable to Jammu & Kashmir under which both are equally punished. Similarly, in Korea, both husband and wife are equally punishable for adultery under article 241 of the Korean Criminal Code. But in Uganda adultery is criminal for women and not for men. The Fifth Law Commission of India in its 42nd Report, 1971 had recommended the retention of Section 497 in its present form with the modification that, even the wife, who has sexual relations with a person other than her husband should be made punishable for adultery. It also recommended for revision of the current punishment for the same, which is five years, as it felt that it is, “unreal and not called for in any circumstances.” The suggested modification was not accepted by the legislature. Joint Selection Committee suggested equal culpability of both the sexes for their promiscuous behaviour, but it was of the view that the old punishment of five years should be retained as it is. The Committee on Reforms of Criminal Justice System in 2003 recommended : “In view of the fact that an adulterous relationship cannot take place without the consent of the married woman, it is highly discriminatory to hold only the man guilty of the offence without making the adulterous woman liable for her infidelity.” Even the Apex Court in Sowmithri Vishnu Vs. Union of India AIR 1985 SC 1618 held : “It is commonly accepted that it is the man who is the seducer and not the woman. This position may have
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PD/December/2010/1047
Career Article
SSB : For Three Wings of the Armed Forces What ? How ? and Why ?
—J. B. Mall, Psychologist
Liberty and full freedom to describe yourself.
S. D. T.
Self Description Test
You have to appraise yourself within bind and bounds.
Two negatives can’t make one positive, for that the contents of the bottle is to be seen not the label. Label may or may not justify the contents but contents can justify the label.
Electronic/print media duly backed by the environmental freedom has complicated and made the assessement of human personality a difficult task. Due to ever changing dynamics of socio-economic cum cultural values of the society we live in. The assessors need to be conscious of the current status of the candidates who are reporting to the centre being influenced by the above. The environmental liberty and competitive pressure is projecting a thorough knowledge with a technical know-how, to fabricate, cook, manifest and camouflage the responses and the behavioural pattern with full of impression management which the parameter of selection system does not require. Saying that my handwriting is weak, I lack in speaking, I want to improve my English, I hesitate to speak before the audience. Gentlemen, these are skill not the weaknesses. Weakness requires action where as skill requires interaction. Action is an individual component whereas reaction is social. In a broad term reaction becomes interaction. Saying that I hesitate to talk with the strangers. I want to enlarge my social circle. I want to mix up easily. This is part of your social intelligence. You can make the effort and improve upon. Not the weaknesses. Small people talk about other people, mediocre people talk about things; great people talk about ideas. Similarly, when you write that my sister gets annoyed when I increase the volume of T.V. Gentleman this is reaction not the weakness. You close the door and the same will not happen. Again some one writes my mother gets annoyed when I bring a bunch of friends. Gentleman this is again not a weakness. You inform earlier and it will not happen.
An individual is the product of his environment and sorroundings. The word his environment and sorrounding denotes his liberty to pick and choose the people and society he wants to. An individual is the product of ‘his’ environment and sorroundings in which he lives in. The word ‘his’ denotes his choice of choosing his environment. The further interpretation of ‘his’ environment is; heredity + environment. For heredity no system of the universe will take otherwise or penalise you. As you do not have your control on heredity, for the example, it is the decision of the God where
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“The greatest dreams are always unrealistic.”
you will be born who your parents will be ? Who will your siblings be ? But where as your environment is concerned, it is you who choose the friends, guides, society and surrounding. Therefore, you may not be held responsible for heredity but certainly you will be made accountable for the environment you choose to. In other kind of answers you may find some thing and sometime nothing but in this particular answer you will find every thing. I will request you to analyse and introspect the above answer. The focal point of that answer is climate, environment, society and finally a well defined life style. Please realise and answer my question ? When summer comes don’t you feel fed-up ? Don’t you get annoyed, feel uncomfortable and
uneasy ? Similarly when spring comes it brings pleasantness, happiness and cheerful climate and environment and finally it stimulates you to make eager to move any where to work and enjoy more energetically. This ‘Self Description Test’ is the 4th among the battery of your psychological test. This psychological test is based on inferential technique. The interpretation of this technique is : psychologist reaches his evaluation on the basis of inferences. To draw the inferences neither he studies on the line nor above the lines but studies between the lines. He is not interested what you are writing rather, from where you are writing. In the G.T.O. series of testing or in the group testing officers’ technique, if
you have not been able to speak in G. D. (Group Discussion) then the situational condition will not stimulate the G.T.O. to find out why you have not spoken. Because, this technique is only observational not the inferential. But the scientist does it. Interviewing officer does it, as both these techniques are an inferential one. If you consider the above diagram you will acknowledge that out of these three techniques, some technique is powerful in some factors, but weak in other factors. Therefore all these three techniques are made to correspond independently to find out a suitable saviour or a leader of crisis for the Armed forces. Because of this combination and comprehension, this technique is known as scientific and fool-proof. Meaning thereby it cannot be befooled.
Kinds, Function, Nature and the Strength of these Three Techniques
Status of these techniques What does it find out ? Psyche Technique Interviewing officer Technique What does it find out ?
Your Social Adjustment and casual behaviour
Group Testing Officer Technique
Your Defence Mechanism Stress resistence and, Emotional Stability
What is the Nature of this Technique ? Inferential Technique What is the strength of this technique ?
What does it find out ? Your Group Effectiveness, Group Dynamics and Practical Effective & Efficient Intelligence. What is the Nature of this Technique ? Observational Technique What is the strength of this Technique ? What is the Nature of this Technique ? Inferential Technique What is the strength of this Technique ?
This technique is very much powerful in factor IInd that is Social Adjustment. It can easily find out factor IIIrd that is leadership and factor Ist that is intelligence but weak in factor IV that is Dynamism.
This technique is strong in factor IV that is Dynamism, factor Ist that is intelligence and it can easily find out factor IIIrd that is leadership but weak in factor IInd that is Social Adjustment.
This technique is strong in factor IIIrd that leadership, factor Ist that is intelligence and it can also find out factor IV that is Dynamism but weak in factor IInd that is Social Adjustment.
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“Don’t expect mangoes when you plant papayas.”
Explanation—It is purely a psychological based selection which consists and energetic behaviour, consider me more mature as they give more responsibility, seeing my maturity they fully depend on me. Write Written Psychology Field Psychology Interview Psychology directly, according to my parents I am a mature one. Use simple words when you are reporting directly about Thought Process Action Content of words your self. Defence mechanism is used when there is failure or something The sound interplay and homogeneous mix of all the above three goes against your ego—For example techniques will produce/project/display a suitable personality which if your % of marks in intermediate will be recognised and recommended as saviour or a leader of crisis. is less than high school then do This Self Description is known points as well as his ability to analyse not criticise teachers, examination papers, schools or do not say my by three ways the (1) is known as Self himself impartially and objectively. mother was ill, father used to remain Description (2) is self-story writing out of station. Admit and confess and (3) is self-appraisal. This is the May I ask you not to go on favourite method being exercised by fabricated, cooked and manipulated directly that I have wasted time with the psychological tests to get to know and guided description. Gentleman, friends, seeing pictures etc. Say that it is a gross failure on my part. Now I more about the individual and to this is a very good test and you will have become aware and I have done obtain information to confirm the keep on enjoying if you learn to write this and that and even I am following finding already recorded in the earlier honestly and in a genuine way. the strict schedule these are like this tests. and will do this within this much of Status of Self Description time. of—
Highlighting your achievements. “In terms of your special attitude and skills. One particular quality should not start dominating every aspect.” Do not begin with your description. For example I am youngman, get up early or I am strong man of aged 23, 24 or 25 and I am smart, smiled and humbled. Sorry not required Strong points & Weak points : “Denial is the worst form of the defence mechanism.”
“A reliable time table with reasonable follow up of ups and down to upgrade the educational track records, sports and other tie-ups in games and other activities with obedient and natural acceptability of dark and light areas with innocent confession gives rise to honesty and innocense which become the backbone of recommendation.” It is the technique which matters. Experience pays not the strength. Human beings have certain weaknesses and good points. There are three kinds of people in the word—
Third kind Second kind Who know, realise and take proper steps timely to rectify them.
Then what is required ? 1 Intellectual 2 Social 3 Leadership First kind A lot of people who do not know their weaknesses. Neither they try to know nor they understand. 4 Dynamism
The Importance of Self Description—In the first instance, this task provides valuable information regarding the candidate to the Psychologist and the interviewing officer that too at the time of the conference. The Psychologist may assess and evaluate the individual on the basis of the details obtained by this technique. Secondly, he would use these particulars to obtain confirmation for his findings, by seeking corroboration. In either case, it may be applied in creating the impression of the candidate on the minds of these examiners about achievements, ambitions, attitudes, ethics, emotions and the character. They come to know of candidate’s strong and weak
Who know the weaknesses but do not take steps to rectify them.
These above qualities should be described through action, incidents, emotions, relations and interactions. Facts and opinions are to be spelt balancly. Please be plain in explaining facts and opinions. To many words do not communicate properly. Write specific, precise and direct description not with too much adjective like : My parents see my dynamism
Admitting fault is strength not the weakness. Ego is disastrous instinct which damages the balance, creat clashes. I will exemplify with following descriptions; I will take the example of three words which may have different aspects, notions and even can create clashes. These three words—
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“For every mountain there is a miracle.”
Convey a Does not carry any risk, responsibility does not require any skill, experience and even the knowledge of the components of behavioural pattern. b You ask Suresh that on the way to your house you will find Gaurav’s house. Convey my message that examination notes are ready. He may come and collect it. Neither you are more serious nor Suresh. But, when message is received by Gaurav he will take it seriously and will come and collect it.
Converse a Converse is interactional a reciprocal behavioural pattern is required. If you are humble, polite and having a capability to stand specific then certainly it will bear good fruits. b Converse requires sensitivity, humour or a good behavioural pattern backed by value, ethics and social norms. c Converse imposes more responsibility than yourself.
Communicate Requires group, knowledge, experience and skill I will exemplify as here under— a Message conveyed : send the reenforcement we are advancing. Message received : send the refreshment we are dancing. b When a conveyed message is received it becomes communication. Due to lack of skill or grasp it may flop and even may cause c Communication requires sense of responsibility.
Interpretation—All the above three components require a balanced personality otherwise any of the above or even all three may create ego, clashes, havoc etc.
The role and the character of the mirror can be truely compared with the ‘Self Description’. This test does not require any literature or preparation or practice. The main thing stands. How to write ? and ‘What to write’ ? only.
Before coming ahead to how to write and what to write I will first explain
What does under take to write the Self Description ? Ask yourself. What will amount to a very good life ? Leading life ? successful life ? happy life ? a trouble free life ? The answer is family, teachers/employer, friends, yourself and finally what you want to be ? and what would you like to inculcate and how ? The composite, compound and comprehensive mix of all the aforesaid components when balanced applied and described it becomes the ‘Self Description’ or ‘Self Appraisal’ or ‘Self Story Writing’.
The family becomes the Ist unit, basic initial intiation factor and the point to inculcate, incorporate, condense, expand the span and depth of behavioural pattern to constitute a desirable and not desirable personality. Opinion formation is long drawn and time taking process. This is the reason why the psychological tests are evaluated through inferential technique.
It the element of honestly and transparency is compromised the assessement will not got in your favour.
Under the changing or varying situations if you spell transparency and on other occasions if you turn to become ambiguous, then selection parameter will bounce your certainty. Basically a child is taught, nurtured by her mother, father and even
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“In the middle of difficulty lies opportunity.”
by other family members under the joint family system. Since your childhood, if you have been good in your routine, commitment, sports, home work and you never developed any bad habit or any kind of habit of being reminded except in some cases like when cricket match comes on T.V. then you lose studies. When you play cricket on Sunday or holidays then you are always brought back from the play ground by your family members. And finally your family members become annoyed when you feel pain in your stomach due to overeating specially when non-veg. is cooked or served in any function. When you are grown up and become the aspirant of IMA, OTA, specialised entry, service entry or TA. (Territorial Army entry) at the laterstage of life. Then the method remains the same but the contents are changed. Sometimes your contents become more mature. Most probably with good sense of duty, sense of discipline, sense of responsibility and even with high sense of responsibility. With two or three examples, you will learn to write the S. D. of any stage. More specifically, if any drastic turn you have confronted in your past life then how to write ? and what to write ? Suppose your father has expired then your mother’s opinion will only exist. Similarly, in case of mother’s death your father’s opinion will exist. Sorry to say gentleman in case your parents are not alive you may write that since my parents are no more therefore, parents’ opinion will not exist. Better you ask the duty officer— In case parents are not alive, you may ask
the technical officer, psychologist or scientist who so ever is conducting the psychological test. Sir, my parents are not alive, should I write that my parents’ opinion does not exist or I should write their opinion whatever they had before their death. Parents opinion for CDSE and specialised entries—According to my parents I am open and friendly with them. I do understand their financial limits and compulsion. Even I have taken a part time job as teacher and have also started giving tuitions to support the education of my siblings. I have made my parents free of their responsibility to care and share with my siblings. My parents become annoyed sometimes when I scold my siblings to make them serious for their studies. And again my parents point out to care for my future. Parents opinion for service and TA. Entries—(Service entries would hereby mean the army personnel who are already in the service and do apply for the commissioned jobs. And TA entries would mean that who are in service either in civil or in private profession and do apply for this entry for that the age limit is 42 years). The parents’ opinion for this entry would run as hereunder—According to my parents I am too sincere to follow them as they want. In their opinion I am responsible, caring and do understand them and their limits. I extend financial support without their hint as I understand the need and occasions. Most of the times I give the full support because I do realise that they need it. I do understand the family and its need and do what is required. My parents some times point out to care myself and my family.
Teachers/employers opinion— Honouring teachers is like honouring self and the blessing we receive in return is above all. Teachers always have been the best guides, philosphers and friends. They are known to give the best and usable turn to the lives of their disciples. They understand you better and whatever they speak, they speak honestly and impartially. The relations between the teachers and taught vary from individual to individual. With some teachers you become very close, familiar and friendly. Seeing your Dynamism, active participation, motivation and interest in various fields your teachers assign you work and task in the interest of the organisation. On some occasion teachers need right people for the right jobs. Selection of men depends on their suitability. Teachers know who can do what ? How much time and kinds of resources a task requires ? Some job requires challenges and risk. When a particular mission or task is accomplished that too with or without hurdles then opinion is formed. In closing address when commendation is given and certificates followed by prizes are awarded with a due briefing about the achievements and remarkable performances then what happens. Continued to be Next Issue
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undergone some change over the years but it is for the legislature to consider whether s. 497 should be amended appropriately so as to take note of the ‘transformation’ which the society has undergone.” The National Commission of Women had also criticized the British era law of being anti-feminist as it treats women as the property of their husbands and has consequentially recommended deletion of the law or reducing it to a civil offence. The 14th Law Commission in its 156th Report also recommended reformation of the criminal law of adultery and changes in relevant sections of Cr PC also. At least now our government must act and initiate necessary changes in it be either making it gender neutral or decriminalising it entirely! Media should also play its part in this regard by debating it more vigorously and prominently to draw the attention of our law makers in this regard. P.Darpan
PD/December/2010/1052
“It is surmounting difficulties that makes heroes.”
Self-Motivations Article
A TALISMAN for Civil Services’ Aspirants
—A. P. Bhardwaj
From smallest to grandest, from materialistic to metaphysical, from this worldly to other worldly, there is only one talisman; Jaggo, Khojjo, Samjho, Pao and for that there is only one Mantra : Be Realist and Try the Impossible. The first and foremost thing to be taken into consideration and to be pondered upon Sincerely and Honestly is whether you really aspire to be a civil-servant. Try to find out its answer from deep down within yourself. Is it your own aspiration ? Isn’t it an imposition ? Isn’t it an imitation ? Aren’t you going to try this venture without having the knowledge of the risks involved ? Though it is the most prestigious service of the country and everybody has the right to try for them, yet it is not necessary that everybody would have filament of that type. Everybody cannot have the basicity. Some may have poorer basicity; many may have richer. Moreover it is a matter of : Attitude and Approach Priorities and Potential Talents and Tastes. CSE is not just like any other examination. It is an entirely and altogether different from other examination in its nature, scope and determination. You will be able to achieve your goal only and only if your aspiration is : Real, Honest, Sincere, True, Infallible, Unwavering, Concrete. Try to understand the meaning, intent and content of these words. You normally use these words innumerable times in a day. But you don’t make use of these words almost throughout your life. Ramshackled and borrowed aspiration, floundering attitude; rancid thoughts, shaky spirits, rickety approach and random, tottering and dilapidated preparation cannot bring you success. Your aspiration should be yours. Your efforts should be sincere and honest. Preparation must be concrete, consistent, relentless and focussed. your weakness and strengths. Remove the weakness. Improve the strengths. To give ourselves a reasonable prospect of success, we must realize what we wish to achieve and for that make the best of opportunities; Use of Time is Most Important. Don’t Forget the CSE is not just like any other examination. It is an entirely and altogether different. It is not the test of your one or two years’ preparation. It is not the test of your bookish knowledge only. It is the test of your own self. It is the examination of your overall development. In addition to knowledge, it is the test of your certain fundamental, basic, elemental and phenomenal characteristics such as your capacity to Perceive, Conceive, Think and Analyse the things in Wider; Grander, Higher and Holistic perspective. Apart from and in addition to all said and done required, five things are indispensable to be an IAS and all in equal measure : 1. Basic intelligence 2. In depth knowledge/hardwork 3. Over all development 4. Considerable command over the language 5. Role of invisible forces such as God, Divinity, Luck, Nature and Destiny. The basic intelligence means the capacity to; understand, analyse, grasp and apply the things. It also requires the inquistitive mind to know the things; to learn the things from wherever you can learn, whatsoever you can learn; howsoever you can learn. It means you shouldn’t remain confined to books only. Newspapers, journals, magazines, cinema, TV, seminars, workshops and even interactions should be the other sources to sharpen your intelligence. You should be reasonably prudent, logical, rational and pragmatic, and
Keep Regurgitating
? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? jaggo, khojjoo, samjoo, pao aspire and achieve strive and strike be realist and try the impossible avoid myths and misconceptions procrastination robs you off opportunity will planning perseverance lead to excellence use of time is very important utilization of energy and resources is more important introspect, investigate, examine and evaluate yourself consider and reconsider; decide and resolve; don’t falter and recoil arise, awake and stop not till the goal is achieved arise, awake or perish
Avoid Myths and Misconceptions
Try to be right here and right now. Forget the end; try to concentrate upon the means. The path to achieve this end is really very lengthy, tedious, cumbersome. There is no short cut. So before plunging into this battlefield, consider and Reconsider your Decision as Many Times as you can. But once considered and reconsidered, pondered upon & deliberated upon honestly and sincerely, then decide and resolve. Once decided and resolved, then don’t falter and recoil. Then go ahead; then don’t Boomrang and Backfire. Then don’t delay; delay means defeat.
Procrastination Robs you off Opportunity
Remember all succeed who deserve. You have to strive to deserve. So, Aspire and Achieve for that Strive and Strike. Will Planning Perseverance Lead to Excellence—Weigh yourself. Evaluate your potentials. Identify
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“Troubles, like babies, grow larger by nursing.”
philosophical as well as empirical and practical. Knowledge and Hardwork are the backbones of CSE. There is no escape route to it. There is no substitute to it. In order to gain requisite knowledge, everybody has to put in basic minimum requisite-labour proportionate to his/her basic intelligence. Knowledge simply doesn’t require donkey studies putting in unaccounted number of hours and going through a no. of books. No ! it is a widely prevalent misconception about CSE. It is a deeply embedded Myth. Knowledge means accumulation, assimilation and application of knowledge. For that it requires : Strategic, Guided, Qualitative, Organized, Consolidated studies. It can be accumulated and assimilated through mountainous labour, volcanic zeal, cyclonic spirits, never give up attitude rather do or die approach.
You can use it in different colours. You can’t anticipate the result. You cannot experience the intensity and gravity. For that avoid—Diversions and Deviations, Myths and Misconceptions, IFS and Buts, Triffles and Triffling People, Meaningless and meandering discussions, Gibberish Talk, Self conceit and self deceit, complacency. Be particular about—Company Association, Interaction. It can produce unimaginable results negative as well as positive.
Utilization of Energies and Resources is Very Important
Everyone is born with a different background. Everyone is brought up in different atmosphere, in a different manner. Everyone has got different educational background. So to say the family, social, economic, educational, mental background of everybody differs from other people. So everyone has to start his preparation from a different Plank. So the planning, strategy, amount of labour, span of preparation for everyone would be different. So you should be able to rationalize and differentiate the things which are within your control & which are not within your control. So you should remove your weaknesses and improve your strengths. You should try to make the best optimum use of your energies and resources and time at your disposal. For that avoid—Moaning and groaning, bragging and boasting, frailities and fluidities, frivolities and fallibilities, flickering and flippant attitude, flirt approach, insouciant spirits. Rather Make—Do or Die efforts. Make full, frantic and relentless efforts. Best use of time. Learn whatsoever you can : from wheresover you can; howsoever you can. Over all Development is the Most Fundamental Requisite of CSE. Your over all development; apart from and in addition to your bookish knowledge, constitute a number of things such as : Your thought process, Personality traits, Personal idiosyncrasies, Perceptions, Convictions, Vision. “You cannot have success without the failures.”
Assimilation is More Important than Accumulation
Lakhs of candidates accumulate knowledge. But few hundreds assimilate and apply knowledge and get selected. Mere rattafication cannot suffice. Donkey labour cannot yield the desirable results rather produce undesirable results. So for strategic, guided, qualitative, organized and consolidated studies you require Selfcontrol. Self-control basically constitutes : Utilization of time, channelization of energies and resources, avoiding diversions and perversions. Utilization of time means to put in your efforts effectively and properly. It requires systematic, disciplined, consistent preparation which further requires : Regularity, Punctuality, Honesty, Sincerity, Single mindedness, Whole heartedness, Devotion and dedication. These words are used indiscriminately; intentionally or unintentionally; advertently or inadvertently but you never make use of these words. Once you apply these words in letter and spirit and translate these into action, your life can get transformed. It can get a new meaning.
For that you require—Maturity, originality, simplicity, clarity, profundity, intensity, multidimensionality, multifunctionality of thoughts. And in order to develop such thought process try to conceive, perceive, think and do the things in grander, higher and holistic perspective. Avoid—Superficiality, Artificiality, Complexity, Hollowness, Foppishness, Pretensions and affectations. Rather try to be—Clear, intense, rich and profound in ideas and thoughts. Make healthy, prudent, logical, rational and deliberative discussion. Strictly avoid—Riffraff and rag tag. Seeking suggestion from each Tom, Dick and Harry. Intermingling with each and everybody. All it requires Repeated, Rational, Regular; Self introspection, Self evaluation, Self investigation, Self examination. Try to strike a balance in order to develop a Blend, harmony synthesis for composed, integrated, intense, multidimensional, multifunctional, versatile personality. Language is the only tool of expression in CSE. To have any substitute to it is simply impossible. From your common parlance up to CSE, language is invaluable and indispensable. Language simply doesn’t mean language, which is good for nothing. It means a language with good, considerable command over it. For that one has to develop virtual fascination for it. Only then it can be learned and commanded. With superficial knowledge of language you can’t command it rather you get commanded which can land you in no man’s land. Rather you have to make special efforts for that. CSE requires coherence of thought and language. For that you require well-grounded language with ample vocabulary in order to use appropriate words and terminology for appropriate ideas, views and things. Pithy and Profound language requires : Reading and Repetition. Writing and practice. Speaking Skill and their continuous practice for Rhetorical Finesse.
Continued on Page 1057
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International Relations Article Relation
United States and Iran : Relations of Unease
—Dr. Amresh Chandra
The contemporary relationship between United States and Iran is full of vicissitudes. Their foreign policies towards each other stem from decades of complex historical and political events. The Islamic Republic of Iran, a resource-rich and labour-rich country in the Middle East, is a central focus of U.S. national security policy. The United States asserts that Iran is a state sponsor of terrorism and that Iran’s uranium enrichment activities are for the development of nuclear weapons. Amid new calls for Washington to attack Iran’s nuclear facilities if its diplomatic efforts at curbing Tehran’s uranium-enrichment programme fail, the United States on 29 September, 2010 imposed unilateral sanctions against eight senior Iranian officials whom it accused of committing “sustained and severe violations of human rights”. This is a clear indication of hardening stand US is in all likelihood to take against Iran on account of its clandestine nuclear programme and alleged abetting to terror activities in Middle East and working against US interests elsewhere. On the sidelines of UN summit on the MDGs [Millennium Development Goals] bitter remarks from both the sides further vitiated the bilateral relationship. Iranian President Mohamoud Ahmadinejad told the U.N. General Assembly on 23 September, 2010 that U.S. statesmen were isolated in saying that al Qaeda militants carried out the suicide attacks that brought down New York's World Trade Center and hit the Pentagon outside Washington and called for a U.N. investigation. He said most Americans and others around the world believed the United States orchestrated the September 11, 2001 attacks to rescue its declining economy, to reassert its weakening grip on the Middle East and to save Israel. These comments prompted the U.S. delegation, all 27 European Union member states and several other delegations to assembly hall in protest. leave the arbitrary rule," which led to the ‘deeply anti-American character’ of the 1979 revolution. The 1979 Revolution—The 1979 Iranian Revolution, which ousted the pro-American Shah and replaced him with the anti-American Supreme Leader Ayatollah Khomeini, surprised the United States government, its State Department and intelligence services, which consistently underestimated the magnitude and longterm implications of this unrest. Six months before the revolution culminated, the CIA had produced a report, stating that Persia is not in a revolutionary or even a pre-Revolutionary situation. The Islamic revolutionaries wished to extradite and execute the ousted Shah, and Carter refused to give him any further support or help return him to power. The Shah, suffering from cancer, requested entry into the United States for treatment. The American embassy in Tehran opposed the request, as they were intent on stabilizing relations between the new interim revolutionary government of Iran and the United States. Despite agreeing with the staff of the American embassy, Carter agreed after pressure from Kissinger, Rockefeller, and other pro-Shah political figures. The move was used by the Iranian revolutionaries to justify their claims that the former monarch was an American puppet, and this led to the storming of the American embassy by radical students allied with the Khomeini faction. When Mohammad Khatami, a moderate leader, came to power in 1997, it was expected that the nuclear programme in Iran would receive less attention because of his interest in engaging Iran more in the international stage and in particular with the US. However, Iran worked on its nuclear programme more seriously during this regime and its drive became unrelenting in the post-2002
In response, US President Obama lashed out at Ahmadinejad for the latest of what the White House called a long list of outrageous comments that would deepen Tehran's isolation from the international community. "It was offensive and hateful," Obama said "And particularly for him to make the statement here in Manhattan, just a little north of Ground Zero, where families lost their loved ones, for him to make a statement like that was inexcusable." he said further.
Background
For over 100 years imperialist domination of Iran has been enforced by the U.S. and other powers through covert intrigues, economic bullying, and outright military assaults, even invasions. During World War II, Iran served as an important strategic partner for the U.S. and allied powers to defeat Nazi Germany. Following the war, the popular nationalist Prime Minister Mohammed Mossadeq ascended to power and took measures that threatened the Western powers’ interests in the nation and led them to fear a communist takeover in the nation. For instance, Mossadeq nationalized the Britishowned Anglo-Iranian Oil Company and limited the powers of the proWest Shah. With the help of the British, the United States staged a coup in 1953 that overthrew Mossadeq, returned the Shah to power, and ensured a pro-Western, anti-Soviet government in Iran. Prime Minister Mohammed Mossadeq was overthrown by a Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)-organized coup, in what has been called "a crucial turning point both in Iran's modern history and in U.S. Iran relations." Many Iranians argue that "the 1953 coup and the extensive U.S. support for the Shah in subsequent years were largely responsible for the Shah's
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“A casual stroll through the lunatic asylum shows that faith does not prove anything.”
period due to very prominent hostile foreign policies of the US directed against Iran. Iran’s new hardliner President Mahmoud Ahmadinejad came to power in 2005 and only a strong personality like him could keep the country focused on its nuclear goal. The US-Iran relation saw a new setback after he took over the regime. His hard-line rhetoric against the US and Israel, along with his determination to move along with its nuclear activity made Iran’s relationship with the US even more hostile. The Americans repeatedly warned Iran of military confrontation in the event that its resolve to build bombs continued. Today tension continues between them as Iran remains defiant with respect to the nuclear issue and America moves closer to a military strike on the former. Their Ties in the Recent Past— Iran’s protracted conflict with the United States started since the end of the Shah period and the Islamic revolution in the country in 1979. During this period, Iran’s leaders perceived the United States as the principal enemy of the Islamic states which supported their main enemyIsrael. Thus, in addition to having two protracted conflicts since the late 1940s and early 1950s with Israel and Iraq respectively, Iran developed a new protracted conflict with the US in 1979. Since then Iran had three enemies Iraq, Israel, and the US for the next 27 years. Although Iraq and Israel’s nuclear weapons programmes alarmed Iran and the Islamic Republic became anxious to develop a deterrent capability against Iraq with whom it fought one of the longest wars in the region, and Israel, whose existence in the Middle East Iran denies, the pace of its nuclear weapons programme was relatively slow till 2000. With the US administration taking aggressive foreign policies towards Iran since 2000, the latter’s security concern intensified. The Bush administration’s declaration of Iran as part of the axis of evil states severely threatened and humiliated Iran; the threat exacerbated with the administration’s war on Iraq on the pretext that it was in possession of weapons of mass destruction. A society that was and still is split on
many of the important domestic issues including democratization, modernization, and westernization, the Iranians remained united on the issue of nuclear weapons acquisition after the war on Iraq. US decision to attack Iraq without the approval of the United Nations proved that in the absence of a nuclear deterrent capability, Iran would soon be in the same position as Iraq and would be the US next target in the Middle East for being one of the axis of evil states. Consequently, Iran became relentless in its drive to acquire nuclear weapons and boldly announced its decision to enrich uranium so that the US is not confused about its possession of the nuclear capability. Improved and non-aggressive US policies towards Iran, which can be instrumental to ending the prolonged Iran-US conflict, can convince Iran to renounce its nuclear weapons ambition but it seems elusive. Even the new regime of Obama with some constructive intent towards Iran is unable to convince it [Iran] on the renunciation of nuclear programme. Obama Administration and Iran—The Obama Administration has adopted the long-standing assessment of Iran as a “profound threat to U.S. national security interests.” This threat perception is generated not only by Iran’s nuclear programme but also by its military assistance to armed groups in Iraq and Afghanistan, to the Palestinian group Hamas, and to Lebanese Hezbollah. In its first year, the Obama Administration altered the previous U.S. approach by expanding direct diplomatic engagement with Iran’s government and by offering Iran’s leaders an alternative vision of closer integration with and acceptance by the West. To try to convince Iranian leaders of peaceful U.S. intent, the Obama Administration downplayed discussion of potential U.S. military action against Iranian nuclear facilities and repeatedly insisted that it did not seek to change Iran’s regime. It held to this position even at the height of the protests by the domestic opposition ‘Green Movement’ that emerged following Iran’s June 12, 2009, presidential election. Iran’s refusal to accept the details of an October 1, 2009, tentative agreement to lessen concerns about its nuclear inten-
tions—coupled with its crackdown on the Green movement—caused the Administration, in 2010, to shift toward building multilateral support for strict economic sanctions against Iran. The Administration efforts bore fruit on June 9, 2009 when a U.N. Security Council was adopted (Resolution 1929) that required countries to take a number of significant steps against Iran, including banning major arms sales to Iran, and authorized a number of additional significant steps. The European Union, in July 2010, subsequently announced multilateral sanctions against Iran that use much of the authorities of Resolution 1929 and which also supports elements of U.S. legislations passed in June 2010 (the Comprehensive Iran Sanctions, Accountability, and Divestment Act). The new sanctions represent a rejection of a May 17, 2010, agreement brokered by Brazil and Turkey to implement major features of the October 1, 2009, agreement. Many observers assess that the U.S., U.N., and EU sanctions enacted in June and July 2010 are pressing Iran economically. However, because the sanctions have not caused Iran to fundamentally alter its commitment to its nuclear programme and might not ever achieve that objective, the Administration reportedly has revived deliberations of possible military action to try to set Iran’s nuclear programme back. Other options include methods to contain Iran if it does become a nuclear armed power. Some believe that only domestic opposition in Iran, which in late 2009 appeared to pose a potentially serious challenge to the regime’s grip on power, may provide a clear opportunity to reduce the potential threat of a nuclear Iran. Obama Administration officials appear to believe that the opposition’s prospects are enhanced by a low U.S. public profile on the unrest. Congressional resolutions and legislation since mid-2009 show growing congressional support for steps to enhance the opposition’s prospects. Others maintain that the prospects for the domestic opposition, which has been largely absent from the streets in 2010, are poor, and that other options are fraught with risks, and that the Administration should return to a
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“At times one remains faithful to a cause only because its opponents do not cease to be insipid.”
focus on reaching a nuclear agreement with Iran. What Washington fails to understand is that Tehran may be willing to renounce its nuclear programme if the former makes concessions and changes the course of its foreign policies pertaining to the Middle East in general and Iran in particular. Experts of the region are of the opinion that America “would need to fit the issue into a wider Middle East picture and find ways of making Iran feel less threatened. In return for cessation of uranium enrichment, or for more effective guarantees that it would not be used for a weapons programme, Washington could offer not only to lift all sanctions but also to drop calls for regime change and undertake not to meddle in Iran's domestic affairs; pull back its military presence in the region; and pressure Israel into surrendering or scaling down its nuclear arsenal. Israel talks about its defense against annihilation, but it might be such wider consequences of an Iranian nuclear programme that it really fears.”
doing. Instead, a congenial atmosphere must be created to have bilateral discussions between the two states to attain the nonproliferation goals and in exchange Iran must get security assurance from the US, stipulating that the Americans have no intention of attacking the Republic or imposing Washington’s terms on Tehran’s ideologically-driven government. These things can only happen if the US gives the Iranians a sense of security through changing its hostile policies. Times have changed and the US policy-makers must understand that sticks may not be the answer to some of the security problems in today’s world. Mistrust between the United States and Iran’s Islamic regime has run deep for almost three decades. Some argue that, no matter who is in power in Tehran, the United States and Iran have a common long-term interest in stability in the Persian Gulf and South Asian regions. According to this view, major diplomatic overtures toward the regime might not only help resolve the nuclear issue but yield fruit in producing a new, constructive U.S.-Iran relationship. Others argue that U.S. concerns stem first and foremost from the character of Iran’s regime. Those who take this view see in the Green movement the potential to replace the regime and to integrate Iran into a pro-U.S. strategic architecture in the region. Many argue that a wholesale replacement of the current regime would produce major strategic benefits beyond reducing the threat from Iran’s nuclear program, including an end to Iran’s effort to obstruct a broad ArabIsraeli peace. Others argue that many Iranians are united on major national security issues and that a new regime would not necessarily align with the United States. Some believe that many Iranians fear that alignment with the United States would produce a degree of U.S. control and infuse Iran with Western culture that many Iranians find un-Islamic and objectionable. For different reasons, the U.S. even more so must be judged by its performance, not its words. While Washington talks peace, it is fighting in Iraq, Afghanistan, Pakistan, and Yemen, vastly increasing its drone
attacks, and is now deploying Special Operations forces in 75 countries, 15 more than last year. And while Obama usually speaks softly he constantly wields—directly in Ahmadinejad's face—the big stick of a potential crushing attack by the U.S. and Israel, later an enemy of the whole Arab World. No state in today’s interdependent world wants to be treated unfairly and feel left out. It is the natural right of all states to protect its sovereignty, keeping in mind not to jeopardize international peace and stability which US should be mindful about. P.Darpan
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For that—Learn the fundamentals of grammar, try to develop a good sentence structure, improve your vocabulary as much as you can, consult the dictionary as many times as you can, keep the maximum thrust on reading. Apart from books of syllabi read journals, magazines, and newspapers. Practise writing, pen down the things from different sources, refresh them repeatedly. Try to develop communication skill in isolation if you hesitate to speak publicly. Once you get command over the language, then and only then you would understand the beauty and intensity of the language. It would give you a great boost. It would literally decorate your thought process. It beautifies your behaviour. It embellishes your expression and virtually transforms you. All of us have been assigned different roles by the nature to be performed at different stages of life in different walks of life. The nature is fundamentally and intrinsically good, fair and just. It believes in fairness, justice, goodness, fair play and equity. For that retribution of justice gets applied. We get what we sow. Labour never goes waste and honesty pays in the long run. These are aphorisms with deep hidden meaning of universal application. If you make honest efforts and put in requisite labour then you are bound to get the corresponding results. Just have faith in nature/God/Destiny and try to give the impeccable performance. You would definitely get impeccable results. P.Darpan
Conclusion : Need to End Protracted Conflict
As long as the US does not fashion a different style of foreign policy pertaining to Iran and terminate the protracted conflict with the former, it is unlikely for Iran to relinquish its nuclear weapons programme. While Iran may be compelled to suspend its programme due to international pressure and the fear of being subjected to more serious sanctions that might affect the civilians, such suspension will only be temporary and a permanent solution to this problem will only be a function of the termination of Iran-US protracted conflict [A general definition of protracted conflict (PC) given by Edward Azar is : Protracted conflicts are ‘hostile interactions’ which extend over long periods of time with sporadic outbreaks of open warfare fluctuating in frequency and intensity. They are conflict situations in which stakes are very high] The US policies need to be restructured based on this notion. It is no point putting pressure on Iran to suspend the programme. Neither is it a good idea to threaten Iran of war, which the Bush administration was
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“Be careful when you fight the monsters, lest you become one.”
Environmental Article
Environment and Sustainable Development
—Dr. Ram Naresh Thakur
Environment means everything that surrounds us. It includes places where we live in and things we depend upon. Our natural environment has both living and non-living things, sun, moon, sky, air, water, soil, rivers, mountains, land, forests besides plants and animals. All these things affect us and we depend on them directly or indirectly, as many other life-forms. Since environment is the basic source of life we must conserve and protect environment for the safety of our lives as well as its proper exploitation for the development of economy. constituents are found in certain quantity and ratios as well as there remains equilibrium within different constituents (elements). In special circumstances effects of undeserving, evil and injurious constituents increase. Consequently the environment becomes polluted and the creatures have to face its bad effects. The simple meaning of pollution is being polluted the environment or being fundamental change in the rational (coherent) structure of nature. With a view to definition, “Pollution means that undeserving change of air, water, soil (land) and sound (noise) etc. in their physical, chemical as well as bio-characteristics and in which there becomes harm to human beings along with other useful bio-creatures, animals, insects, trees in addition to plants. Healthy environment is the disciplined and balanced form of nature. Furthermore the disturbance of this discipline and balance gives rise to pollution.” Kinds of Pollution—Generally the classification of pollution is made on the basis of environment. It is divided as— (1) Air Pollution (2) Water Pollution (3) Soil (Land) Pollution (4) Sound (Noise) Pollution etc. Sustainable Development—Sustainable development is a pattern of resource use that aims to meet human needs while preserving the environment so that these needs can be met not only in the present but also for future generations. The term was used in 1987 by the UN’s Brundtland Commission which coined what has become the most oft-quoted definition of sustainable development as development that “meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of further concern for the carrying capacity of natural systems with the social challenges facing humanity.” As early as the 1970s sustainability was employed to describe an economy in equilibrium with basic ecological support system. Ecologists have pointed to ‘The limits to Growth’ and presented the alternative of a steady state economy in order to address environmental concerns. Environmental Sustainability— It is the process of making sure current processes of interaction with the environment are pursued with the idea of keeping the environment as pristine as naturally possible based on ideal-seeking behaviour. An ‘unsustainable situation’ occurs when natural capital (the sum total of nature’s resources is used up faster than it can be replenished. Sustainability requires that human activity only uses nature’s resources at a rate at which they can be replenished naturally. Inherently the concept of sustainable development is intertwined with the concept of carrrying capacity. Theoretically, the long-term result of environmental degradation is the inability to sustain human life. Such degradation on a global scale could imply extinction for humanity. The idea of sustainable development grew from numerous environmental movements in earlier decades Summits such as the Earth Summit in Rio, Brazil, 1992, were major international meetings to bring sustainable development to the mainstream. However, the record on moving towards sustainability so far appears to have been quite poor. The concept of sustainability means many different things to different people and a large part of humanity around the world still live without access to basic necessities.
Global Concern for Environmental Conservation
There are many global concerns for environmental conservation that may make our economy resourceful and prosperous in the long run. (a) Land (Soil), Water, Air, Sound (Noise) Pollutions and its Management (b) Environmental Awareness Programmes (c) Conservation Movements (d) Informal Environmental Education (e) Diversity of Flowers, Crops, Animals (f) Sustainable Development—How and Why ?
If we do not beware of these dangers as ecological imbalance, decreasing number of species etc. then natural imbalance will prevail. We will have to invite destruction in place of progress or development. Environmental Pollution and Human Life—All creatures depend on balanced environment for their growth, development and well arranged lives. In environment different constituents are found in certain quantity and ratios as well as there remains equilibrium within different constituents (elements). In special circumstances effects of different
Dimensions of Sustainable Development and Environment
The field of sustainable development can be conceptually divided into three constituent parts— (i) Environmental sustainability, (ii) Economic sustainability and (iii)
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“In heaven all the interesting people are missing.”
Socio-political sustainability. The Concept has included notions of weak sustainability, strong sustainability and deep ecology. Sustainable development does not focus solely on environmental issues. Consumption of Renewable Resources
(a) (b) (c) More than nature’s ability to replenish Equal to nature’s ability to replenish Less than nature’s ability to replenish
needs of the future generations. It is a process in which development can be sustained for generations. It affords to the future generation the same, if not more, capacity to prosper as the present generation has. In other Sustainability
Not sustainable Steady state economy Environmentally sustainable
State of Environment
Environmental degradation Environmental equilibrium Environmental renewal
Economists have focussed on viewing the economy and the environment as a single interlinked system with a unified valuation methodology. Intergenerational equity can be incorporated into this approach, as has become common in economic valuations of climate change; economics ruling out discrimination against future generations and allowing for the possibility of renewable alternatives to petrochemicals and other non-renewable resources, efficient policies are compatible with increasing human welfare, eventually reaching a golden rule steady state. Thus, the three pillars of sustainable development are interlinkages, intergenerational equity, and dynamic efficiency. The term ‘Sustainable Development’ is being widely used, as the world today has become very much concerned about the factors adversely affecting ecology and environment. The related issues like global warming, ozone layer depletion, droughts, floods, scarcity of fuel, fodder, pollution of air and water, soil erosion and deterioration of soil health, lowering of ground water and the like are engaging serious attention of people all the world over. India is no exception to the global phenomenon of ecological and environmental degradation. Among the various factors responsible for increasing ecological disturbance and imbalance and environmental pollution, unsustainable exploitation of natural resources is a major factor. Sustainable development may be defined as development towards meeting the needs of the present generation without compromising the
words the future generations should have at least the amount of resources for development as the present generation has. Thus, sustainable development focusses on ‘intergeneration equity’ in the exploitation of development resources and opportunities. The ultimate goal of all development is to bring about improvement in the quality of life in society. The task is to convert available resources into goods and services needed by society for improving its quality of life. Every generation of mankind ‘creates’ as well as ‘destroys’ certain amount of resources for its development purposes but the nature and rate of development in such that the rate of destruction of resources is greater than that of creation. If this trend continues beyond a century or so, it is apprehended that there would be not only no further development, but also there might be economic stagnation or even disaster. This is often referred to as ‘the limits to growth’. Thus, the present generation should either drastically curtail the exploitation of non-renewable resources or recycle at least as much amount of resources as it uses up so that the future generation also has equal chance to develop. The concept of sustainable development has another dimension environment conservation. Sustainable development is one which conserves nature and maintains ecological order—bio-diversity, thereby making life on the earth possible in future as at present. The problem of sustainability of development is a part of wider ecological problems which threaten life in general on the earth
today. It is not merely a problem of finding necessary resources for generation to come, but a problem of making human beings live in better harmony with Nature. After 20 years of the Stockholm conference, the Earth summit was held in June 1992 at Rio de Janeiro (Brazil) under the auspices of the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED). Thus, the Rio Earth Summit marks the twentieth anniversary of the setting up of the UNEP and it has thrown enormous light on the impending environmental disaster and has called for urgent action to avert it. For economists the concept of sustainable development is not a new one, but its reinterpretation in the context of environment protection is a fairly recent one. “The World Commission on Environment and Development” (WCED—popularly known as the Brundtland Commission) 1987, laid down the foundation for a debate on the meaning of ‘sustainable development’ and the role of environment on development. The commission defined the term ‘sustainable development’ in six different ways which were found to be conflicting to each other. However, the consensus emerged on “meeting the needs of the present generation without compromising the needs of future generations” as a basic definition of ‘sustainable development’. This is a simple but holistic concept of sustainability. It goes beyond the concept of environmental protection for the sake of future generations. Nobel Laureate Robert Solow who had embraced the nation of sustainability and defined it as making sure the next generation is as well-off as the current generation and ensuring that this continues for all time. Key to this view is that manmade capital (machines, buildings) and knowledge are substitutes for natural capital, particularly natural resources. The above approach to define ‘sustainable development’ is highly inadequate as it takes input sustainability as the basic and only require-
PD/December/2010/1059
“In truth, there was only one Christian, and he died on the cross.”
ment for the sustainable development of an economy. The other dimension of sustainability are not being speltout. Also, there is little convergence in the literature on sustainability. For example, according to Little and Mirrlus (1984, 1980)—“this (i.e., sustainability) is more a buzz word— probably derived from the environment lobby—than a genuine concept. It has no merit whether a project is sustainable (for over ?—just for a long time ?) has nothing to say whether it is desirable. If sustainability were regarded as a reason for rejecting a project, there would be no mining and no industry” (Little and Mirrlus, 1986, 1990). When we consider the total development process, the problem of environmental pollution and conflict between industrial development and environmental degradation become very serious. Combating poverty, improvement in demographic structure, change in consumption patterns, health, human settlement, pollution control, energy management, treatment of industrial wards, control of hazardous materials, and after all the input sustainability are the vital requirements for overall sustainable development of nations. Several countries have announced plans for emission cuts (Brazil, EU, Indonesia, Japan, Russia, South Korea, the US) or carbon intensity reduction (China, India). There are however, opening gambits to guess how far others would go. For instance, China’s offer of 40–45% reduction in carbon intensity by 2020 is a continuation of its already existing policy, which began in 2006. If other countries had expected more, China was not going to oblige. By 2020 the US aims to reduce emissions by 17% relative to 2005, which is way below desired levels (using the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change’s 1990 baseline, this means only 4% reduction). For rich countries as a whole, the IPCC recommends reductions of 25–40% by 2020; offers on the table amount to only a 12–19% cut. The absence of internationally enforceable mitigation commitments
means that the burden on climate finance will increase. Unilateral promises will depend on whether sufficient financing is available to achieve the scale of actions needed. So, who will pay ? The commonwealth Head of Government backed a BritishFrench proposal for a $ 10 billion fund to help developing countries reduce emission and adapt to a changing climate. Our View Point—In this way billions of rupees were spent over “Ganga Safai Pariyojna (The Ganges Sanitation Project)” by the government of India, but no discernible success came in hand. During the period of planned economic development not only in India but in the whole world, specially in developing nations, economic activities remained the causes for pollution of environment. But, no doubt, the economy itself remained its victim too. Both the people and the government have to search for measures and remedies to remove its causes at broader level.
The economy on the whole has the comprehensive responsibility in this respect. The Vision for the Nation— After about 60 years of planned economic development, the aspirations are mounting that India should become a developed country. How can we prepare ourselves to face this challenge ? The next 20 years is a period of technological transformation in India. New emerging economic and technological situations where there will be many new innovations, which can help us to develop. India is now standing at the gate of the knowledge society and with our skill development in the field of information technology what we need is an entrepreneurial as well as environmental push and an increase in our competitiveness. Our former President, A.P.J. Abdul Kalam appealed to the youths to plant at least 5 trees along with other devices. We can move the most powerful forces on the earth, under the earth and above the earth. P.Darpan
PD/December/2010/1060 “Insanity in individuals is something rare–but in groups, parties, nations and epochs, it is the rule.”
Indian Polity and Constitution
? Who said that Indian Constitution is a ‘bargaining federalism’ ? —Morris Jones
Indian National Movement
? The British Prime Minister Atlee
announced the withdrawal of the Britishers in the House of Commons from India on : —February 20, 1947 ? Who said, ‘India is for Indians’ ? —Dayanand Saraswati Who said, “One Country One God, One Caste, One Mind Brothers all of us Without Difference, Without Doubt” ? —V. D. Savarkar United India House organised Unity among Indians in the United States of America in : —the year 1910 Who in the year 1907 unfurled the first national flag at the International Socialist Conference in Stuttgart (Germany) ? —Madame Bhikaji Cama In 1906, to protest discrimination against Indians in S. Africa Mahatma Gandhi started : —Satyagraha at Johannesburg Subhash Chandra Bose was elected the President of the Indian National Congress : —in 1939 at its Tripuri Session Bal Gangadhar Tilak began his drive for new awakening among the Indians by publishing two newspapers in 1881 i.e., : —The Maratha (English) and Kesari (Marathi) Whom did the Britishers call ‘the Father of Indian disaffection and the biggest traitor’ ? —Bal Gangadhar Tilak Who established in 1893 the Society for the Removal of Obstacles to the Hindu Religion ? —The Chapekar Brothers
? In 1699, Guru Gobind Singh—
one of the prominent gurus and tenth guru of Sikhs established : —The Khalsa The founder of Sunga dynasty was : —Pushyamitra Sunga Which British Prime Minister sent in 1942 Cripps Mission to India ? —Winston Churchill Anekatavada is a core a theory and Philosophy of which religion ? —Jainism During the Indian Freedom Struggle why did Rowlatt Act passed in 1919 arouse popular indignation ? —It authorized the government to imprison people without trial Who founded the Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association ? —Mahatma Gandhi In the context of the Indian freedom struggle October 16, 1905 is well known for which event ? —Partition of Bengal Where did the Tebhaga peasant Movement occur in 1946 ? —Bengal Who was the first editor of the Yugantars ? —Barendra Ghosh
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? The Parliamentary System as
opted for by the Constitution of India is based on the principle of : —Cooperation and coordination between the legislative and executive organs
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? The chapter on Fundamental
Duties covered by Article 51-A under Part IV-A was added by : —The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976
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? Indian Constitution Envisages :
—A Dual Polity (Centre and States)
? Under which Article is the right
to freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion mentioned ? —Article 25 The duties of a Chief Minister with regard to the furnishing of information to governor are provided in : —Article 167
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? Part XX of the Constitution of
India covered by Article 368 mentions : —Amendments of the Constitution
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? Powers, authority and responsibilities of municipalities are laid down in : —Schedule Twelfth of the Constitution of India
Economic Affairs of India
? Whose name is associated with
formulation of Planning Strategy in Second Five Year Plan ? —Prasant Chandra Mahalanobis Bank Rate is the rate at which : —Reserve Bank of India lends money to Commercial Banks Who maintains foreign exchange reserve in our country ? —Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Which constitutional body is appointed by the President under Article 280 every five years to review Centre State financial relations ? —Finance Commission
? Concurrent List, freedom of
trade, commerce and joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament are the provisions mentioned in Indian Constitution. They have been borrowed from : —Australian Constitution “The State does not owe loyalty to any particular religion as such; it is not irreligious or antireligious; it gives equal freedom to all religions.” The definition as given by P. B. Gajendragadkar—a former Chief Justice of India is of : —Secularism
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History and Culture of India
? The founder of Sikh religion
Guru Nanak Dev was born in : —the year 1469
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PD/December/2010/1061
“It is hard enough to remember my opinions, without also remembering my reasons for them !”
? In November 2007, the Finance
Commission constituted by the President of India was : —Thirteenth
Science & Technology
? In the context of CO2 , emission
and Global Warming, what is the name of a market driven device under the UNFCC that allows developing countries to get funds/incentives from the developed countries to adopt better technologies that reduce greenhouse gas emissions ? —Clean Development Mechanism
? Central Institute of Agricultural
Engineering is located in : —Bhopal
? Borlaug Award is associated
with : —Agriculture
? The India Institute of Advanced
Studies is located in : —Shimla Meera Seth Committee was associated with : —the development of handloom industry As the census 2001, the population of India, on March 1, 2001, stood at : —102·87 crore located ? —Dewas (M.P.)
? The plant group which yields
Taxol belongs to : —Gymnosperm Poly house is used for : —Growing Plants
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? Second Green-revolution is related to : —Bio-technology Gandak Project is a joint project of : —Bihar and Uttar Pradesh For which desirable character is the transgenic crop golden rice produced ? —Vitamin A Rainbow Revolution is related with : —Green Revolution, White Revolution and BlueRevolution least quantity ? —Zinc
? In a dry cell (battery), which are
used as Electrolytes ? —Ammonium Chloride and Zinc Chloride
? Where is the Bank Press Note
?
Geography
(India and the World) ? The Himalayas were uplifted
from the : —Tethys Geosyncline
? Which types of waves are used in
a night vision apparatus ? —Infrared waves
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? Nitroglycerine is used as :
—an explosive
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? In the structure of planet Earth,
below the mantle, the core is mainly made up of : —Iron In the context of Indian wild life, the flying fox is : —Bat Pearl is mainly constituted of : —Calcium Carbonate
? In India the percentage of population below poverty line is : —Less than 30%
? Which is taken up by plants in ? Where was 1st Agriculture
University of India established ? —Pantnagar
? Sundarban was declared a World
Heritage Site because of its : —Mangroves Forests and Biodiversity
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? The Greenhouse effect gases trap
only the feat of : —Solar Radiation Cotton in India grows best on : —Black Soil
? By which process can the sea
water be converted into pure water ? —Reverse Osmosis The symbol of World Wildlife Fund is : —Red Panda an electric bulb because : —in a tube electrical energy is almost fully converted to light
Sports and Games
? Sanya Richards—a world famous
athlete is associated with : —Sprint
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? Lignite is a type of : ?
—Coal One horned rhinoceros is found in the states of : —West Bengal and Assam the Aravalli and the Vindhya ranges ? —Malwa Plateau Green Index has been developed by : —United Nations Environment Programme rivers which merge with : —Yamuna
?
? Who won the Rajeev Gandhi
Khel Ratna Award in 2008 ? —M.S. Dhoni (Cricketer)
? A flourescent tube is preferred to
? Free-style, Back stroke and
Butterfly are the styles of : —Swimming
? Which plateau lies between
? Who became the first Indian
woman Chess player to cross 2600 ELO rating ? —Koneru Humpy
? The inexhaustible
source energy of the stars is due to :
of
?
—Conversion of Hydrogen to Helium
? Archery is the national sport of :
—Bhutan
? Vinegar is an aqueous solution
of : —Acetic Acid
? The national sport of Indonesia
is : —Badminton
? Ken, Betwa and Chambal are the
Agriculture
? Apart from quinine, which other
herbal drug is used to cure malaria ? —Arteether “Man is the cruelest animal.” is associated with :
? Ambedkar Stadium in New Delhi
—Football
? Project Tiger in India was started
in : —the year 1973
PD/December/2010/1062
? Battery, Bunting and Catcher are
the terms associated with : —Baseball Gurmit Memorial Trophy is associated with : —Hockey (India) Gold Cup is associated with : —Football
? In which state is the Buddhist
Tabo Monastry located ? —Himachal Pradesh ? The Nobel Peace Prize 2007 was awarded to : —Rajendra Pachauri and Al Gore ? The Constitution of India is : —Partly rigid and partly flexible
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? Jawaharlal Nehru International
? The East India Company secured
the Diwani from : —Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II (1728–1806) ? Who wrote Raghuvansam, Kumarsambhavam, Malvikgnimitram and Abhigyan Sakuntalam ? —Kalidasa
Miscellany
? The founder of World Economic
Forum is : —Klaus Schwab
? Who established Hindu College
at Calcutta ? —Raja Rammohan Roy
? With which movement is the
slogan ‘Do or Die’ associated ? —Quit India Movement (1942)
? Who was defeated at Kannauj at
the hands of Sher Shah in 1540 ? —Humayun Indian President is elected by an electoral college consisting of :
C
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? Nicholas Piramal, Pfizer and
Zydus Cadila are all famous : —Pharma Companies The author of the book ‘The Audacity of Hope’ is authored by : —Barack Obama During the freedom struggle, Aruna Asaf Ali was a major woman organizer of underground activity in : —Quit India Movement (1942) With whose permission did the English set up their factory at Surat ? —Jahangir During which Five Year Plan was the Emergency clamped, new elections took place and the Janta Party was elected ? —Fifth Five Year Plan (1974–79) news is mentioned in the context of affairs of : —Sri Lanka Cape Canaveral, the site from which space shuttlers are launched is located on the coast of : —Florida largest inland saline wetland ? —Rajasthan
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—both Houses of the Parliament and State Legislatures ? The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of : —Rajya Sabha
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? Who founded Indian Association
on 26th July, 1876 in Calcutta ? —Surendranath Banerjee and Anandmohan Bose
? Linus Pauling received his first
Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1954 and the second in 1962 for : —Peace Sanskrit University has been set up at : —Ujjain India’s first atomic power plant station is : —Tarapur Atomic Power Station United Nations declared the year 2008 as : —The International Year of Sanitation Where is the famous Finger Lake Region located ? —United States of America Author of Nyaya Darshan was : —Gautam
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? In India which state has the
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Court Judge who voluntarily made his assets public is : —Justice K. Kannan
P.Darpan
As the Latest and All Comprehensive Books for All Competitive Examinations.
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? SGX is the stock exchange in :
—Singapore
UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA–2
PD/December/2010/1063
“No price is too high to pay for the privilege of owning yourself.”
: Republica Italiana (Italian Republic) Capital : Rome Official Language : Italian Territorial Area : 301,277 square kilometre Population Estimate : 5,91,31,287 (2007) Official Name Male Population (2007) : 2,87,18,441 Female Population Density per sq km : 3,04,12,846 : 196 square kilometre
Giorgio Napolitano : Italy’s Current President Silvio Berlusconi : Italy’s Current Prime Minister
Currency Expectation of (2003) President of Italy Prime Minister
: Life : : :
Euro (since Jan. 1999) Females 83·1 years, male 76·9 years 28,529 (PPP $) Giorgio Napolitano Piedmont, Valle d Aosta, Lombarde, Trentino—Alto Adige, Bolzano—Bozen, Trento, Veneto, Liguria, Emilia Romagna, Tuscany, Umbria, Marche, Lazio, Abruzzi Molise, Campania, Puglia, Basilicata, Calabria, Sicily, Sardinia. Rome, Milan, Naples, Genoa, Venice, Verona, Padua, Turin, Palermo, Messina.
UN Population Projec- : 59·03 million tion for 2010 HDI/World Rank : 0·941/20 Annual Population : 0·1% Growth Rate National Anthem Adult Literacy Rate (As per 2004 data) Male Literacy Rate Female Literacy Total Road Forest Cover Bank of Issue : Fratelli d’ Italia (Brothers of Italy) : 98·4% : 98·8% : 98·0% : 1,75,430 km in 2005 : 9·98 m ha (33·9% of total land area) : Bank of Italy (founded in 1893)
GDP per Cpita (2005)
: Silvio Berlusconi
Major Territories/ : Regions
Major Cities
:
Brief History
As per a prevalent legend, Rome was founded on April 21, 753 BC by Romulus who declared himself king after killing his twin brother Remus. In 616 BC the Etruscan dynasty of Tarquins gained control the Romans overthrew the Tarquins in 510 and established first Roman Republic. With the establishment of this Republic, the Roman Code—a collection of principles of political philosophy enshrining the sovereign rights of Roman citizens came. With incorporation of Spain, Rome became a dominant power in the Mediterranean. Julius Caesar— emerged as a leader, conquered Gual and declared southern Britain a part of Rome in 54 BC. His disregard for the Senate led to his legions being disbanded. Despite this development, he remained popular among the masses and returned to Rome as a hero. Ultimately, he was assassinated by members of the Senate on the Ides of
Map of Italy
PD/December/2010/1064
“One must have a good memory to be able to keep the promises one makes.”
March 44 BC. After Caesar's assassination, Octavian having defeated Mark Anthony in 31 BC was crowned the first emperor of Rome in 27 BC, assuming the title Augustus. Augustus reigned for 45 years. In AD 14 Augustus was succeeded by his stepson Tiberius whose era saw the rise of Christianity. Nero—the deranged and corrupt emperor assumed power in AD 54. It was he who persecuted Christians very cruelly and set Rome on fire. With his death the Julio-Claudian era came to an end. In AD 98 the Senate elected Trajan as emperor. Trajan expanded the empire with the conquests of Dacia (Romania), Mesopotamia, Persia, Syria and Armenia. Trajan was also responsible for great architectural projects. Trajan's successor Hadrian continued this programme of huge constructions. Rome began to lose control of its empire at the start of the 3rd century AD. In 1306 constantine became emperor. The other prominent rulers of Rome were Odovacar. Theodoric, Charlemagne, Frederick II. In 1796 Napoleon Bonaparte invaded Italy and declared an Italian Republic under his personal rule and laid the basis of modern Italy. Italian revolutionaries such as Genoan, Guiseppe and Mazzini an led the campaign against foreign rule. Mazzini’s secret society ‘Young Italy’ fought against foreign dominance. During the Nineteenth century Italians succeeded in getting liberated their motherland from the foreign and thus a unified Italy emerged on the world map. During first world war in 1914, Italy remained neutral. In 1919 Benito Mussolini founded the Italian Fascist Party bringing about the era aggressive nationalism. In 1921 Mussolini alongwith 40,000 ‘Black Shirts’ marched towards Rome to liberate it from socialists. In 1924, Mussolini’s Fascist Party won elections and Mussolini came to power by assuming the title of II Duce. Opposition was expelled from Parliament, Vetican was declared an independent state and Catholicism was declared the sole religion of state. There is long history of Mussolini’s cruel rule. But in 1945 Mussolini when he was trying to flee country was captured and shot dead. During the post war period, Alcide de Gasperi, Aldo Moro, Bettino Craxo are among the prominent rulers who ruled over Italy. Currently Silvio Berlusconi is at the helm of affairs.
Geographical Location
Italy is bounded by Switzerland and Austria in the north, by Slovenia and the Adriatic Sea in the east, by Ionian Sea in the Southeast, and by the Mediterranean Sea in the South the Tyrrhenian and Ligurian Seas surround Italy from the Southwest while France lies to the West of Italy.
Climate
The climate of Italy varies with south experiencing warm temperate with little rain in the summer. The northern Italy is cool temperate with rainfall evenly distributed over the year.
Mineral and Energy Resources
Installed capacity of power was 88,345 Megawatt in 2005 and the total power generated was 309·0 bn kWh (13·9% hydroelectric). Total consumption of energy in 2005 was 309·8 billion kWh. Oil production in 2005 was 6·1 m tonnes. Proven oil reserves in 2005 were estimated at 0·7 billion barrels. The production of natural gas in 2005 was 12·0 bn. cu. metres. With proven reserves of 170 bn. cu. metres. Italy is not rich in mineral production. Only sulphur and mercury produce surplus of exports.
Agriculture and Industry
Agriculture accounted for 2·6% of GDP in 2002. As per 2002 data there were 8·29 m ha of arable land and 2·78 m ha of permanent crops. Organic crops were grown in 1·17 m ha. in 2003. It is the third largest after Australia and Argentina representing 8·0% of all farmland. It may be noted here that Italy is the second largest producer of sheep’s milk after China. The Industry accounted 27·3% and services 70·1 of GDP in 2002; the leading companies of Italy are Eni (an integrated oil company) Intesa Sanpaola (US $ 90·0 billion) and Uni Credito Italiano (US $ 89·7 billion).
Major Tourist Places
As many as 43 sites in Italy have been included in UNESCO’s World Heritage List. The major tourist places worthseeing in Italy are—The Rock Drawings Valcamonica near Brescia Santa Maria delle grazie with the Last Supper by Leonardo da Vinci San Paulo Fuori Le Maura Historic Centre of Florence, Venice and its Lagoon, the Mantua and Sabbioneta Syracuse and the Rocky Neoropolis of Pantalica, Genoa, Val d’ Orcia the city of Verona, Villa Adriana, Cilento and Vallo di Diano National Park, Su Nuraxi di Barumini, Villa Romana del Casale, Cathedral Torre Civica and Piazza Grande, Modena, Trulli Alberobello, Crespi d’ Adda, Archaelogical Area of Agrigento, the 18th centuy Royal Palace at Caserta with the Park and the Historic Centre of Rome and the Rhaetian Railway in the Albula/Bernia Landscapes. P.Darpan
Constitution and Government
The Constitution dating from 1948 declares a democratic republic founded on work. Parliament consists of the Chamber of Deputies and the Senate; the Chamber of Deputies, elected for five years consist of 630 deputies. The Senate is also elected for five years term on regional basis having at least seven senators from each region. The President is elected in a joint session of Chamber and Sentate. The Speaker of the Senate acts as the VicePresident. It may be mentioned that efforts were made to create a new Constitution in 1998 but failed. There is a constitutional court consisting of 15 appointed judges vested with wide ranging judicial powers.
PD/December/2010/1065
“Talking much about oneself can also be a means to conceal oneself.”
Annual Report, 2009-10
Progress in Animal Husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries : In a Nutshell
Undoubtedly ! Animal Husbandry and Dairy Development plays a dominent role in the rural economy in supplementing the income of rural households, particularly the landless, small and marginal farmers. The contribution of livestock sector to the food basket in the form of milk, eggs and meat has been immense in fulfilling the animal protein requirement of ever-growing human population @ 1·9% annually. However, the contribution of livestock and fisheries sectors to the total GDP during 2007-08 and 2008-09 was 5·21% and 4·07 per cent, respectively. However (2009-10) Agriculture and Allied Sectors share remained 17% in India’s total GDP (Gross Domestic Products). India is endowed with the largest livestock population in the world. It accounts for 57% of the world’s buffalo population and 14% of the cattle (cows) population. As per the last (17th) Livestock Census (2003) done at each 5 years, the country has about 18·5 crore cattle and 9·8 crore buffaloes. However, the data for 18th Livestock Census, 2008 are not yet declared/published. The research and development (R&D) activities for 4 major constraints experienced by the farmers related to breed, feed, fodder and health care i.e., 4’ ing points (Breeding, Feeding, Heating and Weeding i.e., cickout diseased/ poor cattles) are under progress by the Deptt. of AH, Dairying and Fisheries (GOI). Based on the Annual Report (2009-10) of the Department of Animal Husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries—Ministry of Agriculture, Govt. of India–GOI, several R&D programmes & initiatives have been done, those can be highlighted as : overall charge of Minister of Agriculture (GOI) and the administrative head of the Deptt. is the Secretary (A D F—Animal Husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries). The Deptt. Secretary is assisted by AHC (Animal Husbandry Commissioner), 4 Joint Secretary and 1 Adviser (Statistics).
? FOREST — Stands/gives us : F = Food, O = O2, R = Rains, E = Environmental protection, S = Soil conservation and T = Timber. ?
4 major constraints in livestock sector experienced by farmers— The 4 constraints are related to breed, feed and fodder, health care and remunerative products price. The contribution of livestock Dairying and fisheries sectors to the total GDP was remained 4·07% during 2008-09, as against 5·21% during 2007-08, indicating decreasing trend. As per the ‘17th Livestock Census-2003’ (being done at each 5 years interval, however, the data of ‘18th Livestock Census2008’ are not yet announced)— the total livestock population was 485 million numbers (and 489 million no’s poultry), of which 185·2 cattle, 97·9 buffalos, 124·4 goats, 61·5 sheep etc. (all million no’s). Central Cattle Development Organisations—CCBF (Central Cattle Breeding Farms) are 7 in no’s in India namely; at Alamadhi (Tamil Nadu), Andeshnagar (U.P.), Chiplima and Sunabeda (Orissa), Dhamrod (Gujarat), Hessarghatta (Karnataka) and Suratgarh (Rajasthan). These centres are producing good quality cattle and buffalo breeds, like; bull calves from Tharparkar, Red Sindhi, Jursey, Hostein Friesian and cross breed cattle and from Surti and Murrah buffaloes. The CFSPTI (Central Frozen Semen Production and Training Institute) Hessarghatta (Karnataka)—a premier institute, produces frozen semen of cattle and buffaloes for use in AI (Artificial Insemination). During 2008-09, this institute produced 8·66 lakh doses of frozen semen and provided training to 277 persons in Frozen Semen Technology and Andrology.
Functions—Deptt. looks on all matters relating to livestock production, preservation, protection and improvement of stocks, Dairy developments as well to Delhi Milk Scheme (DMS) and NDDB (National Dairy Development Board). Deptt. of AH, Dairying and Fisheries (under Ministry of Agriculture) came into existence on Feb. 1, 1991 by merger of 2 divisions–Deptt. of AH and Cooperation viz., AH and Dairying Deptt–into a separate Deptt. Fisheries Division was transferred to this Deptt. on Oct. 10, 1997. National Agriculture Policy 2007—This National Policy for farmers focuses on improving the socio-economic status and well being of farmers, rather than just on production through changing the old attitudes and actions by enhancing their capacity to invest in farm related activities. The main goals of the National Policy for Farmers are : to protect land and water resources, improve biodiversity, proper adoption of farming systems for sustained increase in productivity, profitability to achieve Second Evergreen Revolution through strengthening the biodiversity of crops, farm animals, fish and FOREST trees.
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Livestock/Animal Husbandry Sector
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Major Achievements / Activities and Initiatives
Organisational set-up/Infrastructure and Functions of the Deptt. of A.H., Dairying and Fisheries (Ministry of Agriculture, GOI) ? The Deptt. of A.H., Dairying and Fisheries (GOI) is under the
PD/December/2010/1066
“The irrationality of a thing is no argument against its existence, rather a condition of it.”
Present Scenario of Deptt. AH, Dairying and Fisheries (GOI)
Animal Husbandry (AH)
? India’s rank in world : * Buffaloes—1st * Cattle and Goats—2nd * Sheep—3rd * Ducks—4th * Chickens—5th * Camel population—6th ? Livestock and Fisheries : Share in GDP (2008-09)—4·07% ? Livestock population (million No’s) (17th Census 2003) : * Cattle—185·2 * Buffaloes—97·9 * Total Livestock—485 * Poultry—489 ? Employment Generation : * 7% work force (Rural Areas) * 5·8% (Rural and Urban Areas) ?
Dairying
Fisheries
? India—the Largest milk producer ? India’s rank in World— in world * IInd fresh water fish ? Milk Production (2008-09)— * IIIrd fish producer 108·50 million tonnes ? Fish Production (2008-09) ? Milk availability—(2008-09) 258 Lakh tonnes g/capita/day (265 g) world * Marine—29·72 average * Inland—46·36 ? Wool production (million kg, * Total—76·08 2008-09)—42·7 ? Fisheries Sector—14·49 ? Egg Production (2008-09)—55·6 million people–livelihood billion no’s ? Growth in Milk Production— 4·3% annual
Semen production in India has increased from 22 million straws (1999-2000) to 46 million straws (2008-09) and number of inseminations has increased from 20 million to 44 million in respective year. So also, the conception rate has also increased from 20% to 35%. NBAGR (National Bureau of Animal Genetics Resources/ Researches) is located at Karnal (Haryana). Feed and Fodder Development : ? Optimum and efficient utilization of feed and fodder resources holds key to successful commercial livestock production. ? The cultivated fodder area is nearly 4·6% of the total cultivable area. The total area under permanent pastures and grasslands is about 12·4 million hectares; besides 15·6 million hectares is under wastelands, available for grazing. Poultry Development : ? Among top three countries of the world in poultry egg production, India is producing 55·6 billion eggs in numbers (2008-09)—as per Livestock Census-2003, and Rs. 422 crore were earned through export of poultry and poultry products.
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Polyclinics / Hospitals / Dispensaries—A network of 27,562 polyclinics / hospitals / dispensaries and 25,195 Veterinary Aid Centres is existed in the country, besides 25 Disease Diagnostic Laboratories. The Livestock Insurance—A full fledged scheme was approved on Nov. 20, 2008, in newly selected districts on regular basis. This scheme covers 300 selected distts from Dec. 10, 2009.
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Since 2004-05 to 2008-09 year, the average milk growth rate is 4·3%. IDDP (Intensive Dairy Development Programme)–Scheme modified in March, 2005 is being implemented in hilly and backward areas as well as in districts, which received less than Rs. 50 lakh for dairy development under ‘Operation Flood Programme’. NDDB (National Dairy Development Board), Anand (Gujarat) set-up in 1965, is promoting and strengthening the cooperatives, animal breeding, animal nutrition and feed technology, animal health, milk quality/procurement/marketing etc. National Dairy Plan—It is strategic plan with proposed quality of Rs. 17, 371 crore to achieve a target of 180 million tonnes of milk production annualy by the year 2021-22. DMS (Delhi Milk Scheme)— Set-up in 1959, is supplying wholesome milk to the citizens of Delhi at reasonable prices to milk producers. This has a capacity of 5 lakh litres of milk per day and has also developed a website : http//dms.gov.in Operation Flood—To promote milk production, the operation flood programmes–completed in 3 phases (last phase upto 1996)
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Dairy Development
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The per capita per day milk availability was 258 g in the year 2008-09, as against 265 g world average. This has to increase, because, it is below world average. During 2008-09, the milk production was 108·5 million tonnes. India rank First in milk production in the world, as well as represents sustained growth in milk availability and milk products for the burgeoning/ever increasing population @ 1·9% of the country. Milk/Dairying sector is an important secondary source of income of millions of rural families, say; it provides employment and income generating opportunities.
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PD/December/2010/1067
“The visionary lies to himself, the liar only to others.”
were started under Dr. V. Kurean, 1st Chairman/Director of NDDB, Anand (Gujarat) and ‘Father of India’s White Revolution’ in milk sector. Fisheries Development
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Bangkok, Thailand–an organisation under FAO. Special Fisheries Package for Suicide Prone Distts In states of Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Kerala, the special programme is under process.
3. In the livestock sector, the major constraints experienced by the farmers are— (A) Breed only (B) Breed and Health Care only (C) Remunerative prices for that produce only (D) Breed, feed and fodder, health care and remunerative price for that produce—all of these four 4. The First Chairperson—as Director ‘Father of White Revolution’ of NDDB (National Dairy Development Board) Anand (Gujarat)–a premier Institute (set-up in 1965) and a statutory body corporate declared in 1987; was— (A) Dr. (Ms.) Amrita Patel (B) Dr. V. Kurean (C) Dr. B. K. Joshi (D) Dr. W. S. Lakra 5. The National Bureau of Animal Genetics Resources/Researches (Deptt. of AH, Dairying and Fisheries, Ministry of Agriculture, GOI) is located at— (A) Karnal (Haryana) (B) Kanpur (U.P.) (C) Jaipur (Rajasthan) (D) Farah, Mathura (U.P.)
CIFRI (Central Inland Fisheries Research Institute) Barrackpore Kolkata, West Bengal)—Director Dr. A. P. Sharma : Fisheries Survey of India, Mumbai; Central Fisheries Research and Training Centre (A deemed University under ICAR), Mumbai; CICEF, Bangalore; CIFNET, Cochin; NIFPHTT, Cochin (Kerala) etc. Institutes are doing research and development (R&D) programmes related to fisheries development. N F D B (National Fisheries Development Board) Hq.–Hyderabad, was established in Sept. 2006. India is the Third largest fish producer and Second largest producer of fresh water fish in the world, presently (2008-09) producing 76·08 lakh tonnes fish, that provides livelihood to 14·49 million people in the country. About 7·75 lakh hectare water area was brought under scientific fish farming and 9·39 lakh fish farmers/fishermen were also trained in improved practices and 13·19 lakh persons benefited till 2008-09 under development of Freshwater Aquaculture. 7 fishing harbours, 62 minor fishing harbours and 194 fish landing centres have been takenup for implementation in various Coastal/States/UTs.
Summary
From the above progress made under the Deptt. of AH, Dairying and Fisheries (GOI) and the new Initiatives taken during 2009-10, it can very well be summarised in a nutshell that : (i) India is the largest milk producer (108·5 million tonnes during 2008-09) in the world, with 258 g/ day/capita milk availability against 265 g world average, recording 4·3% average annual growth rate of milk. (ii) The ‘Father of Milk Revolution’ and First Chairperson of NDDB, Anand; Gujarat, was Dr. Vargese Kurean and made a good contribution in milk sector. (iii) The attention is being made on major 4 constraints of farmers namely; Breed, Feed and Fodder, Health Care and Remunerative product price. (iv) India ranks in world livestock population-I (Buffaloes), II (Cattle/Goats), III (sheep), IV (Ducks), V (Chickens) and VI-Camel and so also III (fish) and II (Fresh water fish) producer. (V) Fisheries sector provides livelihood to 14·49 million people in India. Thus, in all, the research and development activities by the Deptt. of AH, Dairying and Fisheries are quite encouraging in respective various fields of livestock/dairying/fisheries.
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Answers
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P.Darpan
Other Activities
Empowerment of Women Women are actively involve in allied fisheries activities like; fish seed collection, mussels collection, sea weeds, fish marketing, fish processing and product development etc. Deptt. of AH, Dairying and Fisheries (GOI) is giving emphasis on training to women. International Cooperation IDA (International Dairy Association) since-2007; Animal Production and Health Commission for the Asia and the Pacific (APHCA),
Objective Questions
1. The per capita milk availability (g/day) in India (during 2008-09) remained as (compared to world average 265 g/day/capita)— (A) 258 (B) 150 (C) 125 (D) below 100 2. The contribution of livestock and fisheries sectors to the total GDP (Gross Domestic Products) during 2008-09 was— (A) 2·50% (B) 3·00% (C) 4·07% (D) None of these “To forget one’s purpose is the commonest form of stupidity.”
PD/December/2010/1068
Profile
International Organisation
ORGANISATION FOR THE PROHIBITION OF CHEMICAL WEAPONS (OPCW)
Established on — Headquarters — Member States — Official Languages — Type of Organisation
The Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW) is an international organisation located in the Hague Netherlands. The organisation promotes and verifies the adherence to the Chemical Weapons Convention which prohibits the use of chemical weapons and requires their destruction. The verification consists both of evaluation of declarations by members states and on site inspections. Logo of OPCW April 29, 1997 The Hague, Netherlands 188 Member States English, French, Russian, Chinese, Spanish, Arabic weapons. It is also the most expensive aspect of the convention’s implementation. Destruction has to be carried out at highly specialised facilities by adopting state of the–art technology to ensure that the risk to people and to environment is kept to a minimum at every stage. Non-Proliferation—Each state party shall adopt the necessary measures to ensure that toxic chemicals and their precursors are only developed, produced otherwise acquired, retained, transferred or use within its territory or in any other place under its jurisdiction or control for purposes not prohibited Ahmet Uzumcu under this convention. Assistance and Protection—All Director-General of OPCW members states have pledged to provide assistance and protection to follow Member States threatened by the use of chemical weapons or attacked with chemical weapons. International Cooperation—The organisation’s international cooperation programmes focus on capacity building for the peaceful applications of chemistry in areas which are relevant to the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC). Universality—Adherence to the chemical weapons convention demonstrates a state’s commitment to disarmament and international cooperation and helps to reinforce its position in the mainstream of international politics. National Implementation—The Secretariats’ implementation support programme helps States Parties to meet their obligations under Article VII of the Convention. This includes establishing National Authorities for effective liaison with the OPCW; taking necessary steps to enact legislation including penal legislation and to take administrative measures to implement the convention.
Chemical Weapons Convention
The Chemical Weapons Convention (The Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production, Stockpiling) and use of Chemical Weapons and on their Destruction aims to eliminate an entire category of weapons of mass destruction by prohibiting the development, production, acquisition, stockpiling, retention, transfer or use of chemical weapons by State Parties. The Preamble to the convention reads—The States Parties to this Convention—Determined to act with a view to achieving effective progress towards general and complete disarmament under effective international control including the prohibition and elimination of all types of weapons of mass destruction—Desiring to contribute to the realization of the purposes and principles of the Charter of the United Nations. A unique feature of the Chemical Weapons Convention is its incorporation of the challenge inspection whereby any state party in doubt about another State Party’s compliance can request the Director-General to send an inspection team. Under the CWC’s challenge inspection procedure, States Parties have committed themselves to the principle of any time, anywhere inspections with no right of refusal.
Responsibilities of OPCW
The Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW) is the implementing body of the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC or Convention) the OPCW is given the mandate to achieve the object and purpose of the convention to ensure the implementation of its provisions, including those for internal verification of compliance with it, and to provide a forum for consultation and cooperation among State Parties.
Structure of the Organisation
The principal body is the Conference of State Parties which is normally convened yearly and in which all countries participate and have equal voting rights.
Work of CWC
Demilitarisation—The most important obligation under the convention is the destruction of chemical
PD/December/2010/1069
“When one has much to put into them, a day has a hundred pockets.”
Countries are generally represented in the conference by a permanent representative to the organisation. The conference decides on all main topics regarding the organisation (e.g., taking retaliating measures) and the convention (approving guidelines. imposing retaliating measures against members. The Executive Council is the executive organ of the organisation and consist of 41 state parties which are appointed by the conference on a 2 years term. The Technical Secretariat applies most of the activities mandated by the Council and is the body where most of employees of organisation work. The Executive Council meets regularly for sessions and meetings. The Council’s practice has been to hold four to six regular sessions annually.
full compliance by all States Parties with all the provisions of the convention are necessary to the achievement of the global ban on chemical weapons. The Action Plan on the Universality of the CWC adopted during the 23rd Meeting of the Executive Council in 2003. Some of the items mentioned in the Action Plan include the designation of points of contact by States Parties, on a voluntary and informal basis, in all regions and sub-regions relevant for the effective promotion of universality, to assist regularly in the implementation of this Action Plan and for the purposes of effective coordination.
Subsidiary Bodies
The Chemical Weapons Convention provides for the establishment of three subsidiary bodies to aid the three main organs of the OPCW in their work : The Scientific Advisory Board, the Advisory Body on Administrative and Financial Issues and the Confidentiality Commission. The Scientific Advisory Board (SAB)—a group of independent experts—are mandated to assess relevant scientific and technological developments and report on such subjects to the Director-General. As a subsidiary organ of the Conference of the States Parties the main function of the Confidentiality Commission is to settle any disputes between States Parties related to confidentiality. The Advisory Body on Administrative and Financial Issues (ABAF) meets regularly to advise both the Technical Secretariat and the States Parties on issues relating to OPCW programmes and budgets. P.Darpan
OPCW Mission Statement
The mission of the OPCW is to implement the provisions of the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) in order to achieve the OPCW’s vision of a world that is free of chemical weapons and of the threat of their use, and in which cooperation in chemistry for peaceful purposes for all is fostered. In doing this ultimate aim is to contribute to international security and stability, to general and complete disarmament, and to global economic development. There are four broad aims underlying this mission—(i) To ensure a credible and transparent regime for verifying the destruction of chemical weapons and to prevent re-emergence while protecting legitimate national security and proprietary interests; (ii) To provide protection and assistance against chemical weapons; (iii) To encourage international cooperation in peaceful uses of chemistry and (iv) To bring about universal membership of the OPCW by facilitating international cooperation and national capacity building. Two fundamental principles underline this approach. The first is the centrality of the CWC’s multilateral character. The second is the equal protection of the provisions of the CWC to all States Parties. All work is guided and supported by the internal vision of this organisation.
Decision-making
In accordance with the Rules of Procedure of the Council adopted by the conference at its First Session, the Council generally take decisions on matters of substance by a two-thirds majority vote and a simple majority of all its members shall decide on questions of procedure. The one exception concerns the Executive Councils’ power to stop a challenge inspection from going forward. That decision can only be taken by a three-quarter majority of all the Executive Council members. In practice the Council has generally been guided by the principle of consensus and thus far has resorted to the vote on only on one occasion, in relation to an administrative matter.
Universal Adherence Weapons Convention
to
the
Chemical
The First Review Conference stressed the importance of universal adherence by all states to the convention, and of full compliance by all State Parties with all the provisions and requirements of the convention. The First Review Conference was convinced that Universality and
PD/December/2010/1070
“When you stare into the abyss the abyss stares back at you.”
Multiple Choice Questions
Current Questionnaire
1. The moto of Commonwealth Games 2010 was— (A) Come out and play (B) Jeeyo, Utho, Badho, Jeeto (C) We are all together (D) United world 2. Commonwealth Games 2010 Anthem was— (A) Jeeyo, Utho, Badho, Jeeto (B) Come out and play (C) One People, One Cause (D) None of the above 3. Which of the following was not the party involved in Ayodhya land dispute case of which judgement was recently pronounced by Lucknow Bench of Allahabad High Court ? (A) Sunni Waqf Board (B) Nirmohi Akhara (C) The Party for Ram Lalla (D) Vishwa Hindu Parishad 4. Which of the following countries were recently visited by President Smt. Pratibha Devisingh Patil ? (A) Laos (B) Cambodia (C) Both of the above (D) None of the above 5. With which of the following countries did India recently agree to set up a joint venture to co-develop and produce a new Multi-role Transport Aircraft (MTA) ? (A) Japan (B) Russia (C) U.S.A. (D) Poland 6. Which of the following committees recently probed misappropriation charges against Calcutta High Court Judge Soumitra Sen in the removal proceeding initiated by Parliament ? (A) B. Sudarshan Reddy Committee (B) Sri Krishna Committee (C) Meera Seth Committee (D) None of the above 7. India’s rank in Global Competitiveness Report is— (A) 41st (B) 31st (C) 51st (D) 21st 8. India recently signed a Pipeline deal with— (A) Tajikistan (B) Turkmenistan (C) Kazakhstan (D) Uzbekistan 9. India recently concluded final round of negotiations on a comprehensive economic cooperation agreement with ? (A) N. Korea (B) Japan (C) South Korea (D) U.S.A. 10. India has emerged in the world as— (A) Third most powerful nation (B) Second most powerful nation (C) Fourth most powerful nation (D) Second most powerful nation 11. The term Khymer Rouge which recently in news is associated with— (A) Laos (B) Cambodia (C) Malaysia (D) Indonesia 12. General Than Shwe who recently visited China is the military ruler of— (A) Thailand (B) Myanmar (C) Laos (D) Vietnam 13. Which of the following recently signed Arctic Border Pact ? (A) Russia-Norway (B) Norway-Sweden (C) Russia-Finland (D) Sweden-Finland 14. Veils (Burqas) were recently banned by— (A) English Parliament (B) French Senate (C) Swedish Parliament (D) Norways’ Parliament 15. Saudi Arabia has recently clinched Mega Arms Deal with— (A) European Union (B) U.S.A. (C) Russia (D) Japan 16. Where was recently a referendum held to support constitutional reforms ? (A) Iran (B) Iraq (C) Saudi Arabia (D) Turkey 17. Jiaolong which made a trip into deep sea recently belongs to— (A) U.S.A. (B) China (C) Australia (D) Russia 18. In World University Ranking which of the following has topped ? (A) The University of Cambridge (B) Harvard University (C) Yale University (D) University of Oxford 19. The highest suicide rate in India is in the state of— (A) Sikkim (B) Assam (C) Meghalaya (D) Tripura 20. P.J. Thomas is the new— (A) Central Vigilance Commissioner (B) Chief Election Commissioner (C) Auditor General of India (D) Accountant General of India 21. Justice Nissar Ahmed Kakru has been appointed as the New Chief Justice of— (A) (B) (C) (D) Andhra Pradesh Jammu & Kashmir Tamil Nadu Kerala
PD/December/2010/1071
“You need chaos in your soul to give birth to a dancing star.”
22. The 2009 Dadasaheb Phalke Award winner is— (A) Subhash Ghai (B) D. Ramanaidu (C) Sharmila Tagore (D) Amitabh Bachchan 23. Under the 57th National Film Awards, which of the following bagged Best Movie Award ? (A) Paa (B) Kutty Srank (C) 3 Idiots (D) Putaani Party 24. The best actor award has been bagged under the 57th National Film Awards by— (A) Amitabh Bachchan (B) Shahrukh Khan (C) Amir Khan (D) Salman Khan 25. The best actress award under the 57th National Film Awards for 2009 has been bagged by— (A) Rani Mukherjee (B) Vidya Balan (C) Ananya Chatterjee (D) Kareena Kapoor 26. The award for best director under 57th National Awards for 2009 has been conferred on— (A) Rituparno Ghosh (B) Amir Khan (C) Priyadarshan (D) None of the above 27. The 43rd Jnanpith Award 2007 has been conferred on— (A) Akhlaq Shahryar Khan (B) ONV Kurup (C) Arundhati Roy (D) None of the above 28. The 44th Jnanpith Award for 2008 has been bagged by— (A) ONV Kurup (B) Akhlaq Shahryar Khan (C) Sir Mota Singh (D) None of the above 29. National Education Day is observed on— (A) November 8 (B) November 11 (C) November 7 (D) November 6
30. International Day for Tolerance is observed on— (A) November 8 (B) November 9 (C) November 16 (D) November 23 31. Climatopolics : How our cities Will Thrive in the Hotter Future’ is the book written by— (A) Mathew Kahn (B) Mahmood Farooqui (C) Philip Dray (D) Barack Obama 32. Who has been named as President-Elect of BCCI ? (A) Sharad Pawar (B) N. Srinivasan (C) Chirayu Amin (D) Shashank Manohar 33. The winner of recently-held Champions League Twenty-20 Tournament is— (A) Chennai Super Kings (B) Eastern Cape Warriors (C) Both jointly (D) None of the above 34. The winner in US Open 2010 (Tennis Championship) for men’s singles title is— (A) Roger Federer (B) Rafael Nadal (C) Novak Djokovik (D) Bob Bryan 35. The winner in US Open 2010 (Tennis Championship) for women’s singles title is— (A) Kim Clijsters (B) Vera Zvonareva (C) Liezel Huber (D) Kveta Peschke 36. Mary Kom of India won recently World Boxing Championship Title for the successive— (A) Fourth time (B) Fifth time (C) Sixth time (D) Third time 37. Pankaj Advani has recently bagged National Snooker Title for— (A) Fourth time (B) Fifth time (C) Third time (D) Second time
38. Who recently clinched Italian Grand Prix and Singapore Grand Prix ? (A) Fernando Alonso (B) Sebastian Vettel (C) Casey Stoner (D) None of the above 39. Sushil Kumar of India recently became the first Indian to grab gold medal in— (A) World Wrestling Championship (B) World Boxing Championship (C) World Swimming Championship (D) None of the above 40. Which of the following Indians has been forecast to be the richest man in the world in 2014 by Forbes magazine ? (A) Mukesh Ambani (B) Ratan Tata (C) Anil Ambani (D) Azim Premji
Answers with Explanations
Continued on Page 1074
PD/December/2010/1072
“There is always some madness in love. But there is also always some reason in madness.”
Current Objective Questions
Trade and Industry
1. The new Chairman and Managing Director of National Housing Bank who took charge on September 15, 2010 is— (A) R. V. Verma (B) S. Sridhar (C) A. N. Tiwari (D) L. Radhakrishnan 2. Nobel for Economics 2010 has been shared by— (A) Two British and one US Economists (B) Two US and one British Economists (C) One US and one British Economists (D) All three US Economists 3. ‘Company of the Year’ award in Economic Times Corporate Excellency Awards 2010 goes to— (A) Maruti Suzuki (B) Renuka Sugars (C) L & T (D) Mahindra and Mahindra 4. ‘Tourism and Bio-diversity’ is/ was the theme of World Tourism Day (September 27) for the year— (A) 2009 (B) 2010 (C) 2011 (D) 2012 5. As per first advance estimates of Kharif crops for the year 2010-11 given by Agriculture Ministry, the total foodgrains have been estimated at— (A) 103·84 MT (B) 112·63 MT (C) 114·63 MT (D) 118·63 MT 6. Which of the following key rate has not been altered by RBI since 2003 ? (A) Bank Rate (B) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (C) Cash Reserve Ratio (D) Repo Rate 7. On October 15, 2010 government has launched the new NELP round for allocation, which is numbered as— (A) NELP-VII (B) NELP-VIII (C) NELP-IX (D) NELP-X 8. In Global Hunger Index 2010 released by International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI), India has been placed at— (A) 65th Rank (B) 66th Rank (C) 67th Rank (D) 68th Rank 9. In newly proposed Direct Tax Code the highest rate of individual income tax has been put at— (A) 20 per cent (B) 25 per cent (C) 30 per cent (D) 35 per cent 10. ‘BAFTA’ award is associated with— (A) Banking sector (B) Cinema (C) Insurance Sector (D) Tourism 11. Which of the following day has been declared as Income Tax Day ? (A) 18 July (B) 24 July (C) 16 August (D) 1 September 12. Which of the following public sector company has launched IPO in the share market to raise 15000 crore target ? (A) NTPC (B) Coal India Ltd. (C) BHEL (D) ONGC 13. For the session 2010-11 the new President of Indian Banks Association is— (A) Chanda Kochchar (B) Shikha Sharma (C) O. P. Bhatt (D) R. V. Verma 14. According to the Asian Development Bank Report for Urbanisation, India ranks at— (A) 10th Place (B) 26th Place (C) 34th Place (D) 39th Place 15. How many Indian Women have been included in the Forbes’ list of Top100 Powerful Women of the World ? (A) Only 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 16. RBI has divested its 71·5% share in NABARD to the government which reduces RBI’s holding in NABARD to— (A) Only one per cent (B) Only five per cent (C) Only 7·5 per cent (D) Only 10 per cent 17. RBI has decided to issue the new coins with ‘Commonwealth Games 2010-Delhi’ theme. The dominations of these coins will be— (A) (B) (C) (D) 1, 2 and 5 1 and 2 2 and 5 5 and 10
18. Which of the Rabi crop gets the maximum enhancement in Minimum Support Price for the year 2010-11 (to be marketed in 2011-12) ? (A) Wheat (B) Barley (C) Masoor Dal (D) Safflower Oilseed 19. For the crop season 2009-10, the MSP of wheat was fixed at 1100 per quintal. For the crop season 2010-11 it has been declared at— (A) (B) (C) (D) 1120 per quintal 1150 per quintal 1180 per quintal 1200 per quintal
20. Asian Development Bank has approved $ 132 million to Bihar for the development of— (A) Rural Roads (B) Electricity System (C) Primary Education (D) Child Health and Nutrition
PD/December/2010/1073
“Poets are shameless with their experiences: they exploit them.”
21. After the decision of Bombay High Court, the Income Tax department has levied the revised tax liability on Vodafone of the value ? (A) 12000 crore (B) 11900 crore (C) 11218 crore (D) 11000 crore 22. Which of the following state has registered the maximum growth in Gross State Domestic Product in the year 2009-10 ? (A) Chhattisgarh (B) Kerala (C) Gujarat (D) Goa 23. World Investment Report is annually published by— (A) IBRD (B) WTO (C) IMF (D) UNCTAD 24. Which of the following Indian Private Company is the biggest employer ? (A) TCS (B) Reliance Industries (C) Wipro (D) ITC 25. Which of the following Indian Company gets the highest rank among Indian Companies included in Forbes-500 list for the year 2010 ? (A) ONGC (B) Indian Oil Corporation (C) Reliance Industries Ltd. (D) ONGC 26. What is the maximum investment limit for retail investors in any public issue as per the rules of SEBI ? (A) 50000 (B) 1,00000 (C) 2,00000 (D) 5,00000 27. Which of the following country has declared Broadband Service as the fundamental right in the country ? (A) Britain (B) Denmark (C) Finland (D) United States of America 28. Information Technology Act in India was introduced in the year— (A) 2000 (B) 2001 (C) 2002 (D) 2003
29. Shikha Sharma recently included in Forbes’ Top100 Powerful Women of the World list is associated with— (A) ICICI Bank (B) AXIS Bank (C) HDFC Bank (D) HSBC 30. Which of the following Petroleum product is fully under market-based price determination policy ? (A) Petrol (B) Diesel (C) Petrol, Diesel both (D) Petrol, Diesel and Kerosene
Answers
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Continued from Page 1072
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PD/December/2010/1074
“What is done out of love always takes place beyond good and evil.”
Q. 1. Answer the following 20 questions in one or two lines each : (A) Swami Vivekanand (B) Rani Lakshmi Bai (C) Reason for partition of Bengal in 1905 (D) Great Mountain wall of North (E) Population Density (F) State animal of Madhya Pradesh (G) Write the names of the latest five Chief Ministers of Madhya Pradesh. (H) Why is Rani Durgawati famous ? (I) Classify Madhya Pradesh on the basis of climate. (J) Explain the meaning of SMEs in India. (K) What is the common point in Articles 14 and 226 of Indian Constitution ? (L) How is the Election Commission of India constituted ? (M) What is Home Rule Movement (N) What do you mean by ‘Mixed Economy’ ? (O) What is ‘Hyde Act of 2006’ ? (P) What was Uruguay Round ? (Q) What is Yellow Revolution ? (R) What is vision 2020 for India ? (S) Why is C. K. Naidu famous ? (T) Why are Khajuraho temples famous ? Ans.
PD/December/2010/1075
Q. 2. Write short notes on any six of the following (100 words each)— (i) Impact of 1857 Revolt (ii) ‘Population description on the basis of religion’ released on December 9, 2004. (iii) Historical background of Indian Constitution. (iv) White Revolution Operation Flood of India. nd
(v) Jinnah and Muslim League (vi) Functions of Asian Development Bank (vii) Sardar Sarovar Project (viii) New Sports Policy of Madhya Pradesh Ans.
PD/December/2010/1076
Q. 3. Write notes on any four of the following : (i) Contribution of Madhya Pradesh in the struggle for independence. (ii) Naxalite movement in India (iii) Passing of Rowlatt Act and Jalianwala Bagh massacre. (iv) Recent estimates of economic growth rate in India by IMF and World Bank. (v) Soils of Madhya Pradesh (vi) Main points of new tourism policy of Madhya Pradesh. Ans.
PD/December/2010/1078
Q. 4. Answer any three of following questions : (i) Evaluate the contribution of Subhash Chandra Bose in the Indian Freedom Movement. (ii) Evaluate the steps taken by Central Government on the front of internal security. (iii) What is “Agreement on Agriculture” ? Why Doha Round Summit could not arrive at a final solution on this issue ? (iv) Explain the role of SocioReligious reforms in the 19th century. Ans.
PD/December/2010/1079
OR What is Global Financial Crisis ? How has it affected the economy of America and India ? Ans.
Q. 5. Write an essay on any one of the following : What is the problem of ragging in educational institutions of India ? Discussing the recommendations of Raghavan Committee, clarify how educational institutions contribute to stop Ragging. OR What do you know about ‘Right to Information’ Act ? How far is this Act able to control the corruption ?
PD/December/2010/1080
Solved Paper
UTTAR PRADESH G.I.C. FOR LECTURER SCREENING EXAM., 2009
Civics (Political Science) and General Studies
PART-I
Political Science
1. The theory of Natural Rights holds that— (A) Rights are a divine creation (B) Rights came from pre-civil society (C) Rights were granted by the king (D) Rights are granted by the Constitution 2. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below— Assertion (A) : The Marxist view of freedom is different from liberal individualist view of freedom. Reason (R) : According to Marxist view, freedom is not something that an individual can enjoy in isolation. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 3. Who among the following supports the principle of natural inequality ? (A) Polybius (B) Cicero (C) Rousseau (D) Plato 4. The ideal of ‘positive liberty’ was first conceived by— (A) Aristotle (C) Green (B) Hegel (D) Laski
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
List-I Justice is the interest of stronger. Justice is doing one’s own work which is in consonance with one’s own nature. Public utility is the sole origin of Justice. Justice means judicious distribution of primary goods. List-II
Assertion (A) : Justice is highest good of political life. Reason (R) : Justice provides man his due and sets right wrongs either by compensation or by punishment. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 10. The liberal thinker who had put forward the theory of “Social Engineering” is— (A) C. B. Macpherson (B) Karl J. Popper (C) John Rawls (D) L. T. Hobhouse 11. By the materialistic interpretation of history Marx explains— (A) The course of remains unchanged history
1. Rawls 2. Thrasymachus 3. Plato 4. Hume Codes : (a) (b) (c) (A) 1 2 3 (B) 2 4 1 (C) 3 2 4 (D) 2 3 4
(d) 4 3 1 1
6. The best adjustment of liberty and equality can be achieved in a regime of— (A) Liberalism (B) Socialism (C) Democratic Socialism (D) Idealism 7. “Political liberty without economic liberty is a myth.” Who has made this statement ? (A) Aristotle (B) T. H. Green (C) J. S. Mill (D) H. J. Laski 8. “The passion for equality made vain the hope for liberty.” Who has made this statement ? (A) J. S. Mill (B) Jeremy Bentham (C) V. I. Lenin (D) Lord Acton 9. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
(B) The course of history is determined by the leaders of society (C) The course of history is determined by the consciousness of men (D) The course of history is determined by the mode of production 12. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below— Assertion (A) : Marx is the only writer whose works can be termed scientific. Reason (R) : Where Marxism ends, Anarchism begins.
5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer, using the codes given below—
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Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 13. Who is the author of the famous book ‘History of Early Institutions’ ? (A) Proudhan (B) Maxey (C) Machiavelli (D) Sir Henry Maine 14. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below— Assertion (A) : Gandhi was against using the impure means. Reason (R) : According to him, impure means do not help in achieving the ends. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 15. If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, then whose decision is final ? (A) President’s decision (B) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court’s decision (C) Auditor and Comptroller General of India’s decision (D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha’s decision 16. Which of the following attributes of Gandhian theory of NonViolence are correct ? Select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. It is not passivity. 2. Its basic principle is truth. 3. It is the weapon of the weak. 4. It is a means of mass participation.
Codes : (A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4 17. Which of the following was not on the agenda of Non-cooperation Movement ? (A) To boycott foreign goods (B) To boycott law courts (C) To defy the laws of the land (D) To boycott elections under the Government of India Act, 1919 18. The alternative to socialism in Gandhian Philosophy is— (A) Non-violence (B) Trusteeship (C) Panchayati Raj (D) Truth 19. Which of the following books has not been written by Marx ? (A) The Communist Manifesto (B) Das Capital (C) Wealth of the Nations (D) The Critique of Political Economy 20. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below— Assertion (A) : There is no stable party system in India. Reason (R) : Indian political parties reflect the complexity of Indian society. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 21. Which one of the following is not a demerit of party system ? (A) Parties fight for their own interest (B) Party system destroys the individuality of man (C) Parties produce unnatural divisions (D) Parties harmonise the organs of Government
22. Which of the following statements are correct ? Select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. Pressure groups are different from Political parties. 2. Political parties and Pressure groups do not differ. 3. Pressure groups do not contest elections. 4. Pressure groups do not try to capture political power directly. Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 3, 2 and 4 23. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer, using the codes given below— (a) (b) (c) (d) List-I Charles Mariam M. P. Follet Arthur Bentley A. Appadorai
List-II 1. The Process of Government 2. The Substance of Politics 3. The New State 4. New Aspect of Politics Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 1 4 3 (C) 3 4 2 1 (D) 4 3 1 2 24. “Never has any one ruled on earth by basing his rule essentially other than the public opinion.” Who has made this statement ? (A) Jose Ortegag Gassel (B) J. S. Mill (C) Lord Bryce (D) Morris Ginsberg 25. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below— Assertion (A) : Political parties are the lifeline of Modern Politics. Reason (R) : Political Parties came into existence with the
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growth and development of representative institutions and expansion of suffrage. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 26. Who among the following tried to establish co-relation between party system and electoral system ? (A) H. J. Laski (B) M. Duverger (C) H. M. Finer (D) Lord Bryce 27. Who describes the pressure groups as the Third House of the Legislature ? (A) Lord Bryce (B) H. M. Finer (C) G. D. H. Cole (D) Dicey 28. “The State in which all authority and powers are vested in a single centre, whose will and agents are legally omnipotent over the whole area” is known as— (A) Unitary Government (B) Federal Government (C) Parliamentary Government (D) Presidential Government 29. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below— Assertion (A) : A federal system invariably provides for an independent judiciary. Reason (R) : It settles the disputes between the centre and the constituent units. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 30. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below— Assertion (A) : The growing strength of Central Government in a federal set-up is natural. Reason (R) : Five factors contribute to the growth of a powerful centre in the federation, namely, war politics, depression politics, Techno-politics, Grantsin-Aid politics and party politics. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 31. In Presidential Government, the President is— (A) Independent of the Legislature (B) Dependent on the Legislature (C) Dependent on the Judiciary (D) Bound by the advice of Council of Ministers 32. A Parliamentary Government cannot function without— (A) Written Constitution (B) Rigid Constitution (C) Political Parties (D) Independent Judiciary 33. Members of the Executive under Presidential System of Government— (A) Are drawn both the Houses of Legislature (B) Are taken from the popular House (C) Are not members of either House of Legislature (D) Become members of Legislature after their appointment as Ministers
34. Governments are classified as Parliamentary and Presidential on the basis of— (A) Relations between the Centre and the States (B) Relations between the Legislature and the Executive (C) Relations between the Executive and the Judiciary (D) All of the above 35. Who has opined that, “The Constitution limits the arbitrary actions of the Government” ? (A) Dicey (B) Rousseau (C) Garner (D) Strong 36. “A State without a Constitution would not be a State, but a regime of anarchy.” This is stated by— (A) Aristotle (B) Bryce (C) Jellineck (D) Dicey 37. Which of the following is not a feature of Unitary System of the Government ? (A) Administrative unity (B) Administrative empowerment (C) National unity (D) A coordination between national unity and Local self administration 38. Who raised the demand for ‘Swarajya’ for the first time through his writings ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy Ram Krishna Param Hans Swami Vivekanand Swami Dayanand Saraswati
39. During Civil Disobedience Movement, soldiers of Garhwal Regiment refused to fire on demonstrators at— (A) Amritsar (B) Dehradun (C) Nainital (D) Peshawar 40. Commenting on the sudden suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement in February 1922, who among the following remarked— “To sound the order of retreat just when public enthusiasm was reaching the boiling point was nothing short of a national calamity” ?
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(A) Motilal Nehru (B) Subhash Chandra Bose (C) C. R. Das (D) Mohammad Ali 41. Who wrote the book, ‘India Divided’ ? (A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (B) M. A. Jinnah (C) Sardar Patel (D) Shyama Prasad Mukherji 42. Whose time has been described as the ‘Seedling time of Indian Nationalism’ ? (A) Lord William Bentinck (B) Lord Rippon (C) Lord Lytton (D) Lord Curzon 43. By whom was the ‘Objectives Resolution’ presented in the Constituent Assembly of India ? (A) B. R. Ambedkar (B) G. B. Pant (C) Sardar Patel (D) Jawaharlal Nehru 44. Mahatma Gandhi’s first experience with mass movement in India was at— (A) Champaran (B) Bardoli (C) Chauri-chaura (D) Dandi 45. The Swadeshi Movement was launched— (A) As a protest against the partition of Bengal in 1905 (B) Following division of Congress in 1907 (C) Following Session the Lucknow
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Nehru Report Simon Commission Report Cripps Proposal Cabinet Mission Plan
48. Who was the first Woman President of Indian National Congress ? (A) Smt. Sarojini Naidu (B) Smt. Annie Besant (C) Smt. Kamla Nehru (D) Smt. Indira Gandhi 49. When was Mahatma Gandhi President of the Indian National Congress ? (A) 1923 (B) 1924 (C) 1925 (D) 1926 50. Who described for the first time, the revolt of 1857 as “The First War of Indian Independence” ? (A) V. D. Savarkar (B) R. C. Majumdar (C) Bipin Chandra (D) Sir John Lawrence 51. What was the real objective behind the ‘Partition of Bengal’ ? (A) Create a division among the ranks of Indian Nationalists (B) Stop the tide of Nationalism in Bengal (C) Build up separate Administrative units for better efficiency of administration (D) Appease the large majority of Muslims 52. The place where Navy openly revolted in 1946 against British rule in India is— (A) Bombay (Mumbai) (B) Calcutta (C) Madras (D) Cochin 53. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below— Assertion (A) : The Indian Independence Act, 1947 ended the British rule in India. Reason (R) : The Indian Independence Act, 1947 laid down a new constitution for India providing for every detail.
Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 54. Who among the following is called, “The Prophet of Indian Nationalism and Father of modern India.” ? (A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (B) Swami Vivekanand (C) Mahatma Gandhi (D) Jawaharlal Nehru 55. Which of the following statements about the Vice-President of India are correct ? Select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. He is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 2. He must be member of the Rajya Sabha for his election as Vice-President. 3. He is elected by the members of both the Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies. 4. If the President resigns or dies, the Vice President officiates as President for not more than six months. Codes : (A) 1 and 4 (C) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 (D) 3 and 4
(D) To mark the entry of Mahatma Gandhi in National Movement 46. Who among the following moderate leaders had been called, ‘a silver tongued orator’ ? (A) Dadabhai Naoroji (B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (C) Madan Mohan Malaviya (D) M. G. Ranade 47. Which one of the following proposed a three-tier polity for India ?
56. Who of the following linked the Directive Principles with a cheque payable at the convenience of the Bank ? (A) A. K. Aiyar (B) H. Kunzru (C) H. V. Kamath (D) K. T. Shah 57. Who among the following was elected President of India with second preference votes ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 58. Gyani Zail Singh Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy Zakir Hussain V. V. Giri
Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution put limi-
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tation on Legislative powers of Parliament and State Legislatures ? (A) Article 13 (B) Article 245 (C) Article 246 (D) All of the above 59. Which prominent leader had opposed the Champaran Satyagrah of 1917 because it was led by Mahatma Gandhi ? (A) N. G. Ranga (B) T. K. Madhavan (C) Champak Raman Pillai (D) E. M. S. Namboodiripad 60. Who among the following has the right to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of the Parliament without being a member of the Parliament ? (A) Solicitor-General of India (B) Attorney-General of India (C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India (D) Chief Justice of India 61. The guardianship of Indian Constitution is vested in— (A) The President (B) The Cabinet (C) The Lok Sabha (D) The Supreme Court 62. “India that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.” The word ‘Union’ is derived from the Constitution of— (A) U. S. A. (B) Switzerland (C) Canada (D) Australia 63. The President of India can be removed from his office by— (A) The Prime Minister (B) The Parliament (C) The Supreme Court (D) The Chief Election Commissioner 64. A Federal Court was established in India under the Act of— (A) 1892 (B) 1909 (C) 1919 (D) 1935 65. The Article of the Indian Constitution which empowers the Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship is—
(A) 8 (C) 10
(B) 9 (D) 11
66. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for Ad-hoc Judges in the Supreme Court ? (A) 124 (B) 125 (C) 126 (D) 127 67. Which of the following decides the disputes regarding the election of the President of India ? (A) The Rajya Sabha (B) The Lok Sabha (C) The Supreme Court (D) The Chief Election Commissioner 68. Which of the following words were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment ? (A) Republic, Sovereign (B) Secular, Democratic (C) Secular, Socialist (D) Democratic, Sovereign 69. While a resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration— 1. The Speaker shall have right to speak. 2. He shall not preside. 3. He shall be entitled to vote only in the first instance. 4. He shall not be present in the House. Select your answer from the codes— (A) 2 and 4 are correct (B) 1, 2, 3 are correct (C) Only 1 is correct (D) 2 and 3 are correct 70. Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution is related with— (A) Anti-Defection Provisions (B) Indian Languages (C) Panchayati Raj (D) Union List, State List and Concurrent List 71. In Indian Federation the division of power in three lists has been derived from— (A) U. S. A. (B) Canada (C) Australia (D) Government of India Act, 1935
72. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below— Assertion (A) : The Prime Minister in the Indian Political system is very powerful. Reason (R) : There is Parliamentary system of Government in India. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 73. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below— List-I (a) (b) (c) (d) 1. 2. 3. Poona Pact August Proposal Wardha Proposal Wavell Plan List-II 8 August 1940 14 July 1942 4 June 1945
4. 26 September 1932 Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 1 3 4 (B) 4 1 2 3 (C) 1 2 3 4 (D) 3 4 1 2 74. Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj System ? (A) 71st (C) 73rd (B) 72nd (D) 74th
75. Who among the following Congress members rejected the Mountbatten Plan ? (A) (B) (C) (D) J. B. Kripalani G. B. Pant Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Sardar Patel
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76. In Which part of the Indian Constitution relations between the Union and the States have been mentioned ? (A) Part X (B) Part XI (C) Part XIV (D) Part XV 77. What is true about the Governor of a State ? (A) He has no discretionary power (B) Validity of his discretion can be questioned (C) For his discretionary functions he is not responsible to the President (D) High Court may inquire into the advice tendered by Ministers to the Governor 78. Which of the following States was the first to establish the Panchayat Raj Institutions ? (A) Rajasthan (B) Maharashtra (C) Bihar (D) U. P. 79. The Constitutional Government means— (A) Government according to the terms of the Constitution (B) Government based on the rule of the law (C) A Democratic Government (D) All these 80. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can the Parliament legislate on any subject in the State list ? (A) Article 229 (B) Article 230 (C) Article 248 (D) Article 249 81. A constitutional reason to make the centre strong in India is— (A) Directive Principles of State Policy (B) Centralised Planning (C) Zonal Councils (D) Union List 82. One common point of agreement between Indian and U.S. Federalism is that— (A) Residuary powers belong to the Centre (B) Residuary powers belong to the States
(C) There is provision for concurrent jurisdiction in certain matters (D) The Supreme Court is the arbiter in the event of conflict between the Centre and the States 83. Which one of the following qualifications is common to Presidential candidates in both India and the U. S. A. ? (A) Citizenship (B) Minimum age (C) Residential requirement (D) Eligibility to become member of the popular house of the legislature 84. Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India may be made by the President— (A) According to his own judgement (B) On the request of the Lok Sabha (C) On the recommendation of the Prime Minister (D) On the written advice of the Council of Ministers 85. The system of Judicial review is found in— (A) Only in India (B) Only in Britain (C) Only in U.S.A. (D) In both India and U.S.A. 86. Who has referred Indian Federation as ‘Paramount Federation’ ? (A) C. H. Alexandrowicz (B) M. P. Sharma (C) K. Santhanam (D) A. C. Banerjee 87. Dadabhai Naoroji has described his theory of ‘Drain of Wealth’ in the book— (A) Poverty and unBritish rule in India (B) Exploitative nature of British Rule in India (C) British Rule and its consequences (D) Nature of British Colonial Rule 88. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (A) State is abstract but the government is concrete
(B) Society is wider than the State (C) Government is the agent of the State (D) Membership of the State is optional 89. “It is true that there is no State where there is no over-ruling force. But the exercise of force does not make a State otherwise a pirate ship or the mutinous army would be a State.” Who has made this statement ? (A) Fredrick Angels (B) Robert MacIver (C) H. J. Laski (D) Max Weber 90. Which of the following thinkers does not regard territory as an essential element of the State ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Plato Locke Maotse Tung Seeley
91. Who among the following opines that ‘public service’ and not sovereignty is the essential characteristic of the State ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Otto Von Gierke Leon Duguit Ernest Barker A. D. Lindsay
92. “The State is the product and manifestation of the irreconcilibility of class antagonism.” Who holds the above view ? (A) Marx (B) Lenin (C) Bakunin (D) Stalin 93. The word ‘Polis’ relates to— (A) Police (B) Civil Administration (C) City State (D) Public opinion 94. “Liberty is increased when sovereignty is put into the right hands.” Who has made this statement ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Friedman Hayek I. Berlin L. Strauss
95. Who among the following is, associated with ‘Civic-Sovereignty’ Theory ?
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96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101. Identify the correct chronological sequence of the following political philosophers. (A) Hobbes, Locke, Rousseau and Montesquieu Which one of the following (B) Hobbes, Rousseau, Montesideologies considers political quieu and Locke party as ‘a vanguard of the social (C) Locke, Hobbes, Montesclass’ ? quieu and Rousseau (A) Idealism (D) Hobbes, Locke, Montes(B) Individualism quieu and Rousseau (C) Fabianism 102. Given below are two statements, (D) Marxism one is labelled as Assertion (A) Given below are two statements, and the other is labelled as one is labelled as Assertion (A) Reason (R). In the context of and the other is labelled as these statements, select the Reason (R). In the context of correct answer from the codes these statements, select the mentioned below— correct answer from the codes Assertion (A) : According to mentioned below— Monists, the sovereignty is Assertion (A) : The concept of supreme, absolute and unlimisovereignty could not be deveted. loped during Middle Ages. Reason (R) : In every full-fledged Reason (R) : The social system or independent state, there is an during the Middle Ages was ultimate authority, an authority decentralized and permeated by from which there is no appeal. Christianity. Codes : Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation (R) is the correct explanation of (A) of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 103. Who defined sovereignty as the Who among the following makes supreme authority which is a distinction between society and independent of any other earthly state ? authority ? (A) Pareto (A) Kelsen (B) MacIver (B) Willoughby (C) Bryce (C) Oppenheim (D) Charles Merriam (D) Bentham Which pair is not correctly 104. The form of oath of office for a matched ? Minister for the Union in India is (A) George Sorel —Syndicalism enshrined in— (B) Hegel —Individualism (A) First Schedule of the Indian (C) G.D.H. Cole Constitution —Guild socialism (B) Second Schedule of the (D) Laski —Pluralism Indian Constitution (C) Third Schedule of the Indian Who among the following was Constitution the first to propound the Plura(D) Fourth Schedule of the listic Theory of Sovereignty ? Indian Constitution (A) H. J. Laski (B) Jean Bodin 105. Match List-I with List-II and (C) MacIver select the correct answer by using the codes given below— (D) Otto Von Gierke (A) (B) (C) (D) John Devey John Strachy R. H. Tawney S. G. Hobson
List-I (Author) (a) (b) (c) (d) Robert Nozick D. L. Hobman Titmuss Alexander Entreaves List-II (Book) 1. 2. 3. 4. Essay on Welfare State The Welfare State Anarchy, State and Utopia The Notion of the State (a) 3 3 2 4 (b) 1 2 1 2 (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 4 3 1
Codes : (A) (B) (C) (D)
106. Who among the following thinkers made the statement that, “Covenant without sword are but words and of no strength to secure men at all.” ? (A) Pufendorf (B) Hobbes (C) Locke (D) Rousseau 107. Which theory advocates only ‘night watchman role’ of the State ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Welfare State Theory Liberal Theory Socialist Theory Idealist Theory
108. Who has said that a welfare state is “a state that provides for its citizens a wide range of social services” ? (A) G.D.H. Cole (B) H. J. Laski (C) Abraham (D) T. W. Kent 109. Who among the following has maintained that the modern liberal democratic state has become an industrial state ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Galbraith MacPherson Keynes Roosevelt
110. Which one of the following ideologies aims at the spiritualisation of Politics ? (A) Marxism (B) Socialism (C) Sarvodaya (D) Pluralism
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111. The term ‘Socialism’ was first (A) Mill (B) Green used by— (C) Hobbes (D) Hegel (A) Robert Owen 117. Which theory holds that, “the (B) Karl Marx right of the personality is the (C) Lenin most important right of the (D) Bernstein man” ? 124. (A) The Theory of Natural Rights 112. Which of the following thinkers is associated with Evolutionary (B) The Legal Theory of Rights Socialism ? (C) The Historical Theory of (A) Lenin (B) Gramsci Rights (C) Bernstien (D) Engels (D) The Idealistic Theory of
Codes : (A) (B) (C) (D) 1 3 3 1 2 4 2 2 3 1 1 4 4 2 4 3
Rights 113. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) 118. Hobbes gives individual the 125. The first President of the and the other is labelled as Sovereign Constituent Assembly right to disobey the sovereign Reason (R). In the context of for the Dominion of India was— for— these statements, select the (A) C. Rajagopalachari (A) Self preservation correct answer from the codes (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (B) Protection of Freedom mentioned below— (C) Rajendra Prasad (C) Removing oppression Assertion (A) : The ‘positive (D) Sachidananda Sinha (D) Removing injustice libralism’ assigns certain func126. The Pakistan resolution was tions to the state to perform. 119. The credit for advocating the adopted by the Muslim League Reason (R) : It assigns state to legal theory of right goes to— in— promote the ‘social welfare’ of (A) Austin (B) Locke (A) February 1922 the society as a whole. (C) Barker (D) Laski (B) December 1928 Codes : (C) March 1940 120. Who has remarked that, “All (D) September 1944 (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and restraint qua restraints is an evil (R) is the correct explanation … leaving people to themselves 127. Which one of the following is always better than controlling of (A) rights was described by B. R. them” ? Ambedkar as “The Heart and (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (A) Green (B) Mill Soul of the Constitution” ? but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) Barker (D) Popper (A) Right of freedom of religion (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (B) Right to property PART-II (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
“Indian Nationalism was the child of the British Raj.” Who made this statement ? (A) Bipin Chandra (B) R. Coupland (C) R. C. Majumdar (D) P. E. Roberts
114. The best exposition of Liberal concept of nature and functions 121. The Darghah of Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya lies in— of the state is found in the 128. Whcih Article of the Constitu(A) Agra writings of— tion of India lays down the procedure for the amendment in (B) Ajmer (A) John Locke the Constitution ? (C) Delhi (B) Karl Marx (A) 348 (B) 358 (D) Fatehpur-Sikri (C) Bernard Bosanquet (C) 368 (D) 378 (D) Norman Angel 122. ‘Purna Swarajya’ was announced in the Indian National Congress 129. Under which Article of the 115. Which of the following is a Constitution of India Supreme Session of— correct statement ? Court safeguards the funda(A) Karachi (B) Lahore (A) A welfare state has to be a mental rights of the Indian (C) Calcutta (D) Nagpur socialist state citizens ? (B) A capitalist state can also be 123. Arrange the following events in (A) 74 (B) 56 a welfare state the chronological order and (C) 16 (D) 32 (C) A socialist state can be a select the correct answer from 130. The President of India may liberal state the codes given below— declare National Emergency if (D) A liberal state must control 1. Non-cooperation movement. there is threat of— means of production 2. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre. 1. External aggression 3. Gandhi’s Champaran Satya116. Regarding the functions of the 2. Internal disturbances grah. state, who among the following 3. Armed rebellion 4. Civil Disobedience Movehas used the phrase, “to hinder 4. Communal clashes ment. the hindrances” ?
General Studies
(C) Right to equality (D) Right to constitutional remedies
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131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
Select the correct answer from (C) Manna Dey (C) M. A. Jinnah the code given below— (D) Mohammad Rafi (D) Muhammad Iqbal Codes : 139. Tsunami killed hundreds of 148. ‘Ashtadhyayi’ was written by— (A) 1 and 2 only people in September 2009 in— (A) Vedavyas (B) 2 and 3 only (A) Hawaii Islands (B) Panini (C) 3 and 4 only (B) Marshall Islands (C) Shukadeva (D) 1 and 3 only (C) Samoa Islands (D) Valmiki Which one of the following is a (D) Norfolk Islands 149. The number of Puranas is— Directive Principle of the State 140. The winner of the Durand Cup Policy ? (A) 16 (B) 18 2009 is— (A) Uniform civil code (C) 19 (D) 21 (A) Churchill Brothers (B) Freedom of the press 150. Which of the following Mughal (C) Freedom of the religion (B) East-Bengal Club Emperors granted duty-free (D) Equality before law (C) Mahindra United trading facilities to the English in (D) Mohun Bagan Bengal ? Which city of Turkey is the ‘Gateway to the West’ ? (A) Akbar 141. The name of the new research (A) Ankara (B) Adana station being set-up in Antarctica (B) Jahangir by India is— (C) Izmir (D) Istanbul (C) Bahadur Shah (A) Dakshin Gangotri (D) Farrukhsiyar Falkland current flows along (B) Bharti the— (A) Eastern coast of Australia (C) Dakshinayan Answers (B) Western coast of South (D) Maitri Africa 142. The working of a jet engine is (C) Eastern coast of Argentina based upon the conservation (D) Eastern coast of Japan of— Which one of the following pairs (A) Mass is correctly matched ? (B) Energy (A) Cyprus – Baghdad (C) Linear momentum (B) Lebanon – Beirut (D) Angular momentum (C) Turkey – Ashgabat 143. The law of planetary motion were (D) Ukraine – Akmola enunciated by— Bosporus strait connects— (A) Newton (B) Keplar (A) Black Sea and Aegean Sea (C) Galileo (D) Copernicus (B) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea 144. Leprosy is caused by— (C) Adriatic Sea and Mediterra(A) Bacteria (B) Virus nean Sea (C) Fungus (D) Protozoa (D) Black Sea and Sea of 145. The gaseous pollutant responMarmara sible for acid rain is— The largest producer of petro(A) Carbon dioxide leum in the world is— (B) Methane (A) Kuwait (C) Ammonia (B) Iran (D) Sulphur dioxide (C) Saudi Arabia 146. The unit of heredity in our body (D) Russia is called— India played its 100th Cricket (A) Chromosome Test Match with— (B) DNA (A) Australia (C) Gene (B) South Africa (D) Nucleus (C) West Indies 147. Who among the following (D) Sri Lanka Pakistani national was awarded Dada Sahab Phalke Award 2007 ‘Bharat Ratna’ by the Indian was given to— Government ? (A) Lata Mangeshkar (A) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan (B) Kishore Kumar (B) Liaqat Ali Khan P.Darpan
PD/December/2010/1090
Solved Paper
MADHYA PRADESH P.S.C. (Pre.) EXAM., 2009
(Held on 9-5-2010)
Economic
1. After economic reforms poverty reduction rate has been in post1991 period as compared to earlier period— (A) There has been no change (B) Reduction rate has increased (C) Has decreased as compared to earlier period (D) None of the above 2. Which of the following is not necessary for poverty removal ? (A) Increase production in agricultural 6. Which of the following factors is unrelated to fall in ground-water table in M.P. ? (A) Increase in irrigation from ground-water sources (B) Non-construction of tanks for maintaining water table (C) Government did not pay attention to increase surface water irrigation (D) Decrease in rainfall level in these years 7. Types of inflation is/are— (A) Creeping inflation (B) Walking inflation (C) Running inflation (D) All of these 8. Which of the following development processes is most appropriate ? (A) Which regions only benefits certain (A) Has decreased from 3·3 percent to 1·5 per cent (B) Has increased from 1·5 per cent to 3·3 per cent (C) Both the above (D) None of the above statements is true 12. The percentage of landless labourers in rural India is— (A) Increasing with time (B) Decreasing with time (C) No change with time (D) None of these 13. The following pairs of states indicate the highest and the lowest sex ratio in 2001. Which is correct ? (A) Tamil Nadu and Punjab (B) Andhra and Kashmir (C) Kerala and Haryana (D) Kerala and U.P. 14. The following pairs of states represent the lowest and the highest religious sex ratio in 2001. Which pair is correct ? (A) Sikhs and Jains (B) Sikhs and Christians (C) Jains and Hindus (D) Jains and Muslims 15. Which formula is correct about calculating the percentage of school-going children in India ? Students studying in class 1 to 5 in 6-10 years age group 100 (A) × Total population of 1 6-10 years age group No. of children in the age group 6-10 years 100 (B) × No. of students study1 ing in primary schools No. of the students studying in any class in 6-10 years age group (C) Total population of 6-10 years age group 100 × 1 (D) None of the above
(B) Spread of education (C) Increase in health facilities (D) Environment 3. Privatisation in education and health services became necessary because— (A) Insufficient expenditure by the government (B) Inefficiency of government facilities (C) Increase in demand for both by the public (D) All of the above factors 4. Which of the following is necessary for price discrimination ? (A) To face outside competition (B) To earn more profit (C) To have different elasticities of demand in different markets (D) All of the above 5. Environmental costs are not included in our cost calculation because— (Which of the following factors is not related ?) (A) Whole society, not the individual alone, bear these costs (B) Individual fails to realise these (C) If individual attempts these, whole society benefits (D) Appropriate technology is not available
(B) Which benefits every person of the country (C) Which leads to too much increase in imports (D) Which force the population of the country to migrate 9. Which of the following is not among the functions of money ? (A) Medium of exchange (B) Store of value (C) Shopping with credit card (D) Measure of value 10. The following factors are responsible for the fall in external value of rupee— (A) Withdrawal of foreign investor from the Indian Share Market (B) Fall in prices in America (C) Decrease in the amount sent by non-resident Indian (D) All of the above 11. The growth rate in agriculture in India—
PD/December/2010/1091
16. What is the percentage of rural working population in 19912001 ? (A) Increased in case of females but decreased in males (B) Increased in case of males but decreased in females (C) Increased in both, males and females (D) Decreased in both, males and females 17. The highest populous state in India is— (A) U. P. (B) Bihar (C) Chhattisgarh (D) Himachal Pradesh 18. National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme is being implemented through— (A) District Administration (B) Panchayati Raj Institutions (C) Through special authorities specially appointed for it (D) Rural engineering department 19. For retrenchment, government permission is necessary if— (A) The unit has 100 or more labourers (B) The unit has more than 500 labourers (C) The unit has more than 50 labourers (D) It is necessary for every industrial unit 20. Which of the following statements relating to risks for the farmers is true ? (A) Big farmers have to face greater weather and market related risk (B) Small farmers have less market related risk (C) Small farmers have less weather related risk (D) Small farmers have to face higher both market and weather related risks 21. Which of the following objectives of self-help groups is incorrect ? (A) Collective action to increase income (B) To join mainstream economy
(C) To increase bargaining power (D) To achieve objectives individually which cannot be achieved collectively 22. Which of the following statements is wrong ? (A) Dependence of small and marginal farmers on non-institutional credit is the highest (B) With increase in size of holding dependence on noninstitutional sources decreases (C) Dependence of large farmers on non-institutional credit is least (D) None of the above statements is correct 23. Our rate of growth has been more than 8 per cent during last 3 years, which benefited mostly : (Which statement is correct ?) (A) Poor class (B) Only rich persons (C) Rich and higher middle income group (D) Only middle income group 24. If the total cost of producing 400 units is Rs. 4,000 and total variable cost is Rs. 2,600, then per unit fixed cost will be— (A) Rs. 10 (B) Rs. 3·50 (C) Rs. 40 (D) Rs. 6·50 25. Marginal cost can be obtained by— (A) TCn – TCn – 1 (B) TCn + TCn + 1 (C) ACn – ACn – 1 (D) ACn + ACn + 1 26. During these years of liberalisation— (A) There has been increase in productivity of labour but decrease in the share in national income (B) Productivity of labour and their share in national income, both have decreased (C) There has been no increase in productivity of labour and their share in national income (D) The productivity of labour and their share in national income, both have decreased Which of above statement is correct ?
27. During these years about 1 lac farmers have taken resort to suicide. What is the reason ? (A) Increase in fluctuation in prices due to imports (B) Increasing indebtedness (C) Increase in cost of production (D) There has been increase to suicide cases in general population 28. The share of small saving schemes of Post-Offices in national savings has decreased due to— (A) Rate of interest has been less on these (B) Banks and others have increased interest rate (C) Post offices have decreased interest rates in this period (D) The number of post offices have decreased Which of the above causes is not correct ? 29. Because of adoption of neoliberal policies, there has been— (A) Increase in regional disparities (B) Distribution of personal income became more unequal (C) Disparity between progressive states and backward states has increased (D) Backward states were given better opportunities to develop Which of the above statements is not correct ? 30. In which of the following states the Bhilai Steel Plant is situated ? (A) M. P. (B) Chhattisgarh (C) Rajasthan (D) Bihar 31. Marketisation has— (A) Given equal opportunity to compete for all (B) It works in favour of rich people (C) It works in favour of poors (D) All classes are affected equally 32. Which of the following group of countries indicates from low to high growth rate countries ?
PD/December/2010/1092
(A) America, Russia, India, China (B) India, China, America, Russia (C) China, India, Russia, America (D) China, America, India, Russia 33. Which of the following reasons is the greatest obstacle in applying compulsory education in 6-14 years ? (A) Poverty (B) Ignorance about importance of education (C) Scarcity of schools (D) Lack of interest in education among children 34. In U.S.A. and other developed countries, depression is spreading fast. The effect of the same on Indian economy— (A) Will be equally (B) Will be too much since India is a developing country (C) Will be relatively less (D) Will be no effect on India 35. The percentage of malnutrition among the children in M. P. according to National Family Health Survey no. 1, 2 and 3 is— (A) 50 per cent, 45 per cent and 40 per cent (B) 47 per cent, 54 per cent and 60 per cent (C) 60 per cent, 54 per cent and 47 per cent (D) None of the above 36. Factors behind increasing popularity of irrigation from ground water are— (A) All the farmers opportunity to avail it have
(A) 86·3 (C) 25·3
(B) 40·5 (D) 66·0
38. Whichof the following statements is incorrect ? (A) Infant mortality rate in India has decreased (B) Percentage of anaemic children has decreased (C) Percentage of fully immunised children has increased (D) Maternal mortality rate has decreased 39. According to budget proposals for 2008-09 the fiscal deficit should be 2·5 per cent of G.D.P. It is going to be higher because— (A) Implementation of recommendations of 6th Pay Commission (B) Expenditure of Rs. 25,000 crores under loan waver scheme for farmers this year (C) Decrease in income from import duty on oil due to decrease in international oil prices (D) Income from direct taxes has shown decreasing tendency Which of the above causes is not correct ? 40. Under National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme guarantee is provided for— (A) One person in the family for 100 days in a year (B) Every person for 100 days in the family in a year (C) One person in the family for the whole year (D) Every person for the whole year Which of the above statements is correct ? 41. These days there has been vast fluctuation in Rupee price of Dollar, because— (A) Uncertainty about exports increases (B) There is increase in import costs (C) Adverse impact on foreign exchange reserves (D) There is no effect on importexport Which of the above statements is not correct ?
42. In India, coal is the main source of energy. Which of the following statements is wrong ? (A) There is increase in percentage of CO 2 in the atmosphere (B) Adversely affect on the environment (C) Contribute towards increase in temperature (D) There is no decrease or increase in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere 43. There has been around 10 per cent increase in price index this year. Among the causes given below which is not correct ? (A) In India and the world, food grain prices have increased (B) In cement, steel etc., industries cartels have been formed (C) There has been speculation increase in the economy (D) There has decrease in the production of food grains 44. Which of the following statements is correct ? (A) The growth rate of industrial sector in 1981-82 to 1990-91 was 6·5 per cent and in 1991-92 to 2007-08 was 6·0 per cent (B) In both periods i.e., 1981-82 to 1990-91 and 1991-92 to 200708, the growth rate of industrial sector was 6 per cent (C) In both periods i.e., in 198182 to 1990-91 and 1991-92 to 2007-08, the industrial growth rate was 6·5 per cent (D) Growth rate of industrial sector was 6 per cent in 1981-82 to 1990-91 which increased to 6·5 per cent in 1991-92 to 2007-08 period 45. Which of the following statements is correct ? (A) The percentage of females engaged in primary sector is more than the males (B) The percentage of females engaged in primary sector is less than males (C) The percentage of females engaged in tertiary sector is more than the males (D) The percentage of females in tertiary sector is zero
(B) Government encourages loans for wells and tube-wells (C) Irrigated area from surface irrigation has increased slowly (D) Per hactare consumption of electricity is less than surface irrigation Which of the above causes is not correct ? 37. How much percentage of working population is working in the unorganised sector in India ?
PD/December/2010/1093
46. Which of the following concepts is associated with Lord J. M. Keynes ? (A) Control of Money Supply Theory (B) Liquidity Preference Theory of Interest (C) Indifference Curve Analysis (D) Marginal Utility Theory 47. When rate of inflation increases— (A) Purchasing power of money increases (B) Purchasing power of money decreases (C) Purchasing power remains unaffected (D) None of the above is correct 48. These days, there has been a tendency among industrialists to get the work done by giving contracts because— (A) They get relieved from labour laws (B) They implement labour laws (C) This tendency has nothing to do with labour laws (D) None of the above 49. After adoption of neo-liberal policies in 1991, the government has taken many steps to increase the role of the market. Which of the following is not related with this policy ? (A) Started future trading in many commodities (B) Decrease the number of commodities under price control by Govt. (C) Make the Indian economy open (D) Fixing minimum prices of agricultural commodities 50. In spite of present depression, there has been no bank failures in India like other countries. Which of the following reasons is wrong ? (A) These are less controlled by the Reserve Bank (B) Invested in risk free government securities (C) Examines the credit rating of the borrower (D) The share of public sector banks in the banking sector is less
51. Many states in last years have introduced user charges in public hospitals because of that— (A) The difference between the treatment cost in private and public hospitals has decreased (B) The treatment cost of poors has increased (C) Percentage of patients taking treatment in public hospitals has come down (D) The treatment cost in public hospitals has decreased Which of the above statements is not correct ? 52. The rate of growth of Indian economy during last three years has been 8 per cent. At this rate the G.N.P. will be double in— (A) 12 years (B) 9 years (C) 15 years (D) 10 years 53. For equitable development it is necessary that— (A) Proportionate benefit to all classes (B) Main benefit goes to rich persons (C) Main benefit goes to poor persons (D) Main benefit goes to middle classes 54. Bank rate in India is determined by— (A) Government (B) Commercial Banks (C) Reserve Bank of India (D) Cooperative Banks 55. The economy will be in equilibrium if— (A) I = S (B) Y > C (C) I > C (D) I < C 56. The factors affecting the elasticity of demand of a commodity are— (A) Availability of substitutes (B) Possibility of postponing consumption (C) Share of expenditure in the total budget (D) Whether the person is educated or uneducated Which of the above factors is wrong ? 57. The biggest producer of Soybean is—
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Madhya Pradesh Rajasthan U. P. Maharashtra
58. The biggest producer of gram in India is— (A) Maharashtra (B) U. P. (C) M. P. (D) None of these states 59. The function of money is/are— (A) Medium of exchange (B) Measure of value (C) Store of value (D) All of these 60. The main factor behind the increase in global temperature is the emission of CO 2 is greater than the earth’s capacity to absorb it. The share in total emission of CO2 is the highest of— (A) China (B) India (C) America (D) Soviet Russia 61. “The utility from a bundle of goods will be maximum when the marginal utility of each commodity is equal to the price mutiplied by the marginal utility of money.” This was stated by— (A) Marshall (B) Adam Smith (C) Hicks (D) None of these 62. When relative change in demand is equal to change in price, the price elasticity of demand will be— (A) Unit (B) Less than one (C) Greater than one (D) Infinity 63. Suppose money income in the year 2000 was 5 lakh, which increased 10 lakh in the year 2 0 0 8 . But during the same period, there was a price increase of 20 per cent. T h e n increase in real income was— (A) 8·33 lakh (B) 3·33 lakh (C) 5 lakh (D) None of these
PD/December/2010/1094
64. To obtain maximum satisfaction, the following equation must be satisfy f 1 P1 = , f 2 P2 where f1 and f2 indicate marginal utility and P1 and P2 indicates their prices. (A) Above equation is correct (B) Above equation is wrong (C) Above equation indicates minimum, not maximum satisfaction (D) None of the above 65. Inferior goods means— (A) When demand remains constant, though price increased (B) When demand decreases with increase in price (C) When demand decreases with decrease in price (D) Demand remains the same with decrease in price 66. There are some misconceptions about monopoly. Which one of the following ? (A) Monopoly firm tries to earn maximum profit (B) Monopoly firm always earns profit (C) Marginal income of monopoly firm is equal to marginal cost (D) None of the above 67. The value of multiplier is equal to— 1 (A) K = ?C 1– ?Y 1 (B) K = 1 – ?C 1 (C) K = MPC + MPS 1 – MPS (D) K = 1 – MPC 68. Which of the following statements is true ? (A) Product differentiation is not necessary in monopolistic competition (B) Monopolistic competition normally requires product differentiation (C) There is no reaction from others if one under monopolistic competition decreases price (D) With perfect elastic demand, price decrease under monopolistic competition decreases total revenue
69. Equilibrium means— (A) No tendency to change with time (B) Changes in all variables with time (C) Other combinations of variable represent better situation (D) Change in one variable, others remaining constant 70. Gross national product is equal to— (A) Gross national product – Import (B) GDP + Net Factor Income from abroad (C) Gross domestic product + Imports (D) Gross national product + Exports 71. Entrepreneurial activity is performed— (A) By rich persons (B) Who works under conditions of certainty (C) Who works only on the basis of past experiences (D) Who works under conditions of uncertainty 72. Which of the following is included in Macro-economics ? (A) Equilibrium of the firm (B) Price determination of a commodity (C) Trade cycle theory (D) Price determination of LPG in India 73. Trade off means— (A) Simultaneous increase in two variables (B) Increase in one variable, keeping the other constant (C) Decrease in other variable with increase of one (D) None of the above 74. Which of the following represents equilibrium ?
Total National Income Total Reali- PlanConsed ned sum- Sav- Investtion ing ment
75. In a country in which the demand for land is greater than the supply— (A) There will be no price for marginal land (B) Marginal land will also have price (C) Only fertile land will have price (D) There will be no price even for fertile land 76. A firm will suffer loss— (A) If the price is less than average fixed cost + average variable cost (B) If the price is less than variable cost (C) If the price is less than average fixed cost (D) If the price is more than average fixed cost + average variable cost 77. If the amount of 100 crore is invested in an economy and if marginal propensity to consume is 0·8, then increase in national income will be— (A) 80 crore (B) 300 crore (C) 500 crore (D) None of these 78. The great depression of thirties gave birth to the theory of— (A) Say’s law of market (B) Full employment equilibrium (C) That real wages determine the supply of labour (D) Keynesian theory of Employment 79. If the total cost of production of 400 units is Rs. 8,000 and of 399 units is Rs. 7,990, then the production is under— (A) Law of Increasing Returns to the Scale (B) Law of Decreasing Returns to Scale (C) Law of Constant Returns to Scale (D) None of the above 80. Inflation in India is measured by— (A) Change in wholesale price index
(A) (B) (C) (D)
600 500 400 700
500 425 350 550
100 75 50 150
75 75 75 75
PD/December/2010/1095
(B) Increase in currency in circulation (C) Change in retail price index (D) Credit created by the banks 81. Income from taxes is divided— (A) States’s income from taxes is shared by Centre (B) Income of some taxes of the Centre is shared by States (C) States and the Centre have independent sources of income and no sharing (D) None of the above 82. Central Bank in India is— (A) Central Bank of India (B) State Bank of India (C) Bank of India (D) Reserve Bank of India 83. Which of the following does not come under Macro-economics ? (A) Employment theory (B) Price determination of LPG in India (C) Theory of depression (D) Functions of Central Bank in India 84. Macro-economics suffers from— (A) All theories are influenced by generalisation (B) The analysis employs the technique of partial analysis (C) Deals with large quantities (D) Relates to determination of total employment and total income 85. The movement from non-Pareto to Pareto equilibrium is desirable because— (A) It increases the production of first commodity without adversely affecting the production of second (B) It increases the production of second commodity more than it decreases the production of first (C) It increases the production of first commodity more than it decreases the production of second one (D) None of the above 86. Inflation means— (A) When the prices of necessities increase
(B) When the general price increases for a long period (C) When there is a seasonal fluctuation in prices (D) When the prices of luxuries increase 87. Speculative Demand for money and Interest rate are related— (A) Inverse relationship (B) Direct relationship (C) No relationship in these (D) None of these 88. When the demand for money increases for investment— (A) Will decrease the multiplier effect (B) Adversely affect the consumption (C) Interest rate will remain unchanged (D) The increase in interest rate will depend upon the slope of investment curve 89. Disinflation means— (A) When increase in prices in the long run (B) When the prices increase due to export (C) When the increase in prices is more than average (D) When increased prices decrease 90. Transaction demand curve for money— (A) It is parallel to X-axis (B) It moves upward with income (C) It moves downward (D) None of these 91. If any firm uses only two factors of production, namely labour (L) and capital (K), which of the following equations represent minimum cost of production ? MPPL MPPK (A) = PL PK (B) MPPL × P L = MPPK × P K (C) MRPL = MRPK (D) MPPL = MPPK 92. Devaluation of money means— (A) Decrease in purchasing power of money (B) Increase in purchasing power of money
(C) Decrease in external value of money (D) None of the above 93. Money supply increased when— could be
(A) Central Bank purchases government securities (B) Central Bank sells government securities (C) Cash-reserve ratio of banks is increased (D) Commercial Banks increase the amount deposited with Central Bank 94. Minimum wage should be determined— (A) Less than prevailing wage rates (B) Higher than equilibrium rate in the market (C) Minimum Physical and Social needs may be fulfilled (D) None of the above 95. Pigou’s concept of equilibrium firm is a— (A) Completely new concept, having nothing to do with Marshallian representative firm (B) Revised version of Marshallian representative firm (C) Marshall’s representative firm is a revised version of Pigou’s equilibrium firm (D) None of the above 96. Under monopolistic competition, excess capacity means— (A) Excess capacity under the condition of making loss (B) Difference between profit maximising production and minimum cost production (C) Optimum and maximum profit giving production difference between the two (D) None of the above 97. Law of Variable Proportions means— (A) Simultaneous change in the proportion of inputs (B) Keeping one input constant while changing others (C) Reducing other inputs and increasing only one input (D) None of the above
PD/December/2010/1096
98. Under monopolistic competition in long run— (A) Firm will always earn monopoly profit (B) Firm might earn normal profit only (C) Firm will always earn normal profit (D) None of the above 105. 99. Bankers’ Bank in India is— (A) International Monetary Fund (B) World Bank (C) Industrial Development Bank of India (D) Reserve Bank of India
(A) Needs much governmental (C) Comparing exports of the intervention two countries (B) They automatically equili(D) None of the above brate the balance of trade 110. In India, the right to impose tax (C) There is scope for common on agricultural income is vested commercial plans into— (D) The cost of management of (A) State governments these is less (B) Central government The assumption under monopo(C) Both of these listic competition price determi(D) None of these nation are given below, which is not correct ? 111. In the development process, (A) If any firm reduces price, which is unrelated ? sooner or latter other firms will (A) Impact on environment also reduce (B) Impact on health (B) There is only price competi(C) Public participation tion (D) Impact on religious activities (C) Cost curves of all producers 112. Corporation tax in India is— of the group are the same (A) Tax on production by com(D) Other firms will not reduce panies price even in the long run (B) Tax on the sales income of the companies (C) Tax on net income of the companies (D) None of the above The limits of growth of a nation is determined by— (A) Its population (B) Its capital resources (C) The health of the population (D) Its natural resources 114. Which of the following is not related to developing countries ? (A) Too much population (B) Ample capital resources (C) Low level of per capita income (D) Too much dependence on agriculture
100. The ratio of exchange between two goods in the indifference curve analysis is shown by— (A) Price line (B) Price-consumption curve 106. When production cost is zero, (C) Income consumption curve the price determination under (D) From indifference curve monopoly will be such that total income is maximum. 101. Balance of Payment means— (A) This statement is correct (A) The account of importexport of any country (B) This statement is half-truth 113. (B) Holding of foreign exchange (C) This statement is wrong and gold (D) The marginal income will be (C) The account of international trade and financial transactions (D) The account of foreign exchange received or paid for import and export only positive in this situation 107. Appropriate measure of economic development is— (A) Rate of increase in income (B) Improvement in Human Development Index (C) Decrease in the poverty per centage only (D) None of the above Balanced development means— (A) All the sectors of the economy develop at the same rate (B) All the sectors of the economy should develop
102. Which of the following nations has the lowest growth rate ? (A) China (B) U.S.A. (C) India 108. (D) Soviet Russia 103. Which of the following attributes is related to developed countries ? (A) High rate of increase in population (B) Large share of agricultural sector in national income
115. The whole world is passing through food crisis. Some causes for the same are given below, (C) Only agriculture and induswhich one is unrelated ? try should develop (A) Production of Biodiesel from (D) None of the above food-grains (B) Increase in per capita consumption in countries such as India and China (C) Wastage before food-grains reach consumer (D) Decrease in food-grain area due to diversion of land for commercial
(C) High level of per capita 109. If we want to compare the per income capita income level of two countries, which of the following (D) Low level of expenditure on is appropriate ? social services such as health and education (A) Compare income using exchange rate 104. Which of the following statements is not related to flexible (B) Compare income on the rate of exchange ? basis of purchasing power parity
PD/December/2010/1097
116. The following changes in population structure take place with development, which of the following is unrelated ? (A) Increase in the share of 0-15 years age group (B) Increase in average age (C) Increase in life-style diseases (D) None of the above 117. Expenditure on public health services is (in per cent of GDP)— (A) 1·2% (B) 3·4% (C) 6·0% (D) 4·0% 118. We have completed 58 years of planned development, the major failure of this has been— (A) Failure to increase income (B) Failure in increasing exports (C) Insufficient increase in education (D) Failure in poverty eradication 119. Employment opportunities after liberalisation compared to earlier— (A) Have decreased (B) In rural India have increased (C) In urban India have increased (D) Have increased in rural and urban India 120. The contribution of agriculture in India’s national income is— (A) 18 per cent (B) 33 per cent (C) 40 per cent (D) 27 per cent
Answers with Hints
PD/December/2010/1098
Solved Paper
UGC-NET/JRF EXAM., 2007
(Held in December 2007)
Management
(Based on Memory)
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) multiple-choice questions, each question carrying two marks. Attempt all of them. 1. In demand forecasting, important method used in trend projection is— (A) Scientific method (B) Bax-Jenkin method (C) Delphi method (D) Logistics method 2. The Cobb Dauglass Production Function is often used as— (A) ? = AKa Lb (B) ? = AKa L1 – a (C) log ? = a log K + log C (D) ? = Ab a – La 3. Skimming price for a new product is— (A) Low initial price (B) Average price (C) High initial price (D) Moderate price 4. Under monopoly market structure, the degree of freedom in pricing decision is— (A) Very low (B) Quite good (C) Very high (D) Zero 5. Capital budgeting decisions are generally— (A) Irreversible (B) Reversible (C) Irrevocable (D) Revocable 6. Which one is not the pre-requisite of a perfect market ? (A) Existence of large number of buyers and sellers in the market (B) Free flow of market information among the players (C) Free entry and free exit (D) Intervention of the Government 7. The term emotion refers to— (A) A broad range of feelings that a person experiences (B) A broad and intense feeling that is directed at someone or something (C) A broad range of feelings in the form of anger that a person experiences (D) None of the above 8. The term job satisfaction refers to— (A) A collection of feelings that an individual has towards his/ her job (B) The degree to which an individual indentifies himself/herself with job (C) The degree to which an individual identifies himself/herself with the organisation (D) None of the above 9. The following are the three components of creativity— (A) Expertise, creativity skills and task motivation (B) Expertise, innovation and rationality (C) Expertise, rationality and relevance (D) Expertise, novelty and performance 10. Two-factor theory was pounded by— (A) Fredrick Herzberg (B) David Mc Clelland (C) Mc Cardhy (D) Philip Kotler pro13. A list of Jobs duties, Responsibilities, Reporting Relationships and Working Conditions is called— (A) Job enhancement (B) Job specification (C) Job description (D) Job enlargement 14. The use of predesigned set of questions used in an interview process leads to— (A) Behavioural interview (B) Situational interview (C) Non-directional interview (D) Structured interview 15. One of the following is a Training, provided to enhance decision making skills— (A) On the job training (B) Behavioural modelling (C) Management games (D) Action learning 16. Dramatic reduction power, is called— (A) Termination (B) Retrenchment (C) Downsizing (D) Rightsizing of man-
11. ‘Grape Wine’ is the term used in relation to— (A) Formal Communication (B) Informal Communication (C) Horizontal Communication (D) Vertical Communication 12. Mutual cooperation and networking is— (A) Win-win strategy (B) Networking strategy (C) Franchise strategy (D) Competitive strategy
17. Monitoring employees through a preplanned series of position, is called— (A) Promotion (B) Succession planning (C) Job reporting (D) Job rotation 18. A situation where management is unable to provide employment due to non-availability of work, is called— (A) Lock out (B) Lay off (C) Termination (D) Closure 19. The basic goal of financial management is— (A) Maximising the profit (B) Maximising shareholders’ wealth in the long run
PD/December/2010/1099
(C) Maximising the rate of dividend (D) Minimising the business risk 20. The pricnipal value of a bond is called— (A) Coupon rate (B) Par value (C) Maturity value (D) Market value 21. Trade credit is a— (A) Negotiated source of finance (B) Hybrid source of finance (C) Spontaneous source of finance (D) Source of credit from the owners of the business 22. IRR is the rate of interest— (A) Equal to the cost of capital of the proposal (B) Prevailing rate of interest in the market (C) Paid on the bonds by the firm (D) That makes the NPV of capital proposal almost zero 23. Mutually exclusive investment proposals are those— (A) Wherein the acceptance of one proposal leads to rejection of all other proposals (B) That require special sources of financing (C) That have unique features (D) That reduce the total risk complexion of the firm 24. The technique used for classifying inventory according to the value of usage is called— (A) XYZ Analysis (B) DCF Analysis (C) ABC Analysis (D) DEF Analysis 25. When a consumer derives more satisfaction from a product/service than his expectation, it is known as— (A) Consumer satisfaction (B) Consumer delight (C) Consumer dazzling (D) Consumer dissatisfaction 26. Classical conditioning is associated with— (A) Repetition (B) Generalisation (C) Discrimination (D) All of these
27. The process of selecting, organising and interpreting or attaching meaning to events happening in the environment, is called— (A) Perception (B) Attitude (C) Personality (D) Learning 28. Under which concept of marketing, customer remains focussed ? (A) Marketing (B) Production (C) Product (D) Selling 29. Segmentation of consumers based on factors like climatic conditions and regions, are known as— (A) Demographic segmentation (B) Cultural segmentation (C) Geographic segmentation (D) Administrative segmentation 30. Which city is more favourable for selling electric blankets ? (A) Mumbai (B) Chennai (C) Shillong (D) Pune 31. Decision on plant layout and location are concerned with— (A) System design (B) System operations (C) System control (D) None of the above 32. Production system which enables for maximising the scale advantage is— (A) Flow type (B) Intermittent type (C) Batch type (D) None of the above 33. Which one of the following is the objective of production scheduling ? (A) Where to start the operation (B) When to start the operation (C) How to start the operation (D) When to start as well as stop the operation 34. SQC requires determination of— (A) Quality tolerance limit (B) Quantity measurement (C) Production lead time (D) Inventory carrying cost 35. AQL (Acceptable Quality Level) is— (A) Maximum No. of defectives that the consumer will accept (B) Fraction defective (f) that the user considers acceptable
(C) Fraction defective (f) that the producer considers acceptable (D) Maximum No. of defectives that the producer will allow 36. Half percent of the letters mailed in a city have incorrect address. Out of 200 such letters mailed in a day the probability of finding at most 3 incorrect addresses is— e 8 (A) 3 (B) e– 1 3 ? 1 –1 5 –1 (C) 6 (D) e 6 2 37. If the independent variables x i (i = 1, 2, … n) are normally distributed about a common mean, a with a common variance ?, their mean is also normally distributed about a, but with a variance. (A) n?2 (B) ?2/n (C) (?2)n (D) ?n/2 38. The two lines of regression are 3x + 2y = 26 and 6x + y = 31, then the mean of x is— (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 7 (D) 9 39. Chi-square distribution is— (A) Continuous (B) Multimodal (C) Symmetrical (D) None of the above 40. Mode of process in Decision Support System is— (A) Batch (B) Online (C) Offline (D) Real Time 41. Which level of managers translate the corporate strategy into concrete objectives for their individual business ? (A) Corporate level (B) Multi-business level (C) Functional level (D) Business level 42. Which of the following books was not written by Michael E. Porter ? (A) Competitive strategy (B) Competing for the future (C) Competitive advantage (D) Competitive advantages of nations 43. Which one is not the Michael E. Porter’s generic strategies ? (A) Focus (B) Cost leadership (C) Differentiation (D) Core competence
PD/December/2010/1100
44. Which of the following provides directions, serves as standard for evaluating performance and motivates members of the organisation ? (A) Mission (B) Values (C) Objectives (D) Goals 45. Sick enterprise is referred to— (A) World Bank (B) SIDBI (C) RBI (D) BIFR 46. Of the following, who is the most popular woman entrepreneur ? (A) Sudha Murthy (B) Medha Patkar (C) Kiran Mazumdar (D) Deepa Mehta 47. Which of the following is the cause of sickness of an enterprise ? (A) Lack of adequate capital (B) Lack of demand for the products (C) Lack of competition (D) All the above 48. Which one of the following is not the Social Responsibility of Business ? (A) Adopting villages for development (B) Setting up educational institutes (C) Opening research and development department (D) Construction of temples 49. Which one of the following is not related to Business Ethics ? (A) Environmental Ethics (B) Social Responsibility of business (C) Profiteering (D) Ecological consciousness 50. Ethical values are derived from— (A) Corporate objectives (B) Organisational culture (C) The Bible, the Kuran and the Geeta (D) Corporate philosophy
Continued from Page 1098
Answers with Explanations
P.Darpan
P.Darpan
PD/December/2010/1101
Solved Paper
SYNDICATE BANK PROBATIONARY OFFICERS EXAM., 2010
(Held on 29-8-2010)
General Awareness
(Based on Memory)
1. Mr. Mukul A. Sangma has taken over as the— (A) Chief Minister of Manipur (B) Chief Minister of Meghalaya (C) Governor of Meghalaya (D) Governor of Tripura (E) None of these 2. As per the reports published in various newspapers Core Sector Industries recorded a 7·2 per cent growth in March 2010. The growth of which of the following industries will not be considered in these figures ? (A) Coal (B) Steel (C) Cement (D) Power (E) Banking 3. How much amount was earmarked in the Union Budget 2010-11 for infusion in the capital of the public sector banks during the year ? (A) Rs. 5,000 crores (B) Rs. 7,500 crores (C) Rs. 10,000 crores (D) Rs. 15,000 crores (E) None of these 4. India recently signed a pact with which of the following SAARC countries which will enable its Prime Minister to have direct communication with the Prime Minister of that country on Hot Line ? (A) Myanmar (B) Nepal (C) Pakistan (D) China (E) None of these 5. As per the report released by the Govt. of India, various Govt. agencies procured about 15 million tonnes of wheat during the recent Rabi season. Which of the following states was the largest contributor to this stock of 15 million tonnes ? (A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Kerala (C) Punjab (D) Tamil Nadu (E) None of these 6. As we know the members of the European Union have recently decided to start functioning with a new set of rules and regulations. The newly devised rules are commonly known as— (A) Treaty of London (B) Treaty of Lisbon (C) Paris Treaty (D) Treaty of Moscow (E) None of these 7. As per the estimates given by various organizations/agencies China is expected to reach a new economic target during 2010 by becoming world’s second largest Economy. This means China will replace— (A) France (B) Germany (C) Japan (D) Russia (E) None of these 8. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the ‘Dadasaheb Phalke Award-2010’ ? (A) Javed Akhtar (B) Amitabh Bachchan (C) Gulzar (D) Dev Anand (E) None of these 9. “POSCO to invest Rs. 1000 crores more in Maharashtra” was a headline in major financial newspapers recently. POSCO is associated with which of the following businesses as its core business in Maharashtra ? (A) Fertilizers (B) Steel (C) Paper and News print (D) Automobiles (E) None of these 10. As per the reports published in various newspapers, “Mineral Output from mining and quarrying sector was up by 11% in April 2010.” Production of which of the following cannot be included in above figures ? (A) Coal (C) Iron Ore (E) Cement (B) Petroleum (D) Natural Gas
11. ‘General Motors’ plans to go public in next two months, was a news in major financial newspapers. This means General Motors is planning to do which of the following ? 1. Wind up its business in next two months. 2. Float Initial Public Offer (IPO) in near future. 3. Launch a big sales and marketing drive to attract people from all walks of life. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Only 1 Only 2 Only 3 All 1, 2 and 3 Only 2 and 3
12. Who amongst the following won the Barcelona Open Lawn Tennis Tournament (men’s singles) held in April 2010 ? (A) Fernando Verdasco (B) Robin Soderling (C) Deniel Nestor (D) Nenad Zimonjic (E) None of these 13. Which of the following is the full form of the abbreviation ‘IFRS’ as used in corporate/ finance sector ? (A) Indian Financial Reconciliation Standards (B) Interpretation and Formal Reporting System (C) International Financial Reporting Standards (D) International Financial Reporting System (E) None of these
PD/December/2010/1102
14. Mallika Bhandarkar, who won a ‘Gold Medal’ in an international event recently is a— (A) Badminton Player (B) Table Tennis Player (C) Lawn Tennis Player (D) Golf Player (E) None of these 15. Who amongst the following appoints the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission, India ? (A) The President of India (B) The Prime Minister of India (C) The Chief Justice of India (D) The Lok Sabha (E) None of these 16. Justice D. K. Jain of the Supreme Court of India recently inaugurated the first Rural Court in Shahabad Town of the state. Shahabad is in which of the following states ? (A) Orissa (B) Himachal Pradesh (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Haryana (E) Gujarat 17. Which of the following states in India recently decided to establish one Health Care Centre for every 50000 people ? (A) Gujarat (B) Maharashtra (C) West Bengal (D) Kerala (E) Delhi 18. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) had a dispute with which of the following agencies/organizations over the regulation of ‘ULIPs’ ? (A) CIBIL (B) AMFI (C) CII (D) WTO (E) SEBI 19. Who amongst the following is the head of the panel set up by the Planning Commission of India to recommend measures for “Efficient Management of Public Expenditure” ? (A) Dr. C. Rangarajan (B) Dr. D. Subbarao (C) Mr. C. B. Bhave (D) Dr. Subir Gokarn (E) None of these
20. During the SAARC Summit at Thimpu, India announced that it will provide 50 SAARC scholarships to meritorious students from those LDCs who are member of SAARC. What is the full form of LDC ? (A) Large Developed Country (B) Least Diplomatic Country (C) Least Developed Country (D) Low Diplomatic Country (E) None of these 21. As we all know Child labour is totally banned in India. As per the “Child Labour Prohibition & Regulation Act”. ‘Child’ means a person who has not completed— (A) 18 years of his/her age (B) 16 years of his/her age (C) 14 years of his/her age (D) 20 years of his/her age (E) 21 years of his/her age 22. The Women’s Reservation Bill was passed by the Rajya Sabha on which of the following dates ? (A) 19th July, 2010 (B) 19th March, 2010 (C) 9th July, 2010 (D) 9th March, 2010 (E) None of these 23. As we know the Jammu & Kashmir Assembly recently passed a bill which enabled it to ban Inter District Recruitments in the state. As per the provision of the bill a youth can now apply for a Govt. Job in the state only in— (A) His/her district (B) The districts of his/her commissionary (C) Only one district of his/her choice in the state (D) The district where he/she is residing at present (E) A District in Jammu region only 24. As we know a servere earthquake had rocked Qinghai region recently. ‘Qinghai’ is in which of the following countries ? (A) North Korea (B) South Korea (C) Myanmar (D) China (E) Vietnam
25. The second Summit of BRIC nations was organized in April 2010 in— (A) New Delhi (B) Moscow (C) Brasilia (D) Beijing (E) None of these 26. Which of the following states has decided to impose a cess on commercial vehicles so that a welfare fund can be created for the transport workers in distress of the state ? (A) Maharashtra (B) West Bengal (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Kerala (E) None of these 27. Which of the following organization recently celebrated Silver Jubilee Year (25th Year) of its establishment ? (A) ASEAN (B) G-20 (C) Commonwealth (D) NATO (E) SAARC 28. Amnesty International is associated closely with which of the following ? (A) To promote inclusive growth worldwide (B) To make earth a better abode for future generations (C) To protect human rights (D) To protect the world from the dangers of any nuclear war (E) None of these 29. As per the new guidelines issued by SEBI, companies are required to list shares within how many days of the closure of the Initial Public Offers (IPOs) ? (A) 30 days (C) 20 days (B) 25 days (D) 12 days
(E) None of these 30. As reported in some major newspapers some State Governments are planning to install Desalination Plants in some coastal zones in their states. What is the purpose of installing these Desalination plants ?
PD/December/2010/1103
1. 2. 3.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
To generate power from sea water. To convert sea water into normal water. To keep the coastal areas pollution free and save marine population. Only 1 Only 2 Only 3 All 1, 2 and 3 None of these
1.
2. 3. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
To provide more and more employment opportunities to rural youth. To Develop infrastructure in rural areas. To provide best technical education to Indian Youth. Only 1 Only 1 and 2 Only 2 and 3 Only 2 All 1, 2 and 3
(D) India (E) None of these 38. As per the reports in various newspapers the Tea Board will take up rehabilitation of about 10000 hectares of tea plantation in Himachal Pradesh. Which of the following is the main area of the state where tea is grown prominently ? (A) Kangra (B) Shimla (C) Bilaspur (D) Mandi (E) None of these 39. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Solo’ which got Commonwealth Writers’ Prize 2010 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Shobha De Chetan Bhagat Anita Desai Rana Dasgupta None of these
31. The Workers under the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are encouraged to take their wages through bank and post office accounts. This step of the Govt. is to obtain which of the following goal(s) ? 1. Promote Banks’ business. 2. To minimise corrupt practices. 3. To encourage more and more people to join NREGA. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Only 1 Only 2 and 3 Only 2 All 1, 2 and 3 Only 2 and 1
35. As we know Govt. of India has launched specific programmes to protect people from contaminated drinking water. Normally the ground water available in most of the rural areas, contains which of the following chemicals /minerals which makes it unsafe for drinking ? 1. Arsenic 2. Fluoride 3. Oxygen (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Only 1 Only 2 Only 1 and 2 Only 2 and 3 All 1, 2 and 3
32. Which of the following Rates/ Ratios is not covered under the Monetary and Credit Policy of the RBI ? (A) Bank Rate (B) Repo Rate (C) Cash Reserve Ratio (D) Reverse Repo Rate (E) Exchange Rate of Foreign Currencies 33. Which of the following ministries has launched Integrated Wastelands Development Programme (IWDP) ? (A) Ministry of Rural Development (B) Ministry of Agriculture (C) Ministry of Chemical and Fertilizers (D) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (E) None of these 34. Which of the following is/are the specific goal(s) of Bharat Nirman Project launched by the Govt. of India ?
36. Which of the following is the goal of the Indira Aawas Yojana of the Govt. of India ? 1. To provide dwelling units to people living Below Poverty Line (BPL). 2. To make metro cities slum free. 3. To provide housing facilities to the Central Govt. Employees. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 (E) None of these 37. Recently an Economic & Social Survey for Asian and Pacific Region was conducted by a UN agency. The survey finds that two economies of the region are developing very fast and are at the leading positions. One of them is China. Which is the another one ? (A) Australia (B) Bangladesh (C) South Korea
40. As per the reports published in various newspapers Karnataka Govt. has raised some objection on the Hogenakkal Drinking Water Project. The project is being implemented by which of the following states ? (A) Kerala (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Orissa (D) Maharashtra (E) Tamil Nadu 41. As per newspaper reports Iran recently organized a Trilateral Meet to discuss its ‘Nuclear Policy’. Who were the two other members at the meet ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Turkey & USA Brazil & Russia UAE & Turkey USA & Britain Brazil & Turkey
42. The ‘Wall Street Reforms Bill’ was in news recently. The bill will initiate financial reforms in which of the following countries ? (A) USA (B) France (C) Australia (D) Brazil (E) None of these 43. As per the reports in various newspapers the Bank of Rajasthan is now merged with which of the following banks ?
PD/December/2010/1104
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
AXIS Bank IDBI Bank ICICI Bank HDFC Bank None of these
44. Various countries recently signed an agreement on sharing of Nile water between them. Which of the following cannot be a member of this forum as Nile river does not pass through it ? (A) Tanzania (B) Kenya (C) Egypt (D) Iraq (E) Sudan 45. Which of the following is the full form of ‘SOFA’ a term used frequently in international politics ? (A) Status of Forces Agreement (B) Statement of Foreign Agreements (C) Strategic & Formal Alliances (D) Soviet Forum of Allied forces (E) None of these 46. Which of the following is the body/agency set up by the Govt. of India to increase the
flow of foreign investment in the country ? (A) FIPB (B) FEMA (C) NSDL (D) FCCB (E) None of these 47. The World ‘No Tobacco Day’ is observed on which of the following days ? (A) 13th May (B) 31st May (C) 13th June (D) 30th June (E) None of these 48. Who amongst the following is adjudged the Footballer of the Year selected by Football Writers Association (FWA) ? (A) Francesco Totti (B) Rio Ferdinand (C) Pele (D) Diego Maradona (E) Wayne Rooney 49. Which of the following is not a Civilian Award given by the Govt. of India ? (A) Sahitya Academy Award (B) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award (C) Padma Shri (D) Bharat Ratna (E) Kirti Chakra
50. Under the Annapurna Scheme how much foodgrain is provided to an eligible person every month ? (A) 5 kg (B) 10 kg (C) 15 kg (D) 20 kg (E) None of these
Answers with Hint
P.Darpan
PD/December/2010/1105
Solved Paper
NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY EXAM., 2010
(Held on 22-8-2009)
General Studies
1. Arrange the following Military Training Institutes in India in terms of their geographical location from North to South— 1. Indian Military Acadamy 2. Officers’ Training Academy 3. National Defence Academy 4. National Defence College 5. College of Defence Management Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) (B) (C) (D) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2 1, 4, 3, 5, 2 4, 5, 3, 2, 1 3, 4, 1, 2, 5 Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 only 4. Which of the following has/have been declared as national waterways in India ? 1. 2. 3. The Allahabad-Haldia stretch of river Ganga. The Sadiya-Dhubri stretch of river Brahmaputra. mass from the Polar region and causes rainfall in Western Europe. 3. It meets the Labrador current near Vancouver Island and causes dense fog. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 only (D) 1 and 3 only 7. Which one among the following explains the earthquakes of the eastern margins of Asia ? (A) Subduction of Pacific plate under Asiatic plate (B) Subduction of African plate below European plate (C) Subduction of Indian plate under Asiatic plate (D) Subduction of American plate under the Pacific plate 8. Unlike other Meridians Internationl Date Line is drawn zigzag in order to— (A) permit certain land areas and groups of islands to have the same calendar day (B) facilitate the sailors to adjust time in their watch (C) adjust the day in calendar while sailing from east to west and vice-versa (D) make 180°E and 180°W coterminous 9. The time difference between the two cities, city A(30? N 60?E) and city B(30? N 80?E) would be— (A) 80 second (B) 0 second (C) 20 second (D) 34 second 10. Consider the following statements : 1. The tropical year is shorter than the sidereal year.
2. Which among the following statements characterized El Nino ? 1. 2. 3. 4. It occurs at irregular intervals. It carries warmer water. It carries less saline water. Its atmospheric equivalent is southern oscillation.
The Cherla-Rajamundry stretch of river Godavari. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 5. Consider the following statements— 1. In a cyclone, the direction of wind flow is counter clockwise in the northern hemisphere. The tropical cyclone fades away when it reaches land because there is no large supply of warm moist air.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) (B) (C) (D) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4
2.
3. Consider the following statements regarding Andaman and Nicobar Islands— 1. 2. It enjoys equatorial climate. This is the only place in India where a volcano is located. This is the only place in India where coral bed is found.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Codes : (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 6. Which among the following statements about the North Atlantic Drift is/are correct ? 1. It keeps the west coast of Northern Europe ice free. 2. It is responsible for the warm air mass which interacts with the cold air
3.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
PD/December/2010/1106
2.
The solar day is longer than the sidereal day. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Codes : (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 11. Consider the following statements about rocks— 1. Shale becomes Slate through metamorphosis. 2. Shale is converted to Slate when it is subjected to tremendous pressure and high temperature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Codes : (A) (B) (C) (D) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only 14. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the four stages of water movement in a hydrological cycle ? (A) Evaporation–Condensation– Precipitation–Infiltration (B) Evaporation–Precipitation– Condensation–Infiltration (C) Infiltration–Evaporation– Condensation–Precipitation (D) Condensatio–Precipitation– Evaporation–Infiltration 15. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists— List-I (Agents of erosion) (a) (b) (c) (d) Running water Glacier Wind Underground water List-II (Topographical feature) 1. Cirque 2. Barchan 3. Rift Valley 4. Doline 5. Gorge Codes : (a) (b) (A) 5 1 (B) 5 2 (C) 4 2 (D) 3 4
2.
The entire political process of S-T-S was an upward spiraling one, which also assumed that the freedom struggle would pass through several stages, ending with the transfer of power by the colonial regime itself Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Codes : (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
12. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. Mumbai receives more rainfall than Pune because it is located at the windward side of Western Ghats. Vidarbha region experiences semi-arid climate as it is located in a rain shadow region. In India monsoon reaches Kashmir valley at the last.
17. Rajmohan Gandhi’s book ‘A Tale of Two Revolts’ (2009) deals with the— (A) Taiping and Indigo revolts (B) Revolt of 1857 and the American Civil War (C) Revolt of 1857 and the Deccan Uprising (D) American Civil War and Santhal Uprising 18. Consider the following statements relating to Jawaharlal Nehru’s attitude towards science and technology— 1. Nehru was convinced that science and technology were crucial to the solution of India’s problems relating to underdevelopment and poverty. 2. To emphasize the importance of science and scientific research, Nehru himself became the Chairman of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Codes : (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 19. “No Taxation without Representation” was the popular slogan of— (A) Indian freedom struggle (B) American war of independence (C) Russian revolution (D) French revolution
2.
3.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 only 13. Which of the following statements regarding south-west monsoon in India is/are correct ? 1. Monsoon reaches the Malabar coast first. 2. Rajasthan does not get rainfall from south west monsoon. 3. South-west monsoon retreats when the permanent wind belts start shifting to the south.
(c) 2 1 1 1
(d) 4 3 5 2
16. Consider the following statements relating to Gandhian strategy of Satyagraha— 1. Under the Gandhian strategy, which may be described as Struggle-TruceStruggle (S–T–S), phases of a vigorous extra-legal mass movement and confrontation with colonial authority alternate with phases, during which direct confrontation is withdrawn.
PD/December/2010/1107
20. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (A) Power of Parliament —Creating a new State (B) Power of State Legislature —Altering the name of a State (C) Equality before the law —Both Indian and non-Indian citizens (D) Equality of opportunity —Indian citizen 21. Which among the following statements with regard to Raja Rammohan Roy are correct ? 1. 2. 3. 4. He started the Atmiya Sabha. He wrote the Gift of Monotheist. He published the Precepts of Jesus. He founded the Brahmo Sabha.
was nipped in the bud. Most writers accept the core of the myth, that a violent revolution was on the cards at the time and was avoided only by the foundations of the congress, ……… All of them agree that the manner of its birth affected the basic character and future work of the congress in a crucial manner. 23. The colonial rulers, according to the safety valve thesis, were trying to use congress as— (A) a constitutional outlet for the mass discontent against the authorities (B) an instrument for the spread of British culture in India (C) an instrument to expand the Indian market for the products of British industries (D) an agency for social change in India 24. The author describes the safetyvalve thesis as a myth because : (A) evidence are insufficient to establish the validity of the thesis (B) the author has concluded that in the light of available materials the thesis does not hold ground (C) the congress was a nationalist organization right from the start (D) the violent anti-colonial movements did not come to an end with the foundation of the congress 25. The core of the safety-valve thesis rests on the assumption that— (A) a violent santi-colonial revolution was bound to occur unless a constitutional platform like the congress was founded (B) the congress would assist the British in administering the colony (C) the congress leaders would constitute the colonial elite (D) the congress as a party would assist the colonial rulers to implement political and social reforms 26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Grassland) (a) Pampas (c) Downs (b) Veld (d) Llanos
List-II (Country) 1. Venezuela 2. Australia 3. South Africa 4. Argentina Codes : (a) (b) (c) (A) 4 3 2 (B) 4 2 3 (C) 1 3 2 (D) 1 2 3
(d) 1 1 4 4
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 2, 3 and 4 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only (C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 22. Which one among the following was not a demand of the early congress (1885–1905) ? (A) Indianization of the superior grades of the administrative services (B) Purna Swaraj/complete independence (C) Abolition of the Arms Act (D) Autonomy within the empire Directions—(Q. 23–25) The next items are based on the passage given below— The myth is that the Indian National Congress was started by A. O. Hume and others under the official direction, guidance and advice of no less a person than Lord Dufferin, the Viceroy, to provide a safe, mild, peaceful and constitutional outlet or safety-valve for the rising discontent among the masses, which was inevitably leading towards a popular and violent revolution. Consequently, the revolutionary potential
27. Consider the following statements— 1. In India, the largest concentration of roads is found in the northern plains. 2. The ratio of surfaced road to the total road length is lower in the northern plains. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Codes : (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 28. Which one of the following does not characterize the Himalayas ? (A) Various parallel ranges of the Himalayas form a convex arc (B) There exist syntaxial bends at both the terminals of the Himalayas (C) Indus, Sutlej and Brahmaputra rivers are examples of antecedent drainage (D) The Himalayas are wider in the east than in the west 29. Which among the following statements provides the best evidence that a river is flowing through a rift valley ? (A) The Chambal valley is marked by bad land topography (B) River Tapi does not have Delta but Estuary only (C) River Mahanadi flows through a gorge at Satkosia (D) River Colorado has the Grand Canyon along its valley
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30. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
4
3
1
2
Codes : (A) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I (B) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I (C) Statement I is true but statement II is false (D) Statement I is false but statement II is true 33. Statement I : Autotroph plants contain the pigment chlorophyll for meeting their requirement of carbon and energy Statement II : Photosynthesis is the process of converting water into food using sunlight and oxygen 34. Statement I : Reproduction is the process by which living organisms produce young ones of their species. There are different forms of reproduction Statement II : Sex organs, male and female, are mandatory for reproduction
Statement II : Colour blindness results from a mutation in X chromosome 36. Statement I : Sarkaria Commission recommended that Governor of a state should be a nonpolitical person appointed after consultation with the Chief Minister of the state Statement II : This could be achieved through amending Article 165 of the Constitution of India. 37. The Legislative Council in a state in India can be created or abolished by the— (A) Parliament on the recommendation of a Governor of the state (B) Parliament alone (C) Parliament after the state assembly passes the resolution to that effect (D) Governor of the state on the recommendation of the Council of Ministers
List-I (Places indicated in the map) (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Codes : (a) (b) (A) 2 1 (B) 2 3 (C) 4 3 (D) 4 1
List-II (Seismic zone) 1. 2. 3. 4. Zone V Zone IV Zone III Zone II (c) 3 1 1 3 (d) 4 4 2 2
31. When dried raisins are put in plain water, they swell up. If put again in brine solution, they shrivel up. This phenomenon indicates the property of— (A) Diffusion (B) Perfusion (C) Osmosis (D) Fusion 32. Consider the following items— 1. Proteins, Carbohydrates, and Fats 2. Vitamins 3. Minerals 4. Water Which of the above are considered as the constituents of food ? Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 4 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Directions—(Q. 33–36) The next items consist of two statements, statement I and statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below—
38. The Government Bill means a Bill introduced by a— (A) Member of the Treasury 35. Statement I : Human beings bench in the Lok Sabha have 23 pair of chromosomes, (B) Member of the Parliament one of which is the sex chrowho is not a Minister mosome and the remaining 22 (C) Minister in the Lok Sabha autosomes. The X-linked diseases are related to mutations (D) Minister in any House of the on a sex chromosome Parliament Directions—(Q. 39–42) The next four items are based on the Table given below. Match List-I with List-II, List-III and List-IV, and select the correct answer using the code given below—
List–I (Ruler) A. Ashoka List–II (Important Battle) 1. Against several I. rulers of Northern and Southern India 2. Kalinga war II. List–III (Dynasty) Kushana i. List–IV (Significant work) Writer and poet, patron of learning besides an empire builder Political conquest, patron of learning Holding the 4th Buddhist Council and patron of learning Spread of Dharma, ahimsa and welfare activities
B.
Samudragupta C. Kanishka
Maurya
ii. iii.
3. Battle of Pundravar- III. Pushpavati dhana
D. Harshavardhana
4. Against the Chinese IV. Gupta and the Parthians
iv.
39.
List-I List-II List-III List-IV (A) A 1 II iv (B) A (C) B (D) B 2 1 2 II IV IV iv iii iii
40.
List-I List-II List-III List-IV (A) C 4 I iii (B) D (C) C (D) D 3 4 3 III I III i i ii
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41. (A) (B) (C) (D) 42. (A) (B) (C) (D)
List-I List-II List-III List-IV B 1 III i C 4 IV ii B 1 IV ii C 4 III i List-I List-II List-III List-IV A 1 II iii D 3 III ii A 1 II iii D 3 III i
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 46. Sound moves with higher velocity if— (A) pressure of the medium is decreased (B) temperature of the medium is increased (C) humidity of the medium is increased (D) Both (B) and (C) above 47. Which one of the following is the correct angle between the incident and reflected rays when a ray of light incident normally on a plane mirror ? (A) 180° (C) 45° (B) 90° (D) 0°
2.
doubling the distance of separation between the plates. reducing the distance of separation between the plates to half the original separation. doubling both the areas of the plates and the distance of separation between the plates.
3.
4.
43. Right to Information in India is a— (A) Fundamental Right (B) Legal Right (C) Both Fundamental and Legal Rights (D) Neither Fundamental nor Legal Right 44. Which among the following statements are correct with regard to the Portuguese in India ? 1. They had the monopoly over the Eastern trade in the 16th Century. 2. They possessed Bombay in the beginning. 3. They had trading settlements at Cochin, Diu and Daman. 4. The Mughals denied them any trading concessions. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1 and 3 only 45. Which among the following statements with respect to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is/are correct ? 1. The procedure and grounds for his removal from the office are the same as of a Judge of Supreme Court. 2. He prescribes the form in which accounts of the Union and the States are to be kept. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1 and 4 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 3 only (D) 2 and 3 51. If two conducting spheres are separately charged and then brought in contact— (A) the total energy of the two spheres is conserved (B) the total charge on the spheres is conserved (C) both the total energy and charge are conserved
48. Which one of the following four glass lenses is a diverging lens ? (A)
(B)
(D) the final potential is always the mean of the original potential of the two spheres 52. Two pieces of metallic wire having equal length and equal volume placed in air have different resistances. The two wires must— (A) have different cross sections (B) have same temperatures (C) be of different materials (D) be of same density 53. If a heater coil is cut into two equal parts and only one part is used in the heater, the heat generated will be— (A) doubled (B) four times (C) one-fourth (D) halved 54. The direction of magnetic field at a point due to an infinitely long wire carrying current is— (A) parallel to the current (B) antiparallel to the current (C) along the perpendicular drawn from a point on the wire (D) perpendicular to the plane containing the conductor and the point
(C)
(D) 49. Magnetism of a bar magnet can be destroyed if it is— 1. kept in the magnetic meridian. 2. placed in a direction opposite that of the Earth’s horzontal intensity. 3. heated to a temperature known as Curie temperature. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 50. Capacity of a parallel plate condenser can be doubled by— 1. doubling the areas of the plates.
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55. A hollow metal ball carrying an electric charge produces no electric field at points— (A) outside the sphere (B) on its surface (C) inside the sphere (D) only at the centre 56. A man is sitting on a rotating stool with his arms outstretched. If suddenly he folds his arm the angular velocity of the man would— (A) increase (B) decrease (C) become zero (D) remain constant 57. For a particle revolving in a circular path, the acceleration of the particle is— (A) along the tangent (B) along the radius (C) zero (D) along the circumference of the circle 58. A circus performer of mass M is walking along a wire as shown
T Wire
(A) the force is too small to move the ball (B) air friction holds the ball back (C) of action and reaction (D) the ball has inertia 60. The visible light has a wavelength range from about 380 nm (violet) to 780nm (red). If an excited object emits light with wavelength of 15 nm, to which one of the following ranges does it belong ? (A) X-ray (C) Infrared (B) Gamma ray (D) Ultraviolet
65. Metal pipes used to carry water sometimes burst in the winter. This is because— (A) water expands when it freezes (B) metal contracts more than water (C) outside of the pipe contracts more than inside (D) metal expands more than water 66. Which among the following statements about Nirupam Sen is/are correct ? 1. In the year 2009 he was appointed as Special Senior Adviser to the President of the UN General Assembly on the world financial and economic crisis. 2. He was formerly the Indian Ambassador to the UK. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) (B) (C) (D) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2
61. Microwave oven consumes less power due to— (A) small frequency of radiation (B) short wavelength of radiation (C) large frequency as well as wavelength of radiation (D) small frequency as well as wavelength of radiation 62. The sun is constantly radiating energy and yet its surface temperature is nearly constant at 6000°C. The constancy of solar temperature is due to— (A) fission (B) radioactivity (C) fusion (D) black hole evaporation 63. An annular solar eclipse occurred during January 2010 with duration of annularity around 12 minutes. It is predicted that such long annular duration will not occur till the year 3043. Such prediction is possible due to— (A) Einstein’s theory of relativity (B) Darwin’s theory of natural selection (C) Newton’s theory of gravitation (D) Hawking’s theory of black hole
67. Consider the following statement— I can only thank a genius director like Guru Dutt for giving me an opportunity to work in his films and translate his conceptions on screen. I was able to involve (myself) in many innovative experiments he had tried. The best example is the making of ‘Kagaz Ke Phool’ (1959), which is the first cinemascope venture in the Indian film industry. On receipt of a prestigious award of India the above statement was made recently by— (A) Santhosh Sivan (B) Ravi K. Chandran (C) Ramachandra Babu (D) V. K. Murthy 68. Consider the following Statements about General V. K. Singh— 1. He is the first trained commando to take over as the Chief of the Army Staff of Indian Army.
in the figure given above. The tension T in the wire is : (g = acceleration due to gravity) (A) approximately Mg (B) less than Mg (C) more than Mg (D) depends on whether the performer stands on one or two feet 59. A heavy ball is suspended as shown in the figure given below.
Upper string
Lower string
A quick jerk on the lower string will break that string but a slow pull on the lower string will break the upper string. The first result occurs because :
64. Internet communication uses optical fibre cables because of— (A) low cost (B) free from virus threat (C) high data carrying capacity (D) faster than light communication of signals
PD/December/2010/1111
2.
He belongs to the Rajputana Rifles regiment of Indian Army. 3. General Singh succeeded General Deepak Kapoor. Which among the statements given above is/are correct ? Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 3 only (D) 1 and 2 only 69. Consider the following passage and identify the form of dance theatre referred thereto using the code given below— This is a uniquely traditional form of dance theatre of India with a formidable classical background. The main essence of this form of dance drama is its attachment with religion, which provides the most common theme for its plays. The performance begins with a prayer offering to the lord Ganesha, which is followed by a comedy act, accompanied by the background music of the chenda and the maddale, and a tala (cymbals) played by a team of three. The narrator, who is also a part of the team is called Bhagavata, and is the producer, the director, and the head of the ceremony. His primary task involves the narration of the story through songs, introduction of the characters, and occasionally conversing with them. Another unique feature of it is the totally unrehearsed and unwritten use of dialogues, which makes it so special. Codes : (A) Cheraw (B) Yakshagana (C) Devarattam (D) Jatra 70. In a rare case, a record number of about 20000 employees of the Government of Kerala retired on a single day (on 31 March, 2010). Which among the following statements is/are correct in this respect ? 1. The mass retirement follows the Kerala government’s move to allow employees retiring any day during the year to work till March 31.
2.
In a recent bid to reduce burden on the state exchequer, the Government of Kerala reduced the retirement age of government employees from 59 to 58 years. 3. More than 50% of these retired were from the Education department. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 only 71. Car manufacturer Maruti has stopped selling its popular brand Maruti 800 in some major cities of India from 1st of April 2010. Which among the following statements is/are correct in this regard ? 1. The engine of the car is unable to meet the stricter Bharat Stage IV norms that become mandatory in some major cities of India from that data. 2. The company has decided to promote another brand of car in the small car segment in some select cities. 3. The company wants to shorten its product line. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 2 only 72. In a major eco-friendly step towards renewable energy generation in India, in June 2010 seaweed sourced ethanol (ethyl alcohol), a biofuel additive in transport fuel, has been used to run a car for the first time. With regard to this which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. Experiment in this direction was carried out by the scientists of Central Salt and Marine Chemicals Research Institute (CSMCRI), Bhavnagar.
2.
India has become the first country in the world to produce and use green fuel to run cars. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 73. Which of the following aspects with regard to the T-20 world cup (Men’s) cricket and T-20 world cup (Women’s) cricket tournaments held in the year 2010 was/were common ? 1. Both the tournaments were won by England 2. The tournaments were held in West Indies 3. There was a tie match each in both the tournaments Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 3 only 74. Which amongst the following statements is/are correct about the INS Arihant ? 1. It is India’s first nuclear submarine. 2. It is India’s first aircraft carrier. 3. It has been indigenously built in India. (A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 only 75. Which among the following statements about the ZaranjDelaram road is/are correct ? 1. It was constructed by Border Road Organization in Afghanistan. 2. It links India with Afghanistan via Pakistan. 3. This road will open up market for Indian goods in Afghanistan via Iran. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 3 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 1 and 2 (D) 2 only
PD/December/2010/1112
Directions—(Q. 76–79) The next four items are based on the following Table : Match List-I with List-II, List-III and List-IV, and select the correct answer using the code given below :
List–I (Body system) A. Blood Circulation B. Excretory C. Alimentary D. Skeletal E. Blood F. Respiratory G. Neurological H. Immunological List–II (Organ) 1. Bone marrow I. 2. Thymus 3. Intestine 4. Lung 5. Bone 6. Heart 7. Kidney 8. Neuron II. List–III (Structure) Alveoli List–IV (Function of the system) i. Clot formation Perfusion of tissues Support and protect of body frame Oxygenation Filtration of body waste Absorption of nutrients
(C) Soap takes away the oily part of the soil and thus separates the soil from the cloth (D) The soap molecules bind with the soil, lift the soil and keep it suspended which can then be rinsed away 83. Which one among the following statements is not correct about graphite ? (A) It is the most stable allotrope of carbon (B) It is an electrically conducting material (C) Crystalline spherical beads of graphite have very good lubricating property under dry conditions (D) It is the highest grade of coal 84. Which one among the following is not a property of salt ? (A) Salts have ordered packing arrangements called lattices (B) Salts have low melting points but high boiling points (C) Salts are brittle (D) Salts conduct electricity when dissolved in water or even in the molten state 85. Which among the following statements with regard to pH scale is/are correct ? 1. It is a logarithmic scale. 2. The scale is limited to 0–14 because the ionic product of water is about 10–14 . 3. The lower the value of pH the greater is the acidity of the solution. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 only 86. An oxidizing agent is a substance which— (A) increases the oxidation number of an element in a given substance (B) decreases the oxidation number of an element in a given substance (C) is oxidized itself in an oxidation-reduction reaction (D) loses electrons in an oxidation-reduction reaction
T-lymphocyte ii. iii. iv. v. vi.
III. Myocardium IV. Matrix V. Nephron
VI. Villi VII. Axon VIII. Platelets
vii. Fighting infection and foreign invasion viii. Transmission of electrical impulse
76.
List-I List-II List-III List-IV (A) A 1 III ii (B) B 7 VI v (C) A 6 III ii (D) B 2 V v List-I List-II List-III List-IV (A) C 3 VI vi (B) D 1 V iii (C) C 2 VII vi (D) D 5 IV vii List-I List-II List-III List-IV (A) E 1 I i (B) F 2 I iv (C) E 1 IV v (D) F 4 I iv List-I List-II List-III List-IV (A) G 8 VII viii (B) H 2 II iv (C) G 8 VI vii (D) H 1 II vii
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 3 and 4 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 3 only 81. Which among the following are the properties of good paint ? 1. The paint should be opaque and have high covering power. The solid particles in paint should reflect much of the destructive light to ensure long life of the paint. Combination of pigments, e.g., white lead and TiO2 give better result.
77.
78.
2.
3.
79.
4.
80. Consider the following statements regarding the recent global outbreak of ‘Swine Flu’— 1. 2. 3. The agent of infection is not well identified. The risk is higher in those who consume pork. It has a propensity to spread from contact with an infected person. Absence of an effective treatment or vaccine makes it risk for a global pandemic.
Addition of plasticiser destroy the elasticity of the film and leads to cracking. Select the correct answer using the codes given below— Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only 82. By which one among the following mechanism, soap removes dirt (soil) from cloth ? (A) Soap dissolves the soil as such (B) Soap reacts with soil and converts them into soluble silicates
4.
PD/December/2010/1113
87. Neutral water with pH about 7 becomes slightly acidic when aerated. This is because— (A) oxygen from air is dissolved in the water which makes the water acidic (B) dirt, which get contaminated with the water during aeration makes the water acidic (C) ultraviolet radiation dissociates water molecules and makes water acidic (D) carbon-dioxide from air is dissolved 88. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (A) Diesel burns with air in a diesel engine at a high temperature at which nitrogen and oxygen from air can combine whereas petrol burns at a lower temperature at which nitrogen and oxygen cannot combine (B) Diesel contains some nitrogenous compounds whereas petrol does not (C) Nitrogen from air is easily dissolved in diesel but it is not soluble in petrol (D) A catalyst is used in diesel engines which contains nitrogen whereas petrol engines do not need such catalysts 89. Consider the following statements with regard to the properties of water— 1. Water is a good solvent for ionic compound but poor solvent for covalent compound. Water is a good solvent for covalent compound but poor solvent for ionic compound.
lime. It is seen that the composition of the elements in both the natural and synthetic calcium carbonate are same. The validity of which one among the following laws is confirmed by this observation ? (A) Law of conservation of mass (B) Law of definite proportion (C) Law of multiple proportion (D) Avogadro’s law 91. When aqueous solutions of two salts are mixed, the third salt formed may appear as a solid precipitates or a clear solution depending upon the solubility of its ions. It is observed that all salts of Na, K, NH4 are soluble. All nitrates and bicarbonates are also soluble. All halides (chlorides, bromides, iodides) are soluble except those of Ag, Hg (I) and Pb. All sulphates are soluble except those of Ag, Ca, Ba and Pb. Which one among the following combinations of solutions will produce a solid precipitate ? (A) Sodium sulphate and barium chloride (B) Magnesium sulphate and barium bicarbonate (C) Lithium iodide and barium chloride (D) Ammonium sulphate and potassium bromide 92. A mixture containing SiO2 , NaCl and NH4 Cl is taken for separating the constituents. The suitable steps required for this are— (A) Sublimation-dissolutionfiltration-crystallization (B) Dissolution-filtrationcrystallization-distillation (C) Sublimation-evaporationdissolution-decomposition (D) Dissolution-distillationdecomposition-evaporation 93. Iodized salt is a— (A) mixture of potassium iodide and common salt (B) mixture of molecular iodine and common salt (C) compound formed by combination of potassium iodide and common salt
(D) compound formed by combination of molecular iodine and common salt 94. Which one among the following is a chemical process ? (A) Distillation of sea (salty) water (B) Crystallization of impure salt (NaCl) (C) Production of iodine (I2 ) from seaweeds (D) Sublimation of iodine (I2) 95. Which one among the following statements regarding the properties of mixtures and compounds is not correct ? (A) A mixture shows the properites of its constituents but the properties of a compound are entirely different from its constituents (B) A mixture may be homogeneous or heterogeneous but a compound is a homogeneous substance (C) The constituents of a mixture can be separated by physical method but those of a compound cannot be separated by physical method (D) Energy is either absorbed or evolved during the preparation of a mixture but not in the preparation of a compound 96. Which one of the following characteristics of the particle
2.
3.
Water has maximum density at the temperature 277 K. Which of the statements given above are correct ? Codes : (A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 90. Calcium carbonate is naturally available as limestone and can also be synthesized from quick
Velocity O
Time
does the shaded area of the velocity-time graph shown above represent ? (A) Momentum (B) Acceleration (C) Distance covered (D) Speed 97. A boby is at rest on the surface of the earth. Which one among the following statements is correct regarding this ?
PD/December/2010/1114
(A) No force is acting on the body (B) Only weight of the body acts on it (C) Net downward force is equal to the net upward force (D) None of the above statements is correct 98. A pendulum beats faster than a standard pendulum. In order to bring it to the standard beat, the length of the pendulum is to be— (A) reduced (B) increased (C) reduced and the mass of the bob increased (D) reduced and also the mass of the bob reduced 99. Two identical block of ice, A and B, float in water as shown in the
B A Water level
Answers with Hints
P.Darpan
Union Public Service Commission
Changes in Syllabus and Pattern of the Preliminary Examination from 2011 in the Scheme of Civil Services Examination
? The Preliminary Examination shall now comprise of two compulsory Papers of 200 marks each and of two hours duration each. Detailed below is the new syllabus and pattern of the Preliminary Examination, which is brought to the notice of the prospective candidates intending to appear at the Civil Services Examination (CSE) in 2011 onwards: Current events of National and International importance. History of India and Indian National Movement. Indian and World Geography—Physical, Social, Economic Geography of India and the World. Indian Polity and Governance—Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc. Economic and Social Development—Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc. General issues on Environmental ecology, Bio-diversity and Climate Changethat do not require subject specialization. General Science. Comprehension Interpersonal skills including communication skills Logical reasoning and analytical ability Decision-making and problem solving General mental ability Basic numeracy (numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude etc.) (Class X level), Data interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency etc. Class X level) English Language Comprehension skills (Class X level) Questions relating to English Language Comprehension skills of Class X level (last item in the Syllabus of Paper-II) will be tested through passages from English language only without providing Hindi translation thereof in the question paper. The questions will be of multiple choice, objective type. The prospective candidates are advised to note that no changes are being introduced at this stage in the Civil Services (Mains) Examination and Personality Test in the scheme of Civil Services Examination (CSE).
figure given above. Which one among the following statements in this regard is correct ? (A) Block A displaces a greater volume of water since the pressure acts on a smaller bottom area (B) Block A displaces a greater volume of water since its submerged end is lower in the water (C) Block B displaces a greater volume of water since its submerged end has a greater area in water (D) The two blocks displace equal volumes of water since they have the same specific gravity and same mass 100. When a ship floats on water— (A) it displaces no water (B) the mass of water displaced is equal to the mass of the ship (C) the mass of water displaced is lesser than the mass of the ship (D) the mass of water displaced is greater than the mass of the ship
Paper I (200 marks) Duration : Two hours
? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ?
Paper II (200 marks) Duration : Two hours
? ?
? ?
PD/December/2010/1115
Solved Paper
U.P. PCS LOWER SUBORDINATE SERVICES (Pre.) EXAM. 2008
(Held on 26-9-2010)
General Studies
1. The Thermometer suitable to measure 2000°C temperature is— (A) total radiation thermometer (B) gas thermometer (C) mercury thermometer (D) vapour pressure thermometer 2. The gas used for artificial ripening of green fruit is— (A) ethane (B) ethylene (C) carbon dioxide (D) oxytocin 3. In which of the following districts India's largest mica belt is found ? (A) Balaghat and Chhindwara (B) Udaipur, Ajmer and Alwar (C) Hazaribagh, Monghyr Gaya and (B) A method for the development of species for food crops (C) A techniques for pre-information regarding genetic diseases (D) A technique for prevention of cataract 9. 2, 4-D is— (A) an insecticide (B) an explosive (C) a fungicide (D) a herbicide 10. The percentage of nuclear enery in India's total energy generation is— (A) 60% (B) 27% (C) 10% (D) 2% 11. ‘Satish Dhawan Space Centre’ is located at— (A) Vishakhapatnam (B) Goa (C) Shri Hari Kota (D) Chennai 12. Which one of the following scientists has carried out researches both in the field of biology and physics ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Jagdish Chandra Bose Har Govind Khorana C. V. Raman Homi J. Bhabha Identify the place which has not been selected for the purpose. (A) Vishakhapatnam (B) Manglore (C) Padur (D) Ankaleshwar 16. Presidents of USA and Russia recently signed a historic treaty committing their respective country to drastically reduce arms. It was signed on— (A) 15 January, 2010 (B) 18 May, 2009 (C) 08 April, 2010 (D) 12 February, 2010 17. Russia has agreed recently to construct how many units of nuclear Reactor at Kudankulam in Tamil Nadu ? (A) 02 (B) 04 (C) 05 (D) 06 18. Who of the following has been appointed as Chairman of Mumbai Stock Exchange in March, 2010 ? (A) Prof. Rakesh Mohan (B) Prof. Bhagawati (C) S. Ram Dorai (D) Prof. Manoranjan Misra 19. Who of the following is the fourth woman Judge appointed in the Supreme Court in India in April, 2010 ? (A) Justice Fatima Beevi (B) Justice Sujata Manohar (C) Justice Gyan Sudha Misra (D) Justice Ruma Pal 20. A World Expo 2010 as a grand event to showcase the best achievements of human civilisation has been opened on May 1, 2010. Where was this expo opened ? (A) In Shanghai (B) In Kuala Lumpur (C) In Tokyo (D) In Moscow
(D) Salem and Dharmapuri 4. Silent valley is situated in— (A) Uttarakhand (B) Kerala (C) Arunachal (D) Jammu and Kashmir 5. The fastest computer of the world is— (A) Param-10000 (B) J-8 (C) Yenha-3 (D) T-3A 6. Which one of the following organizations is not related to science and technology ? (A) DST (B) CSIR (C) ICSSR (D) DAE 7. The name of the ICBM developed by India with a strike range of more than 2000 km is— (A) Prithvi (B) Trishul (C) Akash (D) Agni-II 8. Geneco technology is— (A) A defence system for prevention from AIDS
13. Which one of the following is a bacterial disease ? (A) Herpes (B) Polio (C) Pox (D) Tetanus 14. An Offshore Patrol Vessel was inducted into Coast Guard in March 2010. It is named— (A) Eagle (B) Vishwast (C) Jatayu (D) Aashwast 15. To insulate the country from disruptions in supply of crude oil, India has eastablished ‘India Strategic Petroleum Reserves Ltd.’ It will construct underground storages at three places.
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21. Air Force Exercise Garuda-2010 was held by India jointly with which of the following countries ? (A) France and Singapore (B) Australia and France (C) Singapore and Australia (D) None of these 22. Which one of the following states bagged the ‘National Rural Health Mission Award’ of the Government of India in April, 2010 ? (A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Orissa (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Rajasthan 23. Who of the following has been included in the ‘Hall of Fame’ by I.C.C. in March, 2010 ? (A) Sachin Tendulkar (B) Sunil Gavaskar (C) Kapil Dev (D) Anil Kumble 24. Who said, ‘Imperialism’ is dead as ‘dodo’ ? (A) Ramje Macdonald (B) Winston Churchill (C) Clement Attlee (D) Lord Wavell 25. The annual session of Muslim League in the year 1970 was held at— (A) Dacca (B) Karachi (C) Aligarh (D) Lucknow 26. The Indian National Congress had launched the Non Co-operation Movement in the year— (A) 1918 A.D. (B) 1919 A.D. (C) 1920 A.D. (D) 1921 A.D. 27. Who amongst the following made regular broadcast on Congress Radio operated during Quit India Movement ? (A) Jaya Prakash Narayan (B) Subhas Chandra Bose (C) Ram Manohar Lohia (D) Sucheta Kriplani 28. Which of the following newspapers advocated revolutionary terrorism during the period of Indian freedom struggle ? 1. Sandhya 2. Yugantar 3. Kaal
Choose the correct answer from the code given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 (C) 2, 3 (B) 1, 3 (D) 1, 2, 3
29. The movement in India which became popular during the first World War was the— (A) Swadeshi and Boycott Movement (B) Home Rule Movement (C) Separatist Movement (D) Swarajist Party Movement 30. Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct answer using the code given below : 1. Jallianwalabagh Massacre 2. Chaurichaura Episode 3. Champaran Movement 4. Moplah Rebellion Codes : (A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (C) 3, 1, 4, 2 (B) 2, 1, 3, 4 (D) 3, 1, 2, 4
the answer from the code given below : 1. Shaukat Ali 2. Mohammad Ali 3. Shariatullah 4. Abul Kalam Azad Codes : (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 34. Kakori Conspiracy Case took place in the year— (A) 1920 (B) 1925 (C) 1930 (D) 1935 35. In the Interim Government (1946) who held the Railways Portfolio ? (A) Baldev Singh (B) T. T. Chudrigar (C) Asaf Ali (D) Abdul Rab Nishtar 36. The Province where Indian National Congress did not form ministry after the General election of 1937 was— (A) Orissa (B) Bihar (C) Madras (D) Bengal 37. The transfer of capital of British India from Calcutta to Delhi was effected during the period of— (A) Lord Minto (B) Lord Hardinge (C) Lord Chelmsford (D) Lord Reading 38. Who was the leader of the Swadeshi Movement in Madras ? (A) Srinivas Sastri (B) Rajagopalachari (C) Chidambaram Pillai (D) Chintamani
31. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below the Lists : List-I (a) (b) (c) (d) 1. 2. 3. 4. Abul Kalam Azad Pherozeshah Mehta Annie Besant Mahatma Gandhi List-II Bombay Chronicle Al-Hilal Young India New India (a) 2 1 2 3 (b) 1 2 1 2 (c) 4 3 3 1 (d) 3 4 4 4
Codes : (A) (B) (C) (D)
32. Who of the following was the President of Indian National Congress for consecutive six years ? (A) Jawahar Lal Nehru (B) Dadabhai Naoroji (C) Abul Kalam Azad (D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale 33. Who of the following had started the Khilafat Movement ? Choose
39. Which one of the following statements is not correct about Dadabhai Naoroji ? (A) He wrote a book ‘Poverty and Un-British rule in India’ (B) He worked as a professor of Gujarati in the University College, London (C) He laid the foundation of woman's education in Bombay (D) He was elected as a member of British Parliament on the ticket of the Conservative Party 40. Which one of the following was directly related to the Poona Pact of 1932 ?
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(A) (B) (C) (D)
Indian women Indian labour class Indian farmers Indian depressed class
(C) Strabo (D) Megasthenese 48. Which Sultan of Delhi assumed the title of Alexander the Great ? (A) Balban (B) Alauddin Khalji (C) Mahammad Bin Tughlaq (D) Sikandar Lodi 49. Who among the following was given the title of ‘Shaikh-ulHind’ ? (A) Baba Fariduddin (B) Khwaja Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki (C) Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti (D) Shaikh Salim Chishti 50. Which one of the following is correctly matched ? (A) Kakatiya : Devagiri (B) Hoyasala : Dwarsamudra (C) Yadav : Warangal (D) Pandya : Madura 51. Who of the following introduced silver coin called ‘tanka’ ? (A) Alauddin Khilji (B) Qutub-ud-din Aibak (C) Iltutmish (D) Balban 52. From the following names identify the one who was not the brother of Humayun. (A) Kamran (B) Usman (C) Askari (D) Hindal 53. ‘Permanent Settlement’ was introduced during the tenure of— (A) Warren Hastings (B) Lord Cornwallis (C) Sir John Shore (D) Lord Wellesley 54. In whose reign was the ‘Treaty of Chittor’ signed between Mughal and the Rana of Mewar ? (A) Akbar (B) Jahangir (C) Shahjahan (D) Aurangzeb 55. Which medieval Indian ruler prior to Akbar has been referred to as the ‘Akbar of Kashmir’ ? (A) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi (B) Sultan Sikandar
(C) Zainul Abedin (D) Mahmud Gawan 56. The Bengali leader who opposed socio-religious reforms and support orthodoxy was— (A) Radhakant Deb (B) Nemisadhan Bose (C) Hemchandra Biswas (D) Hemchandra De 57. Varindra Ghosh was associated with— (A) Anushilan Samiti (B) Sadhava Samaj (C) Abhinava Bharat (D) Swadesh Bandhav Samiti 58. Who was the first Sultan of Delhi to have levied ‘Haqq-i-Sharab’ or irrigation tax ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Alauddin Khalji Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq Mohammad Bin Tughlaq Firoz Tughlaq
41. Subhas Chandra Bose had founded ‘Forward Bloc’ in the year— (A) 1936 A.D. (B) 1937 A.D. (C) 1938 A.D. (D) 1939 A.D. 42. The Gujarra minor rock edict, in which the name of Ashoka is mentioned, is located in— (A) Mirzapur district of Uttar Pradesh (B) Datia district of Madhya Pradesh (C) Jaipur district of Rajasthan (D) Champaran district of Bihar 43. Choose the correct pair from the following— (A) Khajuraho —Chandellas (B) Ellora caves —Saka (C) Mahabalipuram —Rashtrakutas (D) Meenakshi Temple —Pallavas 44. Which of the following sites has yielded skeleton of dog along with human skeleton in burial ? (A) Brahmagiri (B) Burzahom (C) Chirand (D) Maski 45. Which of the following Ashokan inscriptions is devoted to the principle of religious tolerance completely ? (A) Rock edict XIII (B) Rock edict XII (C) Pillar inscription VII (D) Bhabru minor rock edict 46. The earliest evidence of agriculture in Indian sub-continent comes from— (A) Koldihwa (B) Lahuradeva (C) Mehargarh (D) Tokwa 47. Which of the following mentions about the meeting of Sandrokottas (Chandragupta Maurya) with Alexander, the Great ? (A) Pliny (B) Justin
59. Which Sultan of Delhi had established a separate agriculture department and had planned the ‘rotation of crops’ ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Iltutmish Balban Alauddin Khalji Mohammad Bin Tughlaq
60. As per world statistics 2008, what approximate percentage of world population lives in Asia ? (A) 61% (C) 65% (B) 63% (D) 66%
61. The State having highest scheduled caste population in India is— (A) Rajasthan (B) Maharashtra (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Uttar Pradesh 62. Ujjain is situated at the bank of— (A) Chambal river (B) Kschipra river (C) Godavari river (D) Narmada river 63. Bagalihar Project lies on the— (A) (B) (C) (D) Jhelum river Ravi river Chenab river Indus river
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64. Drakensberg is a mountain of— (A) Botswana (B) Namibia (C) South Africa (D) Zambia 65. Which one of the following is a cold current of the South Atlantic Ocean ? (A) Canary Current (B) Benguela Current (C) Agulhas Current (D) Brazil Current 66. Which region of the world, would you associate with ‘Bushmen’ ? (A) East Africa (B) Sahara Desert (C) New Zealand (D) Kalahari 67. Identify the only tributary of River Ganges which rises in the plains— (A) Son (B) Sharda or Saryu (C) Gomti (D) Ram Ganga 68. Uttar Pradesh holds the first place in India in the production of— (A) Rice and wheat (B) Wheat and sugarcane (C) Rice and Sugarcane (D) Wheat and pulses 69. Which one of the following is the tertiary activity ? (A) Forestry (B) Manufacturing (C) Farming (D) Marketing 70. Chilka lake is situated in— (A) West Bengal (B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Orissa (D) Tamil Nadu 71. The distance of Moon from the Earth is— (A) 364 thousand kms (B) 300 thousand kms (C) 446 thousand kms (D) 384 thousand kms 72. Japan is one of the leading industrial countries of the world because— (A) It has ample mineral resources (B) It has ample bio-energy resources (C) Industrial revolution was initiated here (D) It has high technological capacity 73. The planet which is called twin sister of earth is— (A) Mercury (B) Venus (C) Mars (D) Pluto 74. The is— (A) (B) (C) (D) deepest lake of the World Pushkar lake in Rajasthan Lake superior in America Victoria lake in Africa Baikal lake in Russia
(C) to strive towards abolition of untouchability (D) to develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of enquiry and reform 77. Education which was initially a state subject was transferred to the Concurrent list by the— (A) 24th Amendment (B) 25th Amendment (C) 42nd Amendment (D) 44th Amendment 78. The Constitution is silent in the Directive Principles of State Policy about— (A) adult education (B) living wages for workers (C) free legal aid to the poor (D) Primary education to children till they complete the age of 6 years 79. The Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly under Dr. B. R. Ambedkar had how many other members ? (A) 7 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 4 80. The distribution of legislative power between the centre and the states in the Constitution is given in— (A) Sixth schedule (B) Seventh schedule (C) Eighth schedule (D) Ninth schedule 81. The number of High Court of Judicature in India is— (A) (B) (C) (D) Twenty Twenty one Twenty two Twenty three
75. The deepest trenches of the ocean are found in— (A) Indian Ocean (B) Pacific Ocean (C) Arctic Ocean (D) Atlantic Ocean 76. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen do not include duty— (A) to protect and improve the natural environment (B) to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom
Indian, P & S Bank,
SBI (6100) Special Batch
November
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82. Which one of the following states does not have a bicameral legislature ? (A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Bihar (D) Karnataka 83. The cardinal features of political system in India are— 1. It is a democratic republic. 2. It has a Parliamentary form of government. 3. The supreme power vests in people of India. 4. It provide for a unified authority Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) All the four 84. The basis of determining dearness allowances to employees of India is— (A) National Income (B) Consumer Price Index (C) Standard of Living (D) Per Capita Income 85. Narsinham Committee related to— (A) Higher education reforms (B) Tax structure reforms (C) Banking structure reforms (D) Planning implementation reforms 86. Note issuing department of Reserve Bank of India should always possess the minimum gold stock worth— (A) 85 crore (B) 115 crore (C) 200 crore (D) None of the above 87. ‘Smart Money’ is a term used for— (A) Internet Banking (B) Credit Card (C) Saving Account in the Bank (D) Current Account in the Bank 88. The aim of differentiated Interest scheme was to provide concessional loans to— (A) Weaker Section of Society (B) Public Sector Industries (C) Public Limited Companies (D) Big Exporters
89. The first Industry to develop in India was the— (A) Cottage industry (B) Cement industry (C) Iron and steel industry (D) Engineering industry 90. Which one of the following states was having the highest Human Development Index in the year 2001 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Assam Kerala Uttar Pradesh Madhya Pradesh
97. Which of the following is fish ? (A) Sea cucumber (B) Sea cow (C) Sea horse (D) Sea lion 98. The yellow colour of human urine is due to a pigment called— (A) Cytochrome (B) Urochrome (C) Haemochrome (D) Phenolichrome 99. The branch of study dealing with old age and aging is called— (A) Oncology (B) Gerentology (C) Teratology (D) Ornithology
91. In which one of the following Countries High Yield variety seed were developed for the first time ? (A) Argentina (B) China 100. Emphysaema is a disease caused (C) Mexico (D) India by environmental pollution in 92. Which one of the following per which the affected organ of the capita daily calorie intake has body is— been recommended for deter(A) liver (B) kidney mining the poverty line in rural (C) lungs (D) brain areas in India ? (A) 2200 (C) 2500 (B) 2400 (D) 2600
Answers
93. In India which agency is entrusted with the collection of data of capital formation ? (A) RBI and Central Statistical Organisation (B) RBI and SBI (C) RBI and all other Commercial Banks (D) Central Statistical Organisation and National Sample Survey 94. Which one of the following duration is related to XI Five Year Plan in India ? (A) 2005-10 (B) 2006-11 (C) 2007-12 (D) 2008-13 95. Open market operations of RBI refer to— (A) buying and selling of shares (B) auctioning of foreign exchange (C) trading in securities (D) transactions in gold 96. Which of the following is the smallest bone in the human body ? (A) Vomer (B) Stapes (C) Malleus (D) Incus
P.Darpan
Corrigendum
(October 2010 Issue) Page 705, Q. 6 correct answer is (A)
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Solved Paper
ORIENTAL INSURANCE COMPANY A.A.O. EXAM., 2010
(Held on 9-5-2010)
Reasoning Ability and General Awareness
(Based on Memory)
Part–I Reasoning Ability
1. If the following numbers are rewritten by interchanging the digits in ten’s place and hundred’s place and then arranging them in the descending order. What will be the second digit of the newly formed fifth number from your right ? 479, 736, 895, 978, 389, 675 (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 2. P is 60 m South-East of Q. R is 60 m North-East of Q. Then R is in which direction of P ? (A) North (B) North-East (C) South (D) South-East Directions—(Q. 3–5) Read the following information for answering the questions that follow— On a playing ground A, B, C, D and E are standing as described below facing the North. (i) B is 50 metres to the right of D. (ii) A is 60 metres to the South of B (iii) C is 40 metres to the West of D. (iv) E is 80 metres to the North of A. 3. If a boy walks from C, meets D followed by B, A and then E, how many metres has he walked if he has travelled the straight distance all through ? (A) 120 (B) 150 (C) 170 (D) 230 4. What is the minimum distance (in metre approximately) between C and E ? (A) 53 (B) 78 (C) 92 (D) 120 5. Who is to the South-East of the person who is to the left of D ? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) E
6. A man was walking in the evening just before the sun set. His wife said that, his shadow fell on his right. If the wife was walking in the opposite direction of the man, then which direction the wife was facing ? (A) North (B) West (C) South (D) East Directions—(Q. 7–11) In each of the following questions choose the set of numbers from the four alternative sets that is similar to the given set. 07. Given set : (4, 9, 18) (A) (8, 14, 22) (B) (10, 15, 25) (C) (6, 12, 23) (D) (12, 17, 26) 08. Given set : (10, 14, 17) (A) (4, 11, 14) (B) (9, 12, 15) (C) (8, 13, 18) (D) (6, 9, 12) 09. Given set : (7, 27, 55) (A) (21, 35, 52) (B) (18, 42, 65) (C) (16, 40, 72) (D) (13, 30, 58) 10. Given set : (39, 28, 19) (A) (84, 67, 52) (B) (52, 25, 17) (C) (70, 49, 36) (D) (65, 45, 21) 11. Given set : (246, 257, 358) (A) (233, 343, 345) (B) (273, 365, 367) (C) (143, 226, 237) (D) (145, 235, 325) Directions—(Q. 12–16) Each question contains six or seven statements followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in which the statements are logically related. 12. (1) All books are having pages. (2) All kings are having pages. (3) All kings are books.
(4) Some heavy things are having pages. (5) Some heavy things are books. (6) Some books are heavy. (7) Some heavy things are having pages. (A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 6, 1, 4 (C) 4, 6, 1 (D) 1, 5, 7 13. (1) No athletes are vegetarians. (2) All cricket players are athletes. (3) Some athletes play cricket. (4) Some cricket players are vegetarians. (5) No cricket player is a vegetarian. (6) All athletes are vegetarians. (A) 1, 2, 5 (B) 3, 4, 1 (C) 1, 5, 2 (D) 2, 5, 6 14. (1) All grandmothers cook well. (2) No man is a grandmother. (3) Some men do not cook well. (4) All those who cook well are men. (5) No one who cooks well is a man. (6) All those who cook well are grandmothers. (7) Some men are not grandmothers. (A) 2, 6, 5 (B) 2, 5, 6 (C) 1, 4, 2 (D) 6, 4, 7 15. (1) Looting is a crime. (2) Some crooked people are criminals. (3) All those involved in looting are criminals. (4) Some crooked people are involved in looting. (5) All criminals are looked down in society. (6) Some crooked people are not criminals. (A) 1, 4, 6 (B) 3, 6, 2 (C) 1, 2, 6 (D) 3, 4, 2
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16. (1) Some women are those who are successful in life. (2) Some men are those who have patience. (3) No man is a woman. (4) All those who have patience are successful in life. (5) Some who are successful in life are men. (6) Some men are not those are successful in life. (A) 1, 3, 6 (B) 4, 2, 6 (C) 1, 5, 3 (D) 2, 4, 5 Directions—(Q. 17–21) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answers— (A) If the data in statement (I) alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement (II) alone are not sufficient to answer the question; (B) If the data in statement (II) alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement (I) alone are not sufficient to answer the questions; (C) If the data even in both statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient to answer the question; (D) If the data in both statement (I) and (II) together are necessary to answer the question. 17. In which direction is Mahatmaji’s statue facing ? I. The statue is towards the northern end of the city. II. The statue’s shadow falls towards East at 5 O’clock in the evening. 18. What is the total number of pupils in the final year class ? I. The number of boys in the final year class is twice as much as the number of girls in that class.
19. Who is the tallest among A, B, C and D ? I. A is taller than C. II. B is taller than C and D. 20. How many Sundays are there in a particular month of a particular year ? I. The month begins on Monday. II. The month ends on Wednesday. 21. What is the total number of pages in this book ? I. I counted 132 pages from the beginning of this book. II. My wife counted 138 pages starting from the end of the same book. Directions—(Q. 22–26) In each of the questions given below, there is a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and assumptions and then decide, which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement. 22. Statement : During pre-harvest kharif seasons, the government has decided to release vast quantity of foodgrains from FCI. Assumptions : I. There may be a shortage of foodgrains in the market during this season. II. The kharif crop may be able to replenish the stock of FCI. III. There may be a demand from the farmers to procure kharif crop immediately after harvest. (A) None is implicit (B) Only I and II are implicit (C) Only II and III are implicit (D) All are implicit 23. Statement : To improve the employment situation in India, there is a need to recast the present educational system towards implementation of scientific discoveries in daily life. Assumptions : I. The students after completing such education may be able to earn their livelihood.
II.
III.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
This may bring meaning of education in the minds of the youth. The state may earn more revenue as more and more people will engage themselves in self employment. Only I and II are implicit Only III is implicit Only I and III are implicit None is implicit
24. Statement : To increase profit, the oil exporting countries decided to reduce the production of crude by 5 million barrels per day. Assumptions : I. The price of crude may increase due to less production. II. The demand of crude may remain same in future. III. Other countries may continue buying crude from these countries. (A) All are implicit (B) Only II and III are implicit (C) Only I and II are implicit (D) None is implicit 25. Statement : “We do not want you to see our product on newspaper, visit our shop to get a full view.” – an advertisement. Assumptions : I. People generally decide to purchase any product after seeing the name in the advertisement. II. Uncommon appeal may attract the customers. III. People may come to see the product. (A) All are implicit (B) None is implicit (C) Only II and III are implicit (D) Only I and II are implicit 26. Statement : The Reserve Bank of India has directed the banks to refuse fresh loans to major defaulters. Assumptions : I. II. The banks may still give loans to the defaulters. The defaulters may repay the earlier loan to get fresh loan.
II. The sum of the ages of all the pupils in the class is 399 years and their average age is 19 years.
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III. The banks may recover the bad loans through such harsh measures. (A) All are implicit (B) None is implicit (C) Both II and III are implicit (D) Both I and II are implicit Directions—(Q. 27–31) In questions given below, statements 1 and 2 are followed by conclusions I and II. Taking the statements to be right although they may seem at variance with commonly accepted facts, mark your answers as under— (A) If only conclusion I follows. (B) If only conclusion II follows. (C) If both I and II follows. (D) Neither I nor II follows. 27. Statements : 1. All hands are machines. 2. All machines are wheels. Conclusions : I. All wheels are hands. II. All hands are wheels. 28. Statements : 1. Some buds are leaves. 2. Some leaves are red. Conclusions : I. Some buds are red. II. Some leaves are not buds. 29. Statements : 1. Some stones are shells. 2. All shells are pearls. Conclusions : I. Some stones are pearls. II. All pearls are shells. 30. Statements : 1. Brown is red and blue is green. 2. Green is pink and yellow is red. Conclusions : I. Yellow is brown. II. Pink is blue. 31. Statements : 1. Merchants who do not own cars do not have bicycles either. 2. Those who do not have bicycles have tricycles. Conclusions : I. Some merchants have only tricycles. II. No one has both, the car and the tricycles.
Directions—(Q. 32–36) A number arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the stages of arrangement. Input Step I Step II : 245, 316, 436, 519, 868, 710, 689 : 710, 316, 436, 519, 868, 245, 689 : 710, 316, 245, 519, 868, 436, 689
36. Which of the following is the last step for the following input ? Input : 473, 442, 735, 542, 367, 234, 549 (A) 234, 442, 542, 473, 735, 367, 549 (B) 234, 442, 542, 735, 473, 367, 549 (C) 234, 442, 542, 473, 367, 735, 549 (D) 234, 442, 542, 735, 367, 473, 549 Directions—(Q. 37–41) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it— (1) There is a group of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F in a family. They are Psychologist, Manager, Lawyer, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer. (2) The doctor is the grandfather of F, who is a Psychologist. (3) The Manager D is married to A. (4) C, the Jeweller, is married to the Lawyer. (5) B is the mother of F and E. (6) There are two married couples in the family. (7) The Psychologist is a female while Engineer is a male. 37. What is the profession of E ? (A) Doctor (B) Engineer (C) Manager (D) Psychologist 38. How is A related to E ? (A) Brother (B) Uncle (C) Father (D) Grandfather 39. How many male numbers are there in the family ? (A) One (B) Three (C) Four (D) Two 40. What is the profession of A ? (A) Doctor (B) Lawyer (C) Jeweller (D) Manager 41. Which of the following is one of the pairs of couples in the family ? (A) AB (B) AC (C) AD (D) AE 42. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one
Step III : 710, 316, 245, 436, 868, 519, 689 Step IV : 710, 316, 245, 436, 519, 868, 689 Step IV is the last step of input. 32. If 655, 436, 764, 799, 977, 572, 333 is the input which of the following steps will be ‘333, 436, 572, 655, 977, 764, 799’ ? (A) II (B) III (C) IV (D) I 33. How many steps will be required to get the final output from the following input ? Input : 544, 653, 325, 688, 461, 231, 857 (A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 6 34. For the given input, which of the following will be third step ? Input : 236, 522, 824, 765, 622, 463, 358 (A) 358 (B) 358 (C) 358 (D) 358 522, 236, 765, 824, 622, 463, 522, 622, 236, 824, 765, 463, 522, 622, 236, 765, 824, 463, 522, 622, 236, 463, 824, 765,
35. If following is the second step for an input, what will be the fourth step ? Step II # 620, 415, 344, 537, 634, 977 (A) 620, 415, 344, 537, 634, 977 (B) 620, 415, 344, 634, 537, 977 (C) 620, 415, 344, 634, 787, 977 (D) Can’t be determined 787, 787, 787, 537,
PD/December/2010/1123
that does not belong to that group ? (A) Papaya (B) Mango (C) Jackfruit (D) Watermelon 43. Three of the following four are similar in relation to their positions in the English alphabet and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group ? (A) SPEAK : PZVKH (B) HUSKY : BPGFS (C) BRAIN : MRZIY (D) BREAK : PZVIY 44. Three of the following four groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different ? (A) DJWR (B) EKXR (C) KQDX (D) AGTN 45. Four groups of letters are given below. Three of them are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one. (A) GWOURV (B) LZKMSU (C) SFXPMG (D) JOEHNP 46. Four pairs of words are given below out of which the words in all pairs except one, bear a certain common relationship. Choose the pair in which the words are differently related. (A) (B) (C) (D) Watt : Power Ampere : Current Pascal : Pressure Radian : Degree
49. How many pairs of letters are there in the word OPERATION in which the difference between them is the same as in the English alphabet ? (A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9 50. Arrange the given words in order in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct sequence. (1) Dissipate (2) Dissuade (3) Disseminate (4) Distract (5) Dissociate (6) Dissect (A) (B) (C) (D) 6, 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 1, 6, 3, 2, 4, 5 3, 6, 1, 2, 5, 4 4, 6, 3, 1, 5, 2
52. VINA (A) (5) (0) (5) (15) (B) (5) (25) (5) (25) (C) (5) (30) (5) (30) (D) (5) (10) (5) (30) 53. AGE (A) (0) (15) (0) (B) (15) (15) (15) (C) (0) (10) (10) (D) (0) (5) (0) 54. PEAR (A) (5) (15) (15) (5) (B) (5) (25) (5) (25) (C) (5) (10) (5) (10) (D) (5) (30) (5) (30) 55. TIN (A) (B) (C) (D) (0) (5) (0) (5) (0) (5) (0) (10) (0) (5) (10) (5)
51. The letters skipped in between the adjacent letters in the series are followed by equal space. Which of the following series observes this rule ? (A) SUXADF (B) RVZDFG (C) HKNGSW (D) RVZDHL Directions—(Q. 52–56) In a certain code, letters of English alphabet are coded as given for some words. The numeric code for each letter is given in bracket under coded form and corresponds to the letter in the word in the same serial order, study the coded forms of the given words and find out the rules for their classification. Applying those rules find out the code for the words given in capital letters in the questions that follow— Word ATE NONE UNIT PIN PAGE OPEN ONE CUT SEAT DEEP (0) (5) (30) (5) (5) (30) (0) (5) (5) (5) Codes Form (5) (25) (5) (10) (25) (5) (5) (10) (15) (20) (0) (5) (30) (5) (5) (30) (0) (5) (15) (20) (25) (5) (25) (5)
56. UNIT (A) (5) (30) (5) (30) (B) (5) (10) (30) (10) (C) (30) (5) (30) (5) (D) (15) (10) (10) (15) 57. If the first and second digits in the squence 7 9 8 4 5 3 6 7 8 3 4 5 are interchanged, also the third and fourth digits, the fifth and sixth digits and so on which digit would be the sixth counting from your right ? (A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8 58. The letter I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T in their order are substituted by twelve numbers but not in that oder. 3 is assigned to R. The difference between R and M is 7. The difference between K and M is 2. What number is assigned to K ? (A) 8 (B) 12 (C) 7 (D) 11 59. Below are given six three-character numbers. The characters comprise of digits and letters. The letter stands for one less than its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle character of the 3rd number when the numbers are arranged in the decending order ? 8G6, 3DJ, F4C, 7HB, 4E6, B8I
47. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters of the series starting from behind are increased by one. Which of the following series observes this rule ? (A) ONLKI (B) OMKIG (C) OMJFA (D) OIGDC 48. If the letters of the word ‘PROTECTION’ which are at odd numbered position in the English alphabet are picked up and are arranged in alphabetical order from left and if they are now substituted by Z, Y, X and so on, beginning from left which letter will get substituted by X ? (A) E (B) O (C) T (D) I
(5) (5)
PD/December/2010/1124
(A) 7 (C) 6
(B) 8 (D) 4
60. Which of the following will be the third digit of the fourth number after the following numbers are arranged in descending order after reversing the positions of the digits within each number ? 645, 869, 458, 347, 981, 792 (A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 9
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Slovakia Scandinavia Netherlands Australasia
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Ela Bhatt Jhumpa Lahiri Punam Suri Mandakni Apte
68. The device used for locating submerged objects under sea is— (A) Sonar (B) Radar (C) Laser (D) Maser 69. Which article of the Constitution provides the Parliament the power to ammend Constitution ? (A) 376 (B) 370 (C) 368 (D) 390 70. What is the name of the first successfully cloned deer ? (A) Dawn (B) Deluxe (C) Demor (D) Dewey 71. The idea of motion pictures was propounded by— (A) N. R. Finsen (B) T. A. Edison (C) J. L. Baird (D) Berliner 72. In Greek mythology, Apollo is the god of which of the following ? (A) Love (B) Peace (C) Prophecy (D) Medicine 73. NASA’s new space telescope is— (A) Wise (B) Rise (C) Barack (D) Telle 74. Bull fighting is the national game of— (A) Italy (B) Poland (C) Spain (D) Sudan 75. In a rare recognition, the Government of Mauritius decides to introduce a book written by Uttarakhand Chief Minister Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank in the School Syllabus of the island nation, what is the name of the book ? (A) Sound of Hills (B) Sparsh Ganga (C) Heaven (D) Amrit 76. Who has been selected for the ‘Niwano Peace Prize, 2010’ for her contribution to the uplift of poor women in India ?
Part–II General Awareness
61. Which of the following stars lies nearest to our solar system ? (A) Barnard’s Star (B) Sirius A (C) Alpha Centauri A (D) Proxima Centauri 62. Of the total water on the earth, fresh water reserves constitute approximately— (A) 5·8% (B) 4·5% (C) 2·59% (D) 1·2% 63. The term ‘Bishop’ in sports is related to— (A) Chess (B) Hockey (C) Badminton (D) Bridge 64. Yakshagan is the famous dance form of the State of— (A) Orissa (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Karnataka 65. Balance of Payments means— (A) Difference between export and imports (B) Balance to be paid to the exporters (C) Balance to be paid to the industrialists (D) Balance coming in allocation of funds for States 66. A light year is equivalent to about— (A) 365 days (B) Six million miles (C) Six billion miles (D) Six trillion miles 67. Denmark, Iceland, Norway, Sweden and Finland are together called—
77. On which of the following dates in 2010 did the safeguard agreement with regard to civilian nuclear facilities between India and the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) come into force ? (A) February 28 (B) February 21 (C) February 11 (D) February 4 78. The tax which the kings used to collect from the people in the Vedic period was called— (A) Bali (B) Vidatha (C) Varman (D) Kara 79. The cells which are responsible for the production of antibodies are— (A) Red blood cells (B) Neutrophils (C) Lymphocytes (D) Platelets 80. Correct expansion of the term ‘http’ in Internet address is— (A) Hybrid text transfer protocol (B) Hyper text transfer protocol (C) Higher transfer text protocol (D) Higher text transfer protocol
Answers with Explanations
PD/December/2010/1125
Solved Paper
BANK OF BARODA PROBATIONARY OFFICERS EXAM., 2010
(Held on 30-5-2010)
Quantitative Aptitude
(Based on Memory)
Directions% (Q. 1 to 5) What will come in place of question-mark (?) in the following questions ? 01. 36 × 15 – 56 × 784 ÷ 112 = ? (A) 138 (B) 238 (C) 158 (D) 258 (E) None of these 02. 28·314 – 31·427 + 113·928 = ? + 29·114 (A) 81·711 (B) 80·701 (C) 71·711 (D) 81·701 (E) None of these 2 2 03. of 1 of 75% of 540 = ? 3 5 (A) 378 (B) 756 (C) 252 (D) 332 (E) None of these 04. 36% of 420 – 56% of 350 = ? – 94 (A) 48·2 (B) 49·2 (C) – 138·8 (D) – 158·8 (E) None of these 05. 09. 4433·764 – 2211·993 – 1133·667 + 3377·442 = ? (A) 4466 (B) 4377 (C) 3633 (D) 4144 (E) 3344 10. (13·96)2 – (15·03)2 + (18·09)2 – 32·65 = ? (A) 223 (B) 264 (C) 334 (D) 354 (E) 201 Directions—(Q. 11 to 15) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series ? 11. 13, 16, 22, 33, 51, (?) (A) 89 (B) 78 (C) 102 (D) 69 (E) None of these 12. 39, 52, 78, 117, 169, (?) (A) 246 (B) 182 (C) 234 (D) 256 (E) None of these 13. 656, 432, 320, 264, 236, (?) (A) 222 (B) 229 (C) 232 (D) 223 (E) None of these 14. 62, 87, 187, 412, 812, (?) (A) 1012 (B) 1437 (C) 1337 (D) 1457 (E) None of these 15. 7, 8, 24, 105, 361, (?) (A) 986 (B) 617 (C) 486 (D) 1657 (E) None of these Directions—(Q. 16 to 20) In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer if— (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) x x x x x > ? < ? = y y y y y or the relationship cannot be established. 16. I. x 2 + x – 20 = 0 II. y 2 – y – 30 = 0 17. I. II. 18. I. II. 19. I. II. 20. I. II. 225x2 – 4 = 0 ? 225y ???? + 2 = 0 7 4 + = ?x ? ?x ? ? x ?? (11)5/2 = 0 y2 – ? ?y x 2 – 365 = 364 y – ??? = ?? ? 324 ? 81 3x2 + 8x + 4 = 0 4y2 – 19y + 12 = 0
(? 9 )3 × (??? )5 ÷ (27)2 = (3)(?) ? ? 81
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 7 (D) 6 (E) None of these
21. The total area of a circle and a square is equal to 5450 sq cm. The diameter of the circle is 70 cm. What is the sum of the circumference of the circle and the perimeter of the square ? (A) 360 cm (B) 380 cm (C) 270 cm (D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these 22. The ratio between the speed of a train and a car is 16 : 15 respectively. Also, a bus covered a distance of 480 km in 8 hours. The speed of the bus is threefourth the speed of the train. How much distance will the car cover in 6 hours ? (A) 450 km (B) 480 km (C) 360 km (D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these 23. Ram’s present age is three times his son’s present age and twofifth of his father’s present age. The average of the present ages of all of them is 46 years. What is the difference between the Ram’s son’s present age and Ram’s father’s present age ?
Directions—(Q. 6 to 10) What approximate value will come in place of question-mark (?) in the following questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.) 06. 1599 × 199 ÷ 49 – 1398 + 3877 ? (A) 9400 (B) 9000 (C) 8700 (D) 8400 (E) 9200 7 7 1 07. 7 × 6 ÷ 9 = ? 12 19 3 (A) 9 (B) 11 (C) 2 (D) 5 (E) 13 ? 08. 21·7% of 514·9 – 43·44 = 5·5 (A) 320 (B) 335 (C) 475 (D) 375 (E) 420
PD/December/2010/1128
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
68 years 88 years 58 years Cannot be determined None of these
(A) 22 : 51 (B) 23 : 51 (C) 21 : 55 (D) 51 : 22 (E) None of these 28. Total number of students who visited Jodhpur is approximately what per cent of number of girls who visited Delhi ? (A) 111 (B) 91 (C) 132 (D) 32 (E) 72 29. What is the average number of boys who visited Kolkata, Varanasi and Jodhpur together ? (A) 110 (B) 122 (C) 101 (D) 104 (E) None of these 30. What is the total number of girls who visited Delhi, Mumbai and Varanasi together ? (A) 464 (B) 484 (C) 536 (D) 556 (E) None of these Directions—(Q. 31 to 35) Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow :
24. Twenty per cent of Anuj’s annual salary is equal to seventy five per cent of Raj’s annual salary. Raj’s monthly salary is 60% of Ravi’s monthly salary. If Ravi’s annual salary is Rs. 1·44 lacs. What is Anuj’s monthly salary ? (A) Rs. 2,70,000 (B) Rs. 27,000 (C) Rs. 3,24,000 (D) Rs. 5,400 (E) None of these 25. The largest and the second largest angles of a triangle are in the ratio of 3 : 2 respectively. The smallest angle is 20% of the sum of the largest and the second largest angles. What is the sum of the smallest and the second largest angles ? (A) 80° (B) 60° (C) 100 ° (D) 90° (E) None of these Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) Study the information carefully to answer the questions that follow. In a school there are 1200 students who have visited five different cities viz. Delhi, Kolkata, Varanasi, Mumbai and Jodhpur. Forty five per cent of the total students are boys. Thirty per cent of the total girls visited Mumbai. Twofifth of the total girls visited Delhi. Number of girls who visited Jodhpur is half of the girls visited Delhi. Twothird of the remaining girls visited Kolkata. Total number of students who visited Mumbai is 300. Twenty per cent of the total boys visited Delhi. Forty per cent of the total boys visited Jodhpur. Equal number of boys visited Kolkata and Varanasi. 26. What is the total number of students who visited Varanasi ? (A) 78 (B) 69 (C) 102 (D) 103 (E) None of these 27. What is the respective ratio between the number of girls visited Kolkata and number of boys visited Mumbai ?
33. Total number of students in School B and School C together in the year 2004 was approximately what percentage of the total number of students in School B and School C together in the year 2007 ? (A) 85 (B) 80 (C) 75 (D) 184 (E) 131 34. What was the difference between the total number of students in all the schools together in the year 2003 and number of students in School B in the year 2005 ? (A) 2000 (B) 3000 (C) 3500 (D) 2500 (E) None of these 35. What was the approximate average number of students in School A over all the years together ? (A) 1990 (B) 2090 (C) 2300 (D) 1800 (E) 2700 Directions—(Q. 36 to 40) Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow :
Number of Students (in thousands) in Three Schools over the Years
Number of students (in thousands)
School A 4 3.5 3 2.5 2 1.5 1 0.5 0 2002 2003
School B
School C
Number of Officers (in thousands) Passed out from Five Different Academies during Six Different Years
Academies Years 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 Air Army Navy Coast BSF Force Guard 1·4 1·7 0·9 2·4 1·3 2·7 4·2 5·1 7·7 3·6 4·5 3·9 0·6 0·9 1·2 1·8 2·9 3·5 1·7 2·8 1·6 4·7 5·1 3·9 2·6 3·1 4·7 5·8 6·4 4·3
2004 2005 2006 2007 Years
31. What was the average number of students in all the Schools together in the year 2006 ? (A) 30,000 (B) 9,000 (C) 3,000 (D) 6,000 (E) None of these 32. How many times the total number of students in all the three Schools A, B and C together was exactly equal among the given years ? (A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3 (E) None of these
36. What was the average number of officers passed out from all the academies together in the year 2007 ? (A) 1830 (B) 3660 (C) 3·66 lacs (D) 1·83 lacs (E) None of these 37. In which academy the number of the officers passed out continuously increased during the year 2004 to 2009 ? (A) Air Force (B) Army and BSF only
PD/December/2010/1129
(C) Navy only (D) Coast Guard (E) BSF & Navy only 38. What was the respective ratio between the number of officers passed out from Air Force academy in the year 2006 and number of officers passed out from Coast Guard academy in the year 2009 ? (A) 30 : 17 (B) 3 : 23 (C) 17 : 30 (D) 45 : 13 (E) None of these 39. Number of officers passed out from BSF academy in hte year 2008 was approximately what per cent of the total number of officers passed out from Army academy over all the years together ? (A) 12 (B) 19 (C) 33 (D) 28 (E) 22 40. In which academy the total number of officers passed out over all the years together was the maximum ? (A) Air force (B) Army (C) Navy (D) Coast Guard (E) BSF Directions—(Q. 41 to 45) Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions that follow :
(A) 1700 (B) 1·7 lacs (C) 17000 (D) 85000 (E) None of these 42. What was the total number of all the products produced by the company in the year 2006 and 2008 together ? (A) 10750 (B) 107·5 lacs (C) 105700 (D) 10570 (E) None of these 43. What was the respective ratio between the number of CDs produced by the company in the year 2009 and the number of Keyboards produced by the company in the year 2005 ? (A) 9 : 10 (B) 11 : 10 (C) 10 : 9 (D) 10 : 11 (E) None of these 44. What is the difference between the total number of Pen-drives and CDs produced by the company together in the year 2008 and the number of Key-boards produced by the company in the year 2006 ? (A) 40000 (B) 4000 (C) 35000 (D) 3500 (E) None of these 45. What was the respective ratio between the number of Keyboards produced by the company in the year 2006, 2007 and 2009 ? (A) 1 : 2 : 3 (B) 1 : 2 : 2 (C) 2 : 1 : 3 (D) 1 : 2 : 1 (E) None of these 46. A man crosses a stationary train in 12 minutes. The same train crosses a man in 54 seconds. What was the respective ratio between the speed of the train and the man ? (A) 40 : 7 (B) 400 : 3 (C) 40 : 3 (D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these 47. If a number is subtracted by twothird of 75 per cent of 600, the value so obtained is 320. What is the number ? (A) 300 (B) 620 (C) 720 (D) 500 (E) None of these
48. The ratio between the angles of a quadrilateral is 7 : 2 : 5 : 6 respectively. What is the sum of double the smallest angle and half the largest angle of the quadrilateral ? (A) 162 ° (B) 198 ° (C) 99° (D) 135 ° (E) None of these 49. 3 men can complete a piece of work in 6 days. 5 women can complete the same work in 18 days. In how many days will 4 men and 10 women together complete the same work ? (A) 3 days (B) 5 days (C) 2 days (D) 4 days (E) None of these 50. The sum of five consecutive numbers is 270. What is the sum of the second and the fifth number ? (A) 108 (B) 107 (C) 110 (D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these
Answers with Hints
0
Three Different Products (in Thousands) Produced by a Company in Five Different Years
Compact Disks (CD’s) Pen Drives Number of Products (in thousands) Key Boards 35 30 25 20 15 10 5 0 2005 2006 2007 Years 2008 2009
0
0
0
0
41. What was the average number of Pen-drives produced by the company overall the years together ?
PD/December/2010/1130
Essay Contest
Ethics and Expediency
—Mona Sankhla
Ethics
Ethics (also known as moral philosophy) is a branch of philosophy that addresses questions about morality—that is, concepts such as good and evil, right and wrong, justice, virtue etc.— Ethics
Normative Ethics
Traditionally, normative ethics was the study of what makes actions right and wrong. At the turn of the 20th century, moral theories are no longer concerned solely with rightness and wrongness, but are interested in many different kinds of moral status. During the middle of the century, the study of normative ethics declined as meta-ethics grew in prominence.
Meta-ethics
Normative ethics Applied ethics
Moral Psychology
Moral psychology
Meta-ethics
Meta-ethics is the branch of ethics that seeks to understand the nature of ethical properties, and ethical statements, attitudes and judgements. The semantics of ethics divides naturally into descriptivism and nondescriptivism. Descriptivism holds that ethical language (including ethical commands and duties) is a subdivision of descriptive language and has meaning in virtue of the same kind of properties as descriptive propositions. Non-descriptivism contends that ethical proposi- Mona Sankhla tions are irreducible in the sense that their meaning cannot be explicated sufficiently in terms of descriptive truth-conditions. Correspondingly, the epistemology of ethics divides into cognitivism and non-cognitivism; a distinction that is often perceived as equivalent to that between descriptivists and non-descriptivists. Noncognitivism may be understood as the claim that ethical claims reach beyond the scope of human cognition or as the (weaker) claim that ethics is concerned with action rather than with knowledge.
Moral psychology is a field of study that began, like most things, as an issue in philosophy and that is now properly considered part of the discipline of psychology. Some use the term ‘moral pscyhology’ relatively narrowly to refer to the study of moral development. However, others tend to use the term more broadly to include any topics at the intersection of ethics and psychology.
point. Some decision such as choosing a college or university to attend, allow for a longer decision-making process. Others such as one may encounter in hectic day trading on Wall Street or in many other situations, require a lightning fast appraisal of the situation. When Avn Rand stated that “the moral is the practical”, she meant it. Her use of the word ‘practical’ here may be confusing to many people. The most practical action would be the one that is most conducive to living on this earth, the one with the optimal achievement of value given inputs. The common usage of the word ‘practical’ perhaps influenced by the incongruence of other ethical systems to the real world, is a sort of pragmatic, expedient choice i.e., the easy way out.
Expediency
The Obama administration will face human-rights issues at every turn in confronting terrorism insurgency and ethics cleaning along the arc of crisis from South Asia to Sudan. To tackle these strategic challenges as well as chronic rights abuses, the new administration and non-governmental advocacy groups need a new, more pragmatic approach. In the past, the strategies of neoconservatives and liberal activists have been long on the rhetoric of freedom and rights, but have fallen short on results. Wary of over promising, the U.S. public has become skeptical about promoting American ideals abroad. Yet the real lesson of these set backs should not be to abandon idealistic goals, but to pursue them in more pragmatic ways. Without developing a more effective human-rights policy, the United States will neither recover its tarnished reputation nor accomplish its strategic goals. Some human-rights activists have begun to learn this lesson in their own work. While pronouncements from the headquarters of advocacy organisations still sound doctrinaire,
Applied Ethics
Applied ethics is a discipline of philosophy that attempts to apply ethical theory to real-life situations. The discipline has many specialized fields, such as bioethics and business ethics. Ethics arises because of the human need to make choices. We have to figure out what to do. Every moment of our lives, we’re faced with the necessity of deciding what comes next. Whatever we choose has some effect on the options presented to us in the next round. So ethics is the science that enables us to effectively make better choices. Many of the options will have good consequences in some respects and bad consequences in other respects. Now we have to decide between good options and better options. The endgoal is to make the best decision possible, but to do so in given limited time. Keep in mind that you don’t have all day not so-metaphorically speaking. Each decision that we have to make has to be made at some
PD/December/2010/1133
pragmatists in the fields are developing electric outcome-oriented approaches that take into account the power of local actors and the need to tailor tactics to local circumstances. Both realists and idealists should find value in these effective approaches, which can help restore America’s political standing in the world while also doing good. Over the past two decades, traditional human-rights activists have placed human-rights issues on the international agenda in quite dramatic fashion, but a hefty stack of statistical studies suggests that they have done only a little to improve actual situations on the ground. Treaty signing, legal accountability and ‘naming and shaming’ have had little demonstrable positive effect, and sometimes they even backfire. Where human-rights have improved, it is mainly because wars have ended or democracy has been successfully consolidated, not because of humanrights activism. Rights advocates who have targeted diffuse, embedded practices like child labour and female genital cutting have run into stiff resistance, even from those they seek to help. Advocates focusing on states violations have hardly fared better. The muchvaunted International Criminal Court has not delivered must justice or deterrence anywhere. And though everyone pledged ‘never again’ after the Rwandan genocide, the response to atrocities in Darfur and eastern Congo has been diffident and ineffectual. In response to these disappointments a new approach is emerging. Turning human-rights conventional wisdom on its head, pragmatists argue that amnesties for right abusers, material inducements for potential peace-deal breakers and dialogues based on local morality can be effective; criminalizing abuses and universalizing western standards often fail. This style of engagement fits well with the current climate of U.S. public opinion, which retains committed to human-rights ideals but has become wary of pushing this agenda with unreflective zeal. According to the Chicago Council on Global affairs. Global views 2008 survey, a plurality of U.S. public opinion has downgraded ‘promoting and defending human-rights’ from a ‘very impor-
tant’ to ‘somewhat important’ goal; a majority wants to ‘move cautiously’, rather than either ‘aggressively’ or ‘slowly’ in promoting human-rights abroad.
Ethics and (Leadership)
Expediency
doing what is right even when that course of action may not seem to be in our short-term best interest. The 19th century U.S. Navy oceangrapher Mathew Fontaine Maury rightly exhorted us that “where principle is involved, be deaf to expediency.” Failure to examine these issues in our own lives will create a pool of leaders destined to commit the same mistakes. P.Darpan
The staggering breakdown in trust at the beginning of this century, resulting from the lack of character of some leaders in corporate America should cause less finger-pointing and more serious introspection. These leaders are not from outer space, here to impose some alien standard of conduct, but came from among us and as such, reflect attitudes and values that we have lazily slipped into. The tendency is to punish the ‘evil-doers’ and move on confidentially in the knowledge that the problem has been solved. Certainly there should be a punishment and one sufficient enough to give all of us pause when considering giving in to expediency, but if we are to ‘solve’ the problem, the impetus is on us to look at ourselves and shore up our own character where we find it lacking. It isn’t a problem of an approach that backfired because it wasn’t given enough time to run its course it was that an approach was taken that was wrong. Betraying the trust of those you serve even for what is considered to be desirable end sought by all parties involved, can only hurt everyone connected to the expedient course of action taken. The expedient course is rarely the best course and in the end it taints us. As English poet Robert Southey noted, “Never let a man imagine that he can pursue a good end by evil means, without sinning, against his own soul. The evil effect on himself is certain.” In a less stable world, a leader will rely more on inner resources that on the shifting sands of social convention. If those inner resources are not built on a solid foundation then that leader will only contribute to the problem rather than stand as guiding lesson beacon and provide the direction we need. Certainly, the underlying reason for business is to make a profit, but if it can’t be made honestly, then it can’t be made. Expediency may lead to short-term gain but long term success can only come from a commitment to
Continued from Page 1132
P.Darpan
PD/December/2010/1134
Debate Contest
Right to Work should be Made a Constitutionally Fundamental Right
In Favour
—Dr. S. Purvaja
“Poverty is the worst form of violence.” —Mahatma Gandhi One of the greatest challenges that o u r country faces today is poverty. Around one-third of the Indian population is below the poverty line. The prime reason for such a vast number of people remaining poor is the absence of means of liveli- Dr. S. Purvaja hood. In contrast to the acute cyclical unemployment that occurs in developed countries, the problem here is chronic unemployment and underemployment. Any amount of economic growth would not lead us towards development unless the pernicious problem of poverty is eradicated. In order to strike a blow against the evil, the first issue that needs to be addressed is unemployment. With the increase in population every year, there is a net addition to the labour force apart from the already existing backlog of the unemployed. Agriculture accounts for 20% of our national income but provides employment to 60% of our country’s workforce. Most of this, however, is in the form of seasonal employment since, most of the Indian farmers are illiterate, financially weak and carry out primitive agriculture dependent on the monsoon. The rise in population has led to increased pressure on land resulting in division and fragmentation forming uneconomic holdings. Lack of opportunities and poverty ensueing therefrom, have been the major causes for the spread of Naxalism in many parts of our country. Decades of economic and social neglect has driven the tribals towards rebellion. There have been a lot of human casualties and destruction of a huge amount of property as a consequence of the naxal menace. It poses a grave threat to the peace and security of our nation. “Poverty devastates families, communities and nations. It causes instability and political unrest and fuels conflict.” —Kofi Annan The Economic Reforms of 1991 which triggered a wave of liberalisation and globalisation, have made the private sector occupy a greater space in the Indian economy. The small industrial units, which provide huge employment opportunities, have suffered, being exposed to competition from large units and Multi-National Companies. Big business houses have benefited the most. The private companies, in the name of technology upgradation have moved on from labour intensive to capitalintensive technologies. In the immediate post-independence period, when public sector was the main player in the course of industrialisation, the number of mandays lost due to strikes was more than that due to lock-outs. In the period following the economic reforms, this trend has been reversed, especially in the recent years. Lockouts accoun ted for 89% and strikes for merely 11% of the mandays lost in 2003. The deregulation of government controls in many years has emboldened the employers resulting in an increase in ‘employers’ militancy. Further, these changes have weak-ened the trade union activities. The bargaining power of the labour unions has been reduced to a great extent. The development of a country will not be complete without the empowerment of women. A large degree of gender inequality exists in India with regard to literacy, life expectancy, their status in the family and society and other criteria, in contrast to countries like Canada, USA, UK, Malaysia, Sri Lanka, and the Philippines where there is near gender equality. The prosperity of our country directly depends on the development of agriculture and industry. An essential pre-condition for this is the presence of adequate infrastructure facilities. Although India has achieved considerable success in the expansion of such facilities, a lot more, still needs to be done. The infrastructural development in our country has consistently shown a distinct urban bias. The relative neglect of rural areas has resulted in inadequate development and therefore inadequate employment opportunities. In addition, it has shown a bias in favour of the rich and the more affluent. It is the high income group who are capable of taking full advantage of such facilities as power, transport and communication, education and health. The major and medium irrigation works have also, generally benefited the rich farmers. Taking into consideration the widespread poverty, the large degree of unemployment and underemployment and the danger of violence it may pose, the labour cutting attitude of the companies, gender discrimination that still exists in many parts of our country and the infrastructural needs of various sectors of the economy, the one-point solution to resolve all these issues would be the enactment of a Constitutional Amendment declaring ‘Right to Work’ as a Fundamental Right. Creation of adequate opportunities and a favourable environment is essential to ensure the same. Such a legislation should have provisions restricting capitalists from retrenching workers in the name of importing higher technology. Guarantee of employment to all the
PD/December/2010/1135
citizens would make a frontal attack on poverty, improve the conditions of living for the poor and prevent them from taking up arms. There are many avenues for the creation of employment mainly on the lines of infrastructural development. This would serve the double purpose of job creation for the people as well as asset creation for the society. Taking up activities like creation of medium and minor irrigation projects in the public domain would help small and marginal farmers go in for double or multiple cropping thus solving the problem of seasonal unemployment. Provision of employment on an equal basis would contribute to the rise in the status of women at the level of the family as well as at the society. Economic security for women thus obtained would lead to their empowerment. In the words of James Abram Garfield, “At present, the most valuable gift which can be bestowed upon women is something to do which they can do well and worthily and thereby maintain themselves.” Ensuring a job for every citizen would thus cut at the roots of poverty, violence, exploitation and discrimination in any form which are some of the major impediments in the path of development and accelerate the progress of our nation. The ‘economic justice’ enshrined in ‘the Preamble’ of the Constitution of India can be attained fully only when the ‘Right of Work’ in Article 41 of Part IV of the Constitution, the Directive Principles of State Policy is shifted to Part III, the Fundamental Rights.
The level of employment in the country is quite dismal with high unemployment rate, which is among major issues posing a hurdle in India’s way of becoming a developed nation. Illiteracy in the country is a major reason for this, particularly in rural areas considering the fact that around 70% of the total population resides in rural areas and that too mainly dependent on agriculture. Right to work cannot be granted as a constitutional fundamental right because of following reasons : ? Right to work is a novel concept that is abstract in nature and is not realistic. The concept is similar to ‘Finding jobs for people’ rather than ‘finding people for the job’. Though the latter is possible, no one can guarantee about the former. When there is no guarantee and certainty the concept of ‘Right’ in ‘Right to Work’ ceases to exist. It would be highly unrealistic to believe that any government effort or provision in the constitution could guarantee jobs for everybody and if done so would be a big constitutional blunder. Right to work cannot be given to people as a fundamental right owing to a simple reason that the expectation from the job in terms of quality and type of work assigned would be different from one person to another. Just imagine a situation where there is a job available for planting trees on the roadside and people deny doing that job saying that they possess degree of a graduate and should be given some office work. Should government provide offices for them to work ? More importantly, the expectation of monetary benefit from a certain job would also vary from case to case. How will the government justify the compensation given for some work. ? It is important for us to understand and appreciate the fact that the government does not possess the resources both in financial and material terms to create jobs
for the people. It is very hard to believe that when there are so many unemployed graduates and post graduates in the country how the government would provide work to unskilled and illiterate people residing in villages. Will there be different rule for urban people and different for rural ? If so that cannot be termed as a fundamental right. ? If Right to work is made a constitutional fundamental right, there is a high probability that people would become complacent, lazy and would take everything for granted. They would stop making efforts and working hard in their life because they would certainly enjoy things getting served to them in their plates. In addition, the level of competition among the people would decline which would result in low quality of performance and commitment towards the work. If Right to work is given to people the number of people going for graduation and higher studies would decline for the simple reason that people would stop striving hard to get a job as they know that they would be given work and if not they can claim for the compensation. Can we let such people get work so easily ? This would certainly not help in taking our country forward. Right to work would not only be impossible to implement but would create chaos all over the country. You cannot define specific nature of work that should be given to different people as well as the compensation for that work. It would result in an increase in the number of cases in our judicial establishment with people complaining about the nature of work assigned to them, compensation, duration of the work and many other issues.
?
?
Against
—Mohd. Zia Ullah
The Constitution of India gives some basic rights to all its citizens without any bias and differentiation. These fundamental rights empower the citizens to live as per their free will, without any restriction and fear. In a country like India fundamental rights become even more critical considering the diverse Mohd. Zia Ullah demographic set up in every part of India.
?
Continued on Page 1137
PD/December/2010/1136
RESULTS
Essay Competition
Topic : Ethics and Expediency. Against the Topic
Mohd. Zia Ullah 415/357, Shahganj Allahabad U.P.–211 003
Hints
Winners
First Prize Winner
Mona Sankhla New Delhi–110 015
Ajanta Roy Birbhum, Kolkata West Bengal–731 101
Second Prize Winner
Mahesh Kumar M/s Chiman Lal Jugal Kishore, Mahaveer Marg, Narnaul Haryana–123 001
Continued from Page 1136
Quiz Contest
Concentric Quiz (General Studies Special) First Prize Winner
Alexeyev Thingbaijam C/o Babudhan Singh, Top Awang Leikai Near Ema Nongmairembi, Zampak Manipur–795 005
In fact Right to work would be a concept similar to a concept like ‘Right to Salary’ with no consideration given to the qualification, skillsets and so many other important traits required for any job.
Third Prize Winner
Dharmendra Kumar Ray Village–Adarsh Nagar, Pandey Colony Post–Bada Bahera, Kon-Nagar Distt.–Hooghly, Kolkata West Bengal–712 246
Conclusion
Right to work is a concept which is not realistic in nature and it cannot be included in the list of fundamental rights because if someone does not get work it is not because of religion, caste, and other similar issues but because of skills and qualification. It is the duty of every citizen in the country to work hard and use opportunities to create resources rather than just consuming them. Right to work, if granted to the people as fundamental right would lower the efficiency and quality of the work. Instead, if anything at all needs to be done then avenues of income and job opportunities should be created. In addition, the developmental programmes such as MNREGA, Bharat Nirman and other such employment generation programmes should be implemented with utmost sincerity to ensure that people get the chance to work if they are willing to do so. No doubt Right to Work is a great novel concept but even great concepts have to be realistic in nature and have to deliver results. P.Darpan
Debate Competition
Topic : Right to Work should be Made a Constitutionally Fundamental Right
Second Prize Winner
Amit Mahlawat S/o Shri Azad Singh 703/9, Vishal Nagar Near New Bus Stand, Rohtak Haryana–124 001
Winners
For the Topic
Dr. S. Purvaja Jalahalli, Bangalore Karnataka–560 013
Third Prize Winner
Mona Patna Bihar–800 020
Answers
Aditya Kumar Jha A-429, Nehru Vihar New Delhi–54
PD/December/2010/1137
CRICKET
India Retains the BorderGavaskar Trophy with Clean Sweep Against Australia
India registered a seven-wicket victory over Australia in the Second
rating points. Virender Sehwag is the next best Indian cricketer batsman at number three in the ranking with 819 points behind Sri Lanka's Kumar Sangakkara with 874 at number two position. Last time Sachin Tendulkar achieved first position in batsman test ranking in August 2002 when he made 193 in his 99th test to help India beat England by an innings and 46 runs at Headingley. It is for the ninth time that Tendulkar got the number one ranking. He claimed number one position for the first time in November 1994 in his 33rd test after scoring 34 and 85 against West Indies in Mumbai which India won by 96 runs.
Zealand in the fifth and final one-day international on October 17, 2010 in Dhaka. Rubel Hossain of Bangladesh took four wickets for 25 off 9.3 sharp overs. New Zealand which was chasing a 175 runs target was bowled out for 171 in the last over. Bangladesh won the series 4-0 which was its first sweep against a major team. The second match was abandoned without a ball being bowled due to rain.
TENNIS
Melzer and Paes Clinch Doubles Title of Shanghai Masters
Austria's Jurgen Melzer and Leander Paes won the doubles title after beating Polish Mariuz Fyrstenberg and Marcin Matkowski 7-5, 4-6, 10-5 in the final of the Shanghai Masters on October 17, 2010 in
India Wins ODI Against Australia
India retained the Border-Gavaskar Trophy with seven-wicket win over Australia in the second Test in Bangalore on October 13, 2010.
Series
Test in Bangalore on October 13, 2010. It was India's first clean sweep against Australia in a series of two or more matches. With this victory India strengthened its position at No. 1 in International Test Cricket. In first innings Australia contributed 478 while India gave 495. In 2nd innings Australia made 223 runs in 75-2 overs while India made 207 in 45 overs for three wickets. Sachin Tendulkar of India who reached his 58th Test half century was declared both Man of the Match and Man of the Series. In this Test series, Sachin Tendulkar also made his 49th century.
India won the ODI series against Australia after the third and final ODI between India and Australia was called off on October 24, 2010 in Margao (Goa). India won the series 1-0 and Australia returned home after
Sachin Tendulkar on Top in Test Ranking
After his splendid performance in recently concluded Test Series against Australia in October 2010, Sachin Tendulkar reclaimed his number one position in Test-ranking in batting after eight years. In this test series Tendulkar was the highest runmaker with 403 runs in the two match series. As per the latest ICC ranking Indian batting legend now has 891
Mahendra Singh Dhoni poses with the trophy after winning the rain-marred series 1-0.
Jurgen Melzer (left) of Austria and teammate Leander Paes with their trophies after winning the doubles final at the Shanghai Masters
drawing blank both in the Tests and the lone ODI. Virat Kohli was adjudged as the Man of the Series for his match winning 118 in the second ODI.
Shanghai. It was Melzer's third tour level doubles title of the season while it was Paes second title of the season.
Bangladesh Sweeps One Day Series Against New Zealand
Bangladesh completed a sweep with a three-run victory over New
Federer Bags Stockholm Open : Equals Sampras’ Record of 64 Titles
Switzerland’s Roger Federer defeated Germany’s Florian Mayer 6-4, 6-3 to win the Stockholm Open
PD/December/2010/1138
Tennis Tournament on October 24, 2010. With this victory Federer has
after drawing with Alexei Shirov of Spain. Kramnik scored two wins and four draws in all and ended up with 10 points. Magnus Carlsen who drew with Anand finished third while Alexei Shirov had to be content with the fourth place finish.
Mc Dowell of Europe who clinched victory in the final after defeating USA's Hunter Mahan three and one.
Harrington Bags Johor Open
Iskandar
Magnus Carlsen Bags Pearl Spring Chess Tournament
Roger Federer receives the trophy from Sweden’s crown princess Victoria after defeating Florian Mayer in the Stockholm Open final October 24, 2010.
Ireland's Padraig Harrington registered a three-stroke victory in the Iskandar Johor Open on October 17, 2010 in Johor Bahru (Malaysia).
equalled Pete Sampras’ record of 64 ATP titles. Roger Federer is World’s number two male tennis player.
Magnus Carlsen of Norway won the Pearl Spring Chess tournament in Nanjing on October 30, 2010. He won the title after drawing with Vugar Gashimov of Azerbaijan. India’s Vishwanathan Anand finished second in the tournament.
Andy Murray Clinches the Shanghai Masters
Scotland’s Andy Murray beat Switzerland’s Roger Federer 6-3, 6-2 to bag the Shanghai Masters on October 15, 2010 in Shanghai. It was
Indians Grab Six Medals at World Championship
India’s chess players won three silver and three bronze medals in the World Youth Chess Championship that concluded in Porto Carras (Greece) on October 30, 2010. Rudraksh Paridev and Shiven Khosla were among the silver medal winners while M. Mahalakshmi and A. Puranik were among the bronze medallists of India.
Padraig Harrington with Trophy
The victory ended a two years title drought. He hit a 69 to take himself to a total of 20 under par in the $ 1.25 million Asian Tour event. Asian Tour Order of Merit leader Noh SeungYal finished second after a 65 with bordies on his final three holes.
FOOTBALL
East Bengal Lifts Federation Cup
Andy Murray with Trophy.
GRAND PRIX
Vettel Clinches Grand Prix Japanese
his second finals victory over the Swiss World No. 3 in two months. It was his second title of the season.
CHESS
East Bengal retained prestigious Federation Cup after beating Mohun Bagan down by a solitary goal in Cuttack on October 2, 2010. With this victory East Bengal ensured for itself a berth in the AFC Cup. This win also created another landmark for East Bengal that it was its 10th successive match of the season. Mohun Bagan had won the title beating Salgaocar last time in 1987.
Germany’s Sebastian Vettel won the Japanese Grand Prix for the second consecutive year leading a Red Bull 1-2 in Suzuka (Japan) on October 10, 2010. Mark Webber finished second 0·9 secs. It was Red Bull’s third 1-2 finish of the season. Ferrari’s Fernando Alonso was third 1·8 seconds behind.
Vladimir Kramnik Winner of the Final Masters : Anand Finishes Second
Russia's Vladimir Kramnik won the Bilbao Final Masters Chess Tournament on October 16, 2010 in Bilbao (Spain). World Champion Viswanathan Anand finished second in the tournament. It is noteworthy that Kramnik won the tournament
Alonso Clinches Grand Prix
Korean
` GOLF
Europe Clinches Ryder Cup
Europe won the Ryder Cup of golf on October 4, 2010 in Newport (Wales) after beating the United States of America 14 - 1/2 points to 13 - 1/2 points at Celtic Maner. It was
Ferrari’s Fernando Alonso won the Korean Grand Prix on October 24, 2010 in Yeongam (South Korea). It was inaugural race which turned out to be the longest in Formula One History. Mc Laren’s 2008 Champion Lewis Hamilton finished second 14·9 seconds behind. Brazil’s Felipe Massa took the final podium place for Ferrari.
PD/December/2010/1139
The 2010 Commonwealth Games Conclude : India Emerges Second in Medal Tally
The 2010 Commonwealth Games which began on October 3, 2010 came to a close on October 14, 2010 in New Delhi. Around 7000 athletes from 71 Commonwealth nations and dependencies competed in 21 sports and 272 events. The opening and closing ceremonies were held at the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium—the main stadium of the event. The final medal tally was led by Australia by grabbing 177 medals. The host nation India gave its strongest and most splendid ever performance to emerge second in medal tally followed by England which was placed third in the tally. India eventually Shera : Mascot of CWG 2010 more than doubled its medals tally of the previous Games in Melbourne. India had finished fourth in 2002 and 2006. It may be mentioned here that it was Badminton star Saina Nehwal who snatched a three-game victory over Malaysia's Mew Choo Wong to take India a gold medal ahead of England. Prince Edward declared the
Games closed on behalf of the Queen Elizabeth. The next Commonwealth Games will be held in Glasgow Scotland in 2014. The prominent dignities who attended the closing ceremony included Vice-President Hamid Ansari Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh and Sri Lanka President Mahinda Rajapaksa among others.
10 Gold medals in the Commonwealth Games history, tying the all-time record of Susie O’Neill (Australia) and Ian Thorpe (Australia). ? Emily Jane Seebohm (Australia) equalled the record of winning eight medals in total in one games. Swimmers Ralph Hutton (Australia) in 1966 and Susie O' Neill (Australia) in 1998 were the only other athletes to achieve this feat.
Australia was the most Successful Commonwealth Games Association (CGA) in Delhi
?
It was Top-seeded Saina Nehwal's gold medal victory in the women's singles badminton event of the Commonwealth Games that took India ahead of England's medals tally and over to the No. 2 position.
Australia was the most successful CGA at Delhi 2010. It won 74 Gold, 55 Silver and 48 Bronze medals. It was the 12th time they led the medal table. Australia has been the most successful CGA in every games since 1990. England was the third-best CGA at this games, behind India. Only once before, at the Victoria 1994 games, have two CGAs performed better than England.
?
Highlights of the XIX Commonwealth Games in Brief Australian Coutts and Indian Narang ‘Queen and King of the Games
? With five Gold medals in Swimming, Alicia Coutts (Australia) was the most successful athlete at the games. Gagan Narang (India) was the most successful male athlete. He won four Gold medals in Shooting.
?
Host Nation India Performs Better than Ever
? India won more Gold medals than it had won before in one games. It took 38 Gold medals, its previous record was 30 in 2002. With its 101 medals in total, India finished runner-up in the medal tally and became the fourth CGA to reach the century mark in one games. Every host nation of the Commonwealth Games has beaten its previous record number of medals, and India has joined that list in 2010.
?
?
Australians Jones and Seebohm equal all-time Medal Records
? Leisel Marie Jones (Australia) became the third person to win ?
Four CGAs Win their First Commonwealth Games Gold Medals
? Natasha Mayers (SVG) clinched the first Gold for St. Vincent and the Grenadines, in the Women's 100m in Athletics, on October 7, 2010. Amantle Montsho (BOT) won Botswana's first Gold in the Women's 400m in Athletics on October 8, 2010.
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Scene of closing ceremony on October 14, 2010
PD/December/2010/1140
?
Faavae Faauliuli (SAM) collected Samoa's first Gold medal in Commonwealth Games history, in the Men's 94kg Weightlifting on October 9, 2010. One day later, two other Samoans won Gold in this sport. On October 11, 2010 Cydonie Camile Mothersill (CAY) won the first Gold medal for Cayman Islands, when she ran to victory in the Women's 200m event in Athletics.
XIX Commonwealth Games 2010 : India's Final Medal Tally Categorywise
S. No. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. Sport Shooting Wrestling Archery Weightlifting Tennis Athletics Gymnastics Table Tennis Badminton Boxing Para-swimming Hockey - m Badminton Gold 14 10 3 2 1 2 — 1 1 3 — — 1 38 Silver 11 5 1 2 1 3 1 1 1 — — 1 — 27 Bronze 5 4 4 4 2 7 1 3 — 4 1 — — 36 Total 30 19 8 8 4 12 2 5 2 7 1 1 1 101
?
Australia Reaches Medal Milestones in Delhi
? On October 8, 2010, Kasey Brown (Australia) clinched Australia's 2000th medal in all Commonwealth Games. She took the Bronze medal for Australia in the Women's Singles in Squash. The Women's Hockey team won Australia's 800th Gold medal in Commonwealth Games history on October 13, 2010.
India’s Gold Medallists at XIX Commonwealth Games Delhi 2010
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. Gagan Narang & Abhinav Bindra (pairs) Anisa Sayyed & Rahi Sarnobat Ravinder Singh Sanjay Anil Kumar Gagan Narang Anisa Sayyed Omkar Singh Renu bala Chanu Rajinder Kumar Ravi Kumar Vijay Kumar & Gurpreet S. Gurpreet Singh & Omkar Singh Geeta Phogat Recurve Team Women Gagan + Imran H Khan Vijay Kumar Alka Tomar Anita Omkar Singh Vijay Kumar + Harpreet Singh Gagan Narang Yogeshwar Dutt Narsingh Pancham Deepika Kumari Harpreet Singh Rahul Banerjee Sushil Kumar Somdev Burman Krishna Poonia Anuraj Singh + Heena Sidhu Women Relay Team Ashwini A.C./ Chitra K. Soman/Sini Jose/Jauna Murmu Achanta + Saha Suronjay S Manoj Kumar Paramjeet Samota Jawala G. + Ashwini P. Saina Nehwal Shooting - 10m Air Rifle Shooting - 25m Pistol (pairs) Wrestling - 60 kg. Wrestling - 74 kg. Wrestling - 96 kg. Shooting - 10m Air Rifle Shooting - 25m Pistol Shooting - 50m Pistol Weightlifting - 58 kg Wrestling - 55 kg Weightlifting - 175 kg Shooting 25m Rapid Fire Pistol Shooting 10m Air Pistol Wrestling 55 kg Archery Shooting 50 m Rifle Shooting 25 m Rapid Fire Pistol Wrestling 59 kg Wrestling 67 kg FS Shooting 10m Airpistol Shooting 25m Centre Fire Pistol Pairs Shooting 50m Rifle Wrestling 60 kg Wrestling 74 kg Archery (Women—Recurve individual) Shooting 25m Centrefire Pistol Archery Wrestling (66 kg) Tennis (Singles) Athletics — Discus (W) Shooting (Pairs 10m Air Pistol) Athletics — 4 × 400 Table Tennis (Doubles) Boxing (52 kg) Boxing (64 kg) Boxing (Super Heavy Weight) Badminton — doubles Badminton
?
Australia's Croak Wins Gold in Two Different Sports at the Com-monwealth Games
? Alexandra Croak (Australia) became the first athlete to win Gold in two different sports at the games, considering Cycling Road and Cycling Track as the same sport. Croak won a Gold medal in Diving in Delhi 2010, and had previously won gold in Artistic Gymnastics in Manchester 2002.
?
More Podium Sweeps than Ever in Athletics
? In six Athletics events, one CGA swept the podium, more medal sweeps than ever at the Commonwealth Games in this sport. Kenya clinched the Gold, Silver and Bronze medals in four events : the Women's and Men's 3000 m Steeplechase, the Men's 800m and the Women's 5000m. England swept the podium in the Men's 110m Hurdles and India won all medals in the Women's Discus Throw.
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?
PD/December/2010/1141
Winning Streaks in Rugby Sevens, Men's Hockey and Synchronised Swimming Extended
? New Zealand won the Rugby Sevens Gold in Delhi, as it had also done in the three previous Rugby Sevens tournaments at the Commonwealth Games. New Zealand has never lost a match in Rugby Sevens in games history. Australia won the title in Men's Hockey, having won Gold in the event at all three previous games in which it was held. Canada kept its 100 per cent record in Synchronised Swimming alive. It has won all 14 events since the sport was included in the games in 1986.
sportspersons who won medals at the 19th Commonwealth Games. He announced that the Petroleum Sports Promotion Board would give away Rs. 9 crore to athletes and players who helped India to bag a record haul of medals at the Games. Mr. Deora, also the chief patron of the Board, said the Board would give Rs. 10 lakh each to gold medallists, Rs. 7.5 lakh to silver medallists and Rs. 5 lakh to bronze medallists. Some awarded include sports personalities. Ronjan Sodhi (shooting); Saina Nehwal, Chetan Anand, Jwala Gutta and V. Diju (badminton); and Sharad Kamal, Soumyadeep Roy, Poulami Ghatak, Subojit Saha and A. Amal Raj (table tennis). Harvant Kaur (discuss), Om Prakash (shot put), Sinimone Paulose (800 metres); Chitra, Mandeep, Jauna Murmur and Tiana (4 × 400); Jagsir Singh (javelin) and Rohan Bopanna (tennis). It is noteworthy that nearly 50 sportspersons affiliated to the Board represented India at the Games.
lian swimmer Alicia Jayne Coutts and Indian shooter Gagan Narang. The 34-year-old Smith is a former world champion, and has won the gold at the 2005 World Championships at Helsinki. She also won the gold at the last Commonwealth Games at Melbourne in 2006, besides a silver at the 2002 Games in Manchester. It may be added here that India's pistol shooter Samaresh Jung, winner of five gold medals at Melbourne, won the David Dixon award last time. The award, named after the former secretary general of the Commonwealth Games Federation, was instituted in 2002, with South African paralympic swimmer Natalie du Toit being the first winner.
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The 2010 Commonwealth Games : Top 20 Medal Winners
Country Gold Australia India England Canada South Africa Kenya Malaysia Singapore Nigeria Scotland New Zealand Cyprus Northern Ireland Samoa Wales Jamaica Pakistan Uganda Bahamas Nauru 74 38 37 26 12 12 12 11 11 9 6 4 3 3 2 2 2 2 1 1 Silver Bronze Total 55 27 59 17 11 11 10 11 10 10 22 3 3 0 7 4 1 0 1 1 48 36 46 32 10 9 13 9 14 7 8 5 4 1 10 1 2 0 3 0 177 101 142 75 33 32 35 31 35 26 36 12 10 4 19 7 5 2 5 2
N. Ramachandran Re-elected WSF President
The President of the World Squash Federation, N. Ramachandran has been re-elected its President for a fresh two years term as per the outcome of the elections at the WSF Annual General Meeting held in Chennai on October 22, 2010. On the elections, besides him, three Vice-Presidents were also elected—Chris Stahl (England), Heather Deayton (Hong Kong) and Mohd Al Menshawy (Egypt). P.Darpan
Klitschko Retains WBC Title
Ukrains Vitali Klitschko retained World Boxing Championship heavyweight title in October 2010. He beat America's Challenger Shannon Briggs on points (120 107), 120 - 107, 120 - V. Klitschko 105).
Jamaica's Trecia Smith Emerges the Best Athlete of the 19th Commonwealth Games
Jamaica's triple jump champion Trecia Smith was conferred the David Dixon award for being the best athlete of the 19th Commonwealth Games on October 14, 2010. Smith leapt to 14.19 metres to win the triple jump gold in commanding fashion. She was a surprise choice, edging out several other competitors including Austra-
SPORTS AND GAMES BRIEFING
Awards for Commonwealth Games Medallists Announced
Union Petroleum and Natural Gas Minister Murli Deora has recently announced cash awards for Indian
Trecia Smith
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