GRE prep matter !!

kartik

Kartik Raichura
Staff member
Analogies
1. FOOTSTOOL : FOOT ::
A) desk : floor
B) table : hand
C) bench : chair
D) pillow : head
E) pencil : pockete
Explanation: (D) One uses the footstool to keep one's feet on. One uses the pillow to keep one's head on.


2. CANOE : RAPIDS ::
A) plane : turbulence
B) truck : garage
C) oar : rowboat
D) factory : automation
E) pond : stream
Explanation: (A) (Rapids means swift currents in river). Rapids can cause accident to a canoe. Turbulence can cause accident to a plane.


3. IRON : BLACKSMITH ::
A) gold : miser
B) clay : potter
C) food : gourmet
D) steel : industrialist
E) silver : miner
Explanation: (B) Iron is the raw material for a blacksmith. Clay is the raw material for potter.

4. ACRE : LAND ::
A) distance : space
B) speed: movement
C) gallon : liquid
D) degree : thermometer
E) year : birthday
Explanation: (C) Acre is a unit of measurement of the area of land. Gallon is a unit of measurement of the volume of liquid.

5. CONVENE : ASSEMBLY ::
A) borrow : library
B) reprove : defiance
C) contrast : shadow
D) implicate : court
E) compile : collection
Explanation: (E) An assembly (of people) is convened. A collection (of books) is compiled.

Sentence Completion
1. The summers _______ drought has brought about a _______ shedding of leaves.
A) torrid…. nonexistence
B) inconsequential…. disastrous
C) rainy…. colorful
D) severe …. premature
E) unusual…. Traditional
Explanation: (D) If the summer had been characterized by a drought, the shedding of leaves could not have been 'nonexistent' or 'colorful'. So, (A) and (C) can be eliminated straightway. (C) is inappropriate because, if the summer's drought had been unusual, the consequent shedding of leaves could not have been traditional. (B) can be rules out because, if the summer's drought bad been inconsequential (meaning insignificant), the consequent shedding of leaves could not have been disastrous. (D) is the suitable choice because, if the summer's drought had been severe, the shedding of leaves (which should normally take place in autumn) could have been premature.

2. At the age of forty-five, with a worldwide reputation and an as yet unbroken string of notable successes to her credit, Carson was at the _______ of her career.
A) paradigm
B) zenith
C) fiasco
D) periphery
E) inception
Explanation: (B) a person with worldwide reputation and yet unbroken string of successes can be said to be at the peak of her career. 'Zenith' is the only word among the choices which has this meaning, and so, (B) is the answer.

3. The fact that they cherished religious objects more than most of their other possessions _______ the _______ role of religion in their lives.
A) demonstrates…. crucial
B) obliterates…. vital
C) limits…. Daily
D) concerns…. informal
E) denotes…. Varying
Explanation: (A) If religious objects wee the most important possessions cherished by a group of people, it means that religion plays a very important role in their lives. So, among the choices for the second missing word, only 'crucial' and 'vital' are appropriate. If religion plays a vital role in their lives, their cherishing religious objects cannot obliterate (meaning erase) such role. So (B), is wrong. The pair in (A), namely, 'demonstrates.. crucial' completes a meaningful sentence, and is the answer.

4. The alarm voiced by the committee investigating the incident has a _______ effect, for its dire predictions motivated people to take precautions that _______ an ecological disaster.
A) trivial…. prompted
B) salutary…. averted
C) conciliatory…. supported
D) beneficial…. exacerbated
E) perverse…. vanquished
Explanation: (B) A disaster would not have been 'prompted' (meaning created)or 'supported' or 'exacerbated;' (meaning worsened) by the precautions taken against it happening. 'Vanquishing a disaster' is also not a sensible phrase. Since precautions can avert a disaster, it is (B) that provides the only suitable choice for the second missing word. Its pair word 'salutary' (meaning desirable) completes a meaningful sentence.
 

kartik

Kartik Raichura
Staff member
GRE PREP 2 !!

AWA (ARGUMENT)

The following appeared in a memo from the marketing director of "Bargain Brand" Cereals.

One year ago we introduced our first product, "Bargain Brand" breakfast cereal. Our very low prices quickly drew many customers away from the top-selling cereal companies. Although the companies producing the top brands have since tried to compete with us by lowering their prices, and although several plan to introduce their own budget brands, not once have we needed to raise our prices to continue making a profit. Given our success selling cereal, Bargain Brand should now expand its business and begin marketing other low-priced food products as quickly as possible.

Obviously, the marketing director is enthusiastic about Bargain Brand Cereals' success in selling low-priced breakfast cereal. The marketing director states that over one year, the very low prices of the cereal took many customers away from the top-selling cereal companies and that despite the top brand cereal companies reducing their prices and planning to introduce budget brands, Bargain Brand has never had to raise its prices to continue making a profit. The marketing director then comes to the conclusion that the company should expand the business and start selling other low-priced foods as soon as possible. At first glance, the marketing director would appear to have a good idea, but upon closer inspection one can see that more research should be done before such products are launched in the marketplace.

In the first place, Bargain Brand Cereals' low-priced breakfast cereals have only been on the market for one year - a very short time in terms of analyzing the overall success or failure of a product. With such a short history, it is impossible to evaluate the long-term viability of the product in the marketplace, particularly with respect to the actions and reactions of competitors. The marketing director even mentions in his or her memo that the top brands have already tried to compete by lowering prices. It is likely still too early to tell what effect that will have on the future sales of Bargain Brands cereal. Additionally, the marketing director states that several of the companies producing the top-selling brands plan to introduce their own budget brands, indicating that they have not yet done so. He or she also states that Bargain Brands has never had to raise its prices to continue making a profit. Although that may be true because the competition has not yet fully reacted, the other companies are organizing a direct attack on the Bargain Brands cereal - companies which likely have tremendous funds available for launching these new bargain products, possibly even selling them at or below cost to try to drive Bargain Brands cereal out of the market. Faced with these current and upcoming battles, the marketing director's conclusion that they should launch other low-priced food products as quickly as possible might be foolish rather than wise. The company may need to save its funds to try to survive in their current market rather than extending itself out into more fields of competition.

Secondly, the marketing director assumes that low prices are what attracted consumers to Bargain Brands cereal. It is possible that it was not price that attracted customers - rather the package, promotion or the fact that the other cereals were not as good as Bargain Brands cereal. The company may have some special advantage with its cereal that others do not have - and that it cannot duplicate in any other types of foods. Success in selling low-priced cereal does not indicate the chances for success with other low-priced foods. Indeed, there may be some industry-specific factors in cereal marketing that have allowed Bargain Brands to succeed in the short-term. Bargain Brands may have some special expertise with cereal that they cannot duplicate with other types of food products. The marketing director presents no direct evidence or market research to indicate that Bargain Brands can successfully expand its business into other food areas. Without such information, the marketing director's argument is unconvincing.

In summary, without detailed market research showing the true reason why Bargain Brands cereal has been successful, without knowing the likelihood of its continued success, and without showing how it can translate that success to other areas, the marketing director's argument is based on speculation and faulty logic. To strengthen his or her argument, market research should be conducted to determine how the marketplace is reacting to the competition's strategies in the cereal market, and whether there is a demand in any other particular areas for low-priced food products. Additionally, the marketing director must show that Bargain Brands has some type of competitive advantage that it can successfully apply to its strategies in the low-priced food product market.
 

kartik

Kartik Raichura
Staff member
Gre prep 3

Reading Comprehension
In strongly territorial birds such as the indigo bunting, song is the main mechanism for securing, defining, and defending an adequate breeding are. When population density is high, only the strongest males can retain a suitable area. The weakest males do not breed or are forced to nest on poor or marginal territories.
During the breeding season, the male indigo bunting sings in his territory; each song lasts two or three seconds with a very short pause between songs, Melodic and rhythmic characteristics are produced by rapid changes in sound frequency and some regularity of silent periods between sounds. These modulated sounds form recognizable units, called figures, each of which is reproduced again and again with remarkable consistency. Despite the large frequency range of these sounds and the rapid frequency changes that the birds makes, the n umber of figures is very limited. Further, although we found some unique figures in different geographical populations, more than 90 percent of all Indigo bunting figures are extremely stable on the geographic basis . In our studies of isolated buntings we found that male indigo buntings are capable of singing many more types of figures than they usually do. Thus, it would seem that they copy their figures from other buntings they hear signing.
Realizing that the ability to distinguish the songs of one species from those of another could be an important factor in the volition of the figures, we tested species recognition of a song. When we played a tape recording of a lazuli bunting or a painted bunting, male indigo bunting did not respond; Even when a dummy of male indigo bunting was placed near the tape recorder. Playing an indigo bunting song, however, usually brought an immediate response, making it clear that a male indigo bunting can readily distinguished songs of its own species from those of other species.
The role of the songs figures in interspecies recognition was then examined. We created experimental songs composed of new figures by playing a normal song backwards, which changed the detailed forms of the figures without altering frequency ranges or gross temporal features. Since the male indigos gave almost a full response to the backward song, we concluded that a wide range of figures shapes can evoke positive responses. It seems likely, therefore, that a specific configuration is not essential for interspecies recognition, but it is clear that song figures must confirm to a particular frequency range, must be within narrow limits of duration, and must be spaced at particular intervals.
There is evident that new figures may arise within a population through a slow process of change and selection. This variety is probably a valuable adaptation for survival: if every bird sang only a few types of figures, in dense woods or underbrush a female might have difficulty recognizing her mate’s song and a male might not be able to distinguished a neighbor from a stranger. Our studies led us to conclude that there must be a balance between song stability and conservatism, which lead to clear-cut species recognition, and song variation, which leads to individual recognition.

1. The primary purpose of passage is to

A) raise new issues
B) explain an enigma
C) refute misconceptions
D) reconcile differing theories
E) analyze a phenomenon

Explanation: The best answer is E. When asked to identify the primary purpose of a passage, you should select the answer choice that states what the passage as a choice achieves. The passage is primarily a discussion of a natural phenomenon, the song of the male indigo bunting. This discussion focuses on the components, form, and function of the song. Such a discussion can correctly be called an analysis, and E presents such a choice. Thee is no evidence in the passage that suggests that the issues presented are new (choice A(, or that any of the matters discussed are enigmas or misconceptions (choices B and C). The discussion is not primarily a presentation of theory but of empirical evidence and observed phenomena; thus, choice D is not correct.

2. According to the passage, which of the following is true about the number and general nature of figures sung by the indigo bunting?

A) They are established at birth
B) They evolve slowly as the bird learns
C) They are learned from other indigo buntings.
D) They develop after the bird has been forced onto marginal breeding areas.
E) The gradually develop through contact with prospective mates

Explanation: The best answer is C. To answer this question, you should examine each of the choices to determine which makes an accurate statement, based on evidence in the passage, about the number and general nature of the figures sung by the indigo bunting. In the second paragraph, the author concludes that male indigo buntings, a fact that explains why the number and general nature of figures remain limited. Thus, choice C is true and is the intended answer. The other choices are plausible statements, but they are not asserted in the passage.

3. It can be inferred that the investigation that determined the similarly among more than 90 percent of all the figures produced by birds living in different regions was undertaken to answer which of the following questions?
I. How much variations, if any, is there in the figure types produced by indigo buntings in different locales?
II. Do local populations of indigo buntings develop their own dialects of figure types?
III. Do figure similarities among indigo buntings decline with increasing geographic separation?

A) II only
B) III only
C) I and II only
D) II and III only
E) I, II and III

Explanation: The best answer is E. The format of this question requires you to evaluate each of the questions designated with roman numerals separately and carefully. In this question, you must infer from the passage what information the investigation discussed in the second paragraph was designed to obtain. According to the passage, the investigation yielded information that permitted researchers to draw conclusions about variation in figure types, about unique figures among birds, and about the effects of increasing geographic separation. The second paragraph describes some of the strategies used by the investigators to obtain precisely this information. I, II, and III are all questions that the investigators set out to explore, and E is the correct answer.

4. It can be inferred from the passage that the existence of only a limited number of indigo bunting figures servers primarily to

A) ensure species survival by increasing competition among the fittest males for the females
B) increase population density by eliminating ambiguity in the figures to which the females must respond
C) maintain the integrity of the species by restricting the degree of figure variation and change
D) enhance species recognition by decreasing the number of figure patterns to which the bird must respond
E) avoid confusion between species by clearly demarcating the figure patterns of each specials

Explanation: The best answer is D. This question requires you to determine why the number of indigo bunting figures is as limited as it is. In order to make this determination, it is necessary to consider several facts presented in the passage and their relationship to each other. The third paragraph indicates that the songs serve as a means of recognition for members of the same species. The fourth paragraph discusses the strict limitations on the ways in which figures are produced. The last paragraph indicates that ‘song stability and conservatism,” that is, limits to the n umbers of figures and variations, are essential for clear-out species recognition. Choice D is a statement of that idea.

 

kartik

Kartik Raichura
Staff member
gre prep 4

Quantitative - Problem Solving
Problem - 1:
How many five digit numbers can be formed using the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 which are divisible by 3, without repeating the digits?
(A) 15
(B) 96
(C) 216
(D) 120
(E) 180

Solution:
Correct Answer - (C)

There are six digits - 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. To form 5-digit numbers we need exactly 5 digits. So we should not be using one of the digits.

The sum of the numerals 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 is 15. We know that a 5-digit number is divisible by 3 if an only if the sum of its digits are divisible by '3'. Therefore, we should not use either '0' or '3' while forming the five digit numbers - only then will it be divisible by '3'.

If we do not use '0', then the remaining 5 digits can be arranged in 5! ways = 120 numbers.

If we do not use '3', then the remaining arrangements that are possible without '0' being the first digit are 5! - 4! = 120 - 24 = 96 numbers.

Therefore, there are a total of 120 + 96 such numbers that exist.

12% of Test takers answered this question correctly


Problem - 2:
What is the area of the largest triangle that can be fitted into a rectangle of length 'l' units and width 'w' units?
(A) lw/3
(B) (2lw)/3
(C) (3lw)/4
(D) (lw)/2
(E) (lw)/6
Solution:
Correct Answer - (D)

The triangle which has its base as the length of the rectangle and its height as the width of the rectangle or the triangle which has its base as the width of the rectangle and its height as the length of the rectangle will be the largest triangle that can be fitted in the rectangle.

If the base of the triangle is 'l' and its height 'w', then its area is (lw/2) units.
Similarly, if the base of the triangle is 'w' units and its height is 'l' units, then its area is (lw/2) units.

45% of Test takers answered this question correctly


Problem - 3:
Four dice are rolled simultaneously. What is the number of possible outcomes in which at least one of the die shows 6?
(A) 6! / 4!
(B) 625
(C) 671
(D) 1296
(E) 256
Solution:

Correct Answer - (C)

When 4 dice are rolled simultaneously, there are 64 = 1296 outcomes. The converse of what is asked in the question is that none of the dice show '6'. That is all four dice show any of the other 5 numbers. That is possible in 54 = 625 outcomes.

Therefore, in 1296 - 625 = 671 outcomes at least one of the dice will show 6.

24% of Test takers answered this question correctly
 

kartik

Kartik Raichura
Staff member
gre prep 5

Analogies 1. COMPATRIOTS : COUNTRY ::
A) transients : home
B) kinsfolk : family
C) competitors : team
D) performers : audience
E) figureheads : government
Explanation: (B) Persons belonging to the same country are compatriots. Persons belonging to the same family are kinsfolk.


2. ENTREATY : REQUEST ::
A) conviction : opinion
B) theory : truth
C) success : persistence
D) debate : compromise
E) hope : future
Explanation: (A) Entreaty is an earnest request. Conviction is an earnest belief.


3. COVEN : WITCHES ::
A) tavern : bartenders
B) altar : clergy
C) amulet : vampires
D) castle : royalty
E) choir : singers
Explanation: (E) Coven is an assembly of witches. Choir is a band of singers.

4. STALWART : STRENGTH ::
A) penniless : wealth
B) portly : girth
C) persuasive : depth
D) pernicious : health
E) precious : mirth
Explanation: (B) A person who has great strength is a stalwart. a person who has large girth is portly.

5. OPALESCENT : IRIDESCENCE
A) magnetic : repulsion
B) garish : drabness
C) flushed : ruddiness
D) effervescent : stagnation
E) fluorescent : darkness
Explanation: (C) An opalescent (meaning glittering) object exhibits iridescence )meaning sparkle). A flushed (meaning reddened) face shows ruddiness (red color)

Sentence Completion
1. After the First World War, a large decrease in Mexican immigrants to the united States occurred because the wartime _______ of immigration restrictions was _______.
A) waiver…. rescinded
B) enactment… overturned
C) abolition …. endorsed
D) repeal …. guaranteed
E) execution …. relaxed
Explanation: (A) The first part of the sentence says that, after the First World War, the Mexican immigration to United States decreased sharply. So, the two missing words should together mean that the immigration restrictions had been relaxed during the War, and had become stricter after the War. So, during wartime, there must have been a 'waiver' or 'abolition' or 'repeal' of immigration restriction. If such wartime abolition had been endorsed after the war, or such war-time repeal had been guaranteed after the war, the rate of immigration would not have come down after the war. So, (C) and (D) are also wrong. (A) is the correct answer because, if war-time waiver of immigration restrictions had been rescinded (or withdrawn) after the war, the rate of immigration would naturally have come down in the post-war period.

2. The job allowed no relaxation, but Jackson enjoyed _______ and welcomed the challenge of dealing with the variety of problems that came across her desk everyday.
A) leisure
B) monotony
C) pressure
D) privacy
E) inertia
Explanation: (C) if Jackson's job allowed no relaxation, and posed the challenge of dealing with a variety of problems day after day, it could not have resulted in leisure, monotony, privacy or inertia for her. It could only have resulted in pressure of her time and mind. So, (C) is the answer.

3. Scientists are studying the birth and growth of thunderstorms to discover what causes the difference between showers that enable crops to _______ and _______ storms that cause floods and erosion.
A) flourish…. violent
B) wither…. damaging
C) grow…. harmless
D) parch …. severe
E) multiply…. essential
Explanation: (A) Obviously, storms that cause floods and erosion cannot be described as harmless or essential So, (C) and (E) can be easily eliminated. Since showers do not enable crops to wither or parch, (B) and (D) can also be eliminated. It is pair of words 'flourish… violent' that gives a cogent meaning to the sentence, and so, (A) is the answer.

4. The ballet stage is a bright, seemingly weightless world where gravity is continually being _______ by the dancers.
A) prolonged
B) reapportioned
C) unbalanced
D) reflected
E) defied
Explanation: (E) The clue to the answer is in the phrase 'seemingly weightless world. If the dancers seem to create a weightless world, what do they do the the pervasive gravity? Among the choices. "they defy it" is the only possible answer. So, (E) is the answer.
 

kartik

Kartik Raichura
Staff member
gre prep 6

AWA - Issue
"Students should bring a certain skepticism to whatever they study. They should question what they are taught instead of accepting it passively."

The unquestioned role of a student is to learn as much as possible through whatever means it takes to ingrain that knowledge in the individual student. Teachers and professors are human beings and are therefore not perfect. No one knows the correct answer to every question even when you limit the questions to a certain field of study. Having a certain skepticism about what they are being taught can help students to make the teachers and professors even better by clarifying correct answers or correcting mistakes and misinformation.

Students certainly have a huge role in their own abilities to learn. Teaching faculty should act more as guides along the way rather than trying to force each student to learn whatever it is that they are studying. The best teachers in the world cannot teach an unmotivated student. If the teacher, for whatever reason, cannot motivate the student, then the student must somehow find a way to motivate him or herself. One method of doing this is by become an active rather than a passive student. The more the student involves him or herself in the act of studying, the better he or she can learn. One of the best ways to become more active is simply to ask the teacher or professor questions. Students who passively sit in a classroom and take everything that the teacher says for granted are not fully using their mental capacities to learn. Better education comes from teachers who are able to get their students to think about a subject rather than merely absorb a certain amount of information. Having a healthy skepticism can improve a student's ability to both think and absorb knowledge in a learning situation.

Students should practice a certain amount of skepticism in the classroom as a means of fostering better communication between the teacher and the students. To sit passively receiving and digesting information from a teacher or professor would be to assume that everything that the teacher says is absolutely correct. Teachers are human beings and no one is one hundred percent right all of the time, even in a classroom situation. No professor or teacher is infallible. Perhaps a teacher would simply unconsciously say the wrong word or pass on some misinformation that the teacher truly believed was correct. Simply asking a question by the student could prevent an entire classroom from becoming confused or misinformed.

In my own education, I have had at least two experiences that showed me the value of being somewhat of a skeptic at times in a classroom situation. In my younger years, a grade school teacher told the class that it was wrong for people of different races to intermarry because the children would grow up confused about their "real" identity. Although it seemed wrong at the time, because I was so young and impressionable, I thought that the teacher must be right because he was the teacher. Looking back now, I realize just how wrong he was and that a healthy skepticism even at a young age can be a valuable tool in education. In another example of the value of questioning a teacher, we had an inexperienced first-time teacher teaching our second language class. Although she tried very hard, it became obvious that she was making many mistakes. I began asking questions (in a helpful manner) and found out that the book that she was using was full of mistakes. She appreciated the feedback and we all had a better learning experience by watching for mistakes from the book. Without a little skepticism, we would have been pronouncing and using many words incorrectly.

There is of course a fine balance between a student having a healthy skepticism and just being a downright cynic. But with the proper attitude toward learning and a little skepticism, both the student and the professors or teacher can improve upon the learning process and maximize learning efficiency.
 

kartik

Kartik Raichura
Staff member
gre prep 7

Reading Comprehension
The discoveries of the white dwarf, the neutron star, and the black hole, coming well after the discovery of the red giant are among eh most exciting developments in decades because they may be well present physicists with their greatest challenge since thefailure of classical mechanics. In the life cycle of the star, after all of the hydrogen and helium fuel has been burned, the delicate balance between the outer nuclear radiation. pressure and the stable gravitational force becomes disturbed and slow contraction begins. As compression increases, a very dense plasma forms. If the initial star had mass of less than 1.4 solar masses (1.4 times the mass of our sun), the process ceases at the density of 1,000 tons per cubic inch, and the star becomes the white dwarf. However, if the star was originally more massive, the white dwarf plasma can’t resist the gravitations pressures, and in rapid collapse, all nuclei of the star are converted to a gas of free neutrons. Gravitational attraction compresses this neutron gas rapidly until a density of 10 tons per cubic inch is reached; at this point the strong nuclear force resists further contraction. If the mass of the star was between 1.4 and a few solar masses, the process stops here, and we have a neutron star.
But if the original star was more massive than a few solar masses, even the strong nuclear forces.cannot resist the gravitational orunch. The neutrons are forced into one another to form heavier hadrons and these in turn coalesce to form heavier entities, of which we as yet know nothing. At this point, a complete collapse of the stellar mass occurs; existing theories predict a collapse to infinite density and infinitely small dimensions Well before this, however, the surface gravitational force would become so strong that no signal could ever leave the star any photon emitted would fall back under gravitational attraction - and the star would become black hole in space.
This gravitational collapse poses a fundamental challenge to physics. When the most widely.accepted theories predict such improbable things as infinite density and infinitely small dimensions, it simply means that we are missing some vital insight. This last happened in physics in the 1930’s, when we faced the fundamental paradox concerning atomic structure. At that time, it was recognized that electrons moved in table orbits about nuclei in atoms. However, it was also recognized that if charge is accelerated, as it must be to remain in orbit, it radiates energy;so, theoretically, the electron would be expected eventually to spiral into the nucleus and destroy the atom. Studies centered around this paradox led to the development of quantum mechanics. It may well be that an equivalent t advance awaits us in investigating the theoretical problems presented by the phenomenon of gravitational collapse.

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to

A) offer new explanations for the collapse of stars.
B) explain the origins of black holes, neutron stars, and white dwarfs.
C) compare the structure of atoms with the structure of the solar system.
D) explain how the collapse of stars challenges accepted theories of physics.
E) describe the imbalance between radiation pressure and gravitational force.

Explanation: The best answer is D. The central idea of the passage is that the final possible stage in the gravitational collapse of a star, a black hole, produces a state of affairs in which “widely accepted theories predict… improbable things” (lines 44-45). This situation, the author points out, “may well present physicists with their greatest challenge” since the failure of classical physics (lines 5-6) and “poses a fundamental challenge to physics” (lines 43-44). The idea of challenge is reinforced by the analogy drawn between this situation in physics and the atomic structure paradox is to explain the process of gravitational collapse and to suggest how this challenges accepted theories in physics.

2. According to the passage, in the final stages of its devedlopment our own sun is likely to take the form of a

A) white dwarf
B) neutron star
C) red giant
D) gas of free neutrons
E) black hole

Explanation: The best answer is A because lines 12-16 indicates that all stars with a mass less than 1.4 times the mass of our sun will collapse into white dwarfs. As our sun fits this condition, it must eventually collapse into a white dwarf.

3. According to the passage, an imbalance arises between nuclear radiation pressure and gravitational force in stars because

A) the density of a star increases as it ages
B) radiation pressure increases as a star increases in mass
C) radiation pressure decreases when a star’s fuel has been consumed
D) the collapse of a star increases its gravitational force.
E) a dense plasma decreases the star’s gravitational force.

Explanation: The best answer is C because lines 7-11 indicate that a disturbance in the balance between outward nuclear radiation and stable inward gravitational force occurs” after all of the hydrogen and helium fuel has been burned. “Since “slow contraction begins” after the fuel is consumed, and since the gravitational force is stab le the imbalance must be caused by a lessening in the outward radiation pressure.

4. The author asserts that the discoveries of the white dwarf, the neutron star, and the black hole are significant because these discoveries.

A) demonstrate the probability of infinite density and infinitely small dimensions
B) pose the most comprehensive and fundamental problem faced by physicists in decades
C) clarify the paradox suggested by the collapse of electrons into atomic nuclei.
D) establish the relationship between the mass and gravitational pressure.
E) assist in establishing the age of the universe by tracing the life histories of stars.

Explanation: The best answer is B. Lines 1-6 state that the discoveries of the white dwarf, the neutron star and the black hole are among the most exciting developments in recent physics and “may well present physicists with their greatest challenge since the failure of classical mechanics. “This :challenge” is explained in the rest of the passage, where it is described as “fundamental” (line 43(, as being of a magnitude that was last seen in physics “in the1930’s (lines 48-49), and as conceivably leading to an advance the equivalent of the development of quantum mechanics (lines 57-61). Thus the author considers the discoveries significant because they pose problems of a magnitude that physics has not seen since the 1930’s.
 

kartik

Kartik Raichura
Staff member
gre prep 8

Quantitative - Problem Solving
Problem - 1:
There are 2 brothers among a group of 20 persons. In how many ways can the group be arranged around a circle so that there is exactly one person between the two brothers?
(A) 2 * 19!
(B) 18! * 18
(C) 19! * 18
(D) 2 * 18!
(E) 3 * 16!

Solution:
Correct Answer - (D)

18 people can be arranged around a circle in 17! ways. There are exactly 18 places where the two brothers can be arranged. The brothers can be arranged in 2! ways.

Therefore, the total number of ways 17! * 2 * 18 = 2 * 18!.
8% of Test takers answered this question correctly


Problem - 2:
The average age of a board of 10 advisors of a company is the same as it was 3 years back on account of the replacement of one of the older advisors by a younger man. How much younger was the new man than the director whom he replaced?
(A) 3 years
(B) 15 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 24 years
(E) 18 years
Solution:
Correct Answer - (C)

Let the average age of board of advisors before the replacement of the older advisor be ‘a’ years.
Therefore, the sum of the ages of the advisors on the board = 10a.

The average age of the board of advisors three years earlier = ‘a - 3'
Therefore, the sum of the ages of the advisors on the board = 10( a - 3) = 10 a - 30

When the older advisor was replaced with a younger man, the average age was the same as what it was three years earlier.

Therefore, by replacing the older advisor by a new younger man, the sum of the ages has reduced from 10 a to (10a - 30).

Hence, the younger man was 30 years younger to the older advisor who was being replaced on the board.

38% of Test takers answered this question correctly


Problem - 3:
What is the probability that a two digit number selected at random will be a multiple of '3' and not a multiple of '5'?
(A) 2 / 15
(B) 4 / 15
(C) 1 / 15
(D) 4 / 90
(E) 6 / 15
Solution:
Correct Answer - (B)

There are a total of 90 two digit numbers. Every third number will be divisible by '3'. Therefore, there are 30 of those numbers that are divisible by '3'.

Of these 30 numbers, the numbers that are divisible by '5' are those that are multiples of '15'. i.e. numbers that are divisible by both '3' and '5'. There are 6 such numbers -- 15, 30, 45, 60, 75 and 90.

We need to find out numbers that are divisible by '3' and not by '5', which will be 30 - 6 = 24.

24 out of the 90 numbers are divisible by '3' and not by '5'.

The required probability is therefore, 24/90 = 4/15
14% of Test takers answered this question correctly
 

kartik

Kartik Raichura
Staff member
gre prep 9

Analogies 1. BLUEPRINT : BUILDING ::
A) trunk : tree
B) skin : hand
C) watch : time
D) photograph : camera
E) pattern : dress
Explanation: (E) A building is constructed based on a blueprint. A dress is stitched based on a design.


2. DECISION : JUDGE ::
A) decision : jury
B) verdict : defendant
C) examination : teacher
D) diagnosis : doctor
E) election : candidate
Explanation: (D) A judge arrives at his decision based on evidence. A doctor arrives at his diagnosis based on symptoms.


3. ALUMINUM: METAL ::
A) alloy : element
B) steel : tin
C) hydrogen : water
D) oxygen : gas
E) diamond : rind
Explanation: (D) Aluminum is a metal. Oxygen is a gas.

4. REHEARSAL : PLAY ::
A) draft : essay
B) manual : process
C) applause : performance
D) recital : concert
E) journal : news
Explanation: (A) A rehearsal is performed prior to the public staging of play. A draft is written prior to the publication of an essay.

5. TALON : HAWK ::
A) horn : bull
B) fang : snake
C) claw : tiger
D) tail : monkey
E) shell : tortoise
Explanation: (C) The nail of a hawk is its talon. The nail of a tiger is its claw.

Sentence Completion
1. A dictatorship _______ its citizens to be docile and find it expedient to make outcasts of those who do not _______.
A) forces…. rebel
B) expects…. disobey
C) requires… conform
D) allows…. withdraw
E) forbids…. Agree

Explanation: (C) It is not appropriate to say that a dictatorship allows or forbids its citizens to be docile. So, (D) and (E) are first ruled out. It is absurd to say that a dictatorship makes outcasts of those who do not rebel or disobey. So, (A) and (B) are also ruled out. (C) is what completes a logical sentence, and is the answer.
2. Granted that Mc. Murphy was frequently _______, it is still hared to believe in him as a profound political or economic thinker.
A) arbitrary
B) taciturn
C) perfunctory
D) perceptive
E) intemperate
Explanation: (D) The word 'granted' in the sentence means 'although'. There is therefore a contradiction of ideas inherent in the sentence. If McMurphy was arbitrary, or taciturn (meaning silent), or perfunctory (meaning superficial) or intemperate (meaning quick to get angry), the occasion would not even have arisen to judge him as a profound political or economic thinker. So, (A), (B) (C) and (E) are wrong. If he was frequently perceptive (meaning exhibiting keen knowledge), he should normally be considered to be a profound thinker. But the use of the conjunction 'although' in the sentence indicates that the author, for some reason, finds it difficult to believe that he could have been profound thinker. So, the word 'perceptive' brings out the contradiction within the sentence, rendering (D) as the answer.

3. Are we to become mere _______, watching the panorama without personal involvement, our senses dulled, our capacity to _______ undeveloped?
A) captives…. submit
B) imitators…. observe
C) bystanders…. act
D) entertainers…. relax
E) disciples…. Assist
Explanation: (C) Persons who merely watch a panorama without any personal involvement cannot be called captives, or imitators or entertainers, or disciples, but can be called 'bystanders'. Thus, even the consideration of the choices for the first missing word leaves us with only one possible choice (C). The second word in this choice 'act also fits well in the sentence to give it a logical meaning.

4. Although laboratory scientists often find themselves performing routine functions, their training should indicate to them ways in which their knowledge can be applied in _______ manner.
A) an overt
B) a practical
C) an original
D) a professional
E) a systematic
Explanation: (C) The use of conjunction 'although' indicates that there is a contrast of ideas within the sentence. The missing phrase must therefore mean something which is the opposite of 'routine' or 'usual'/ 'An original' which, this context, means 'an innovative' or 'an unusual' is the only phrase among the choices which is the opposite of 'routine', and is the answer.
 

kartik

Kartik Raichura
Staff member
Gre prep 10

AWA - Argument
The following recommendation was made by the president and administrative staff of Grove College, a private institution, to the college's governing committee.
"We recommend that Grove College preserve its century-old tradition of all-female education rather than admit men into its programs. It is true that a majority of faculty members voted in favor of coeducation, arguing that it would encourage more students to apply to Grove. But eighty percent of the students responding to a survey conducted by the student government wanted the school to remain all female, and over half of the alumni who answered a separate survey also opposed coeducation. Keeping the college all-female, therefore, will improve morale among students and convince alumni to keep supporting the college financially."


This argument discusses the proposition whether a century-old, all-female college should change its admissions policy and allow men to enter into its programs. Although a majority of the faculty members voted in favor of the change for coeducation, the president and administrative staff note that eighty percent of the students that responded to a survey conducted by the student government wanted the school to remain all female as did over half of the alumni who answered a separate survey. The arguers then state that keeping the college all female will therefore improve morale among students and convince the alumni to continue supporting the college financially. This argument is unconvincing due to several critical flaws.

First of all, the main support that the president and administrative staff rely on is the two surveys conducted by the student government of the current students and alumni. It is possible that the survey itself was flawed, perhaps asking leading questions that subliminally led the respondents to answer in favor of keeping the current all female admissions policy. However, even assuming that the survey was neutrally worded, it remains problematic to rely on it as evidence that there is widespread support for continuing as an all-female college. Firstly, the people that actually take the time to respond to surveys usually have a strong opinion one way or the other. In this case, it is likely that those that feel that the tradition of the school is being threatened by the possibility of admitting men to the college are the ones who would respond to the survey. Those that have a neutral opinion, or that would actually like to see the college opened to men, may not have a strong enough opinion to take the time to respond to the survey. The total number of surveys conducted by the student government is not mentioned in the argument. It is possible that very few people actually responded to the survey, which would indicate that most students actually don't care one way or the other. Similarly, with the alumni survey, the arguers only mention those who answered the survey, but don't mention how many total surveys there were or how many people did not answer the survey. For these reasons, the argument is not well supported by the surveys.

Secondly, by surveying only current students and alumni, the pool of those sampled is limited to those who previously accepted the all-female admissions policy of the school and thus are much more likely to support its continuance. Current students and alumni applied to and attended the school with its current policy in place, thereby prejudicing their own opinions as to what is best for the school. Additionally, with the survey limited to only current students and alumni, the student government did not poll those whose opinion matters the most - potential students. A college cannot survive based on its past successes - it is the future that will determine the long-term viability of the college and potential students are the most important part of that future. It is much more important to determine how many students would attend the college if the policy were changed. Furthermore, the arguers ignore the opinion of a vital part of the college, that of the majority of its faculty members who probably have a better overall view of the situation than students or alumni.

Finally, there is no evidence presented to show that keeping the college all female will improve morale among the students or keep the alumni donations coming in. This statement has no causal relationship demonstrated in the argument, whether the results of the survey are accurate or not. Had the question been asked in the survey- whether keeping the admissions policy the same would improve students' morale and keep alumni financial support intact - there may have at least been some basis for this statement, but without it the statement is groundless.

In summary, the argument is based on only two surveys of a limited sample of people with a built-in bias towards keeping the status quo. Without further evidence and a more fairly distributed survey, the argument ultimately fails to deliver on its premise.
 

kartik

Kartik Raichura
Staff member
Gre Prep 11

Reading Comprehension
At the time Jane Austen’s novels were published - between 1811 and 1818 - English literature was not part of any academic curriculum. In addition, fiction was under strenuous attack.Certain religious and political groups felt novels had the power to make so called immoral characters so interesting young readers would identify with them; these groups also considered novels to be of little practical use. Even Coleridge, certainly no literary reactionary, spoke for many when he asserted that “novel-reading occasions the destruction of the mind’s power”.These attitudes towards novels help explain why Ausjten received little attention from early nineteenth century literary critics. (In any case, a novelist published anonymously, as Austin was, would not be likely to receive much critical attention). The literary response that was accorded her, however, was often as incisive as twentieth century criticism. In his attack in 1816 on novelistic portrayals “outside of ordinary experience, “ for example, Scott made an insightful remarks about the merits of Austen;’s fiction. Her novels, wrote Scott, “present to the reader an accurate and exact.picture of ordinary everyday people and places, reminiscent of seventeenth -century Flemish painting. “ Scott did not use the word “realistic probability in judging novels. The critic whitely did not use the word realism either, but he expressed agreement with Scott’s evaluation, and went on to suggest the possibilities for moral instruction in what we have called Austen’s realistic method. Her characters, wrote whitely,are persuasive agents for moral truth since they are ordinary persons “so clearly evoked that was feel an interest in their fate as if it were our own” Moral instruction, explained Whitely, is more likely to be effective when conveyed through recognizably human and interesting characters then when imparted by a sermonizing narrator. Whately especially praised Austen’s ability to create characters who “mingle goodness and villainy, weakness and virtue, as in life they are always mingled. “Whately concluded his remarks by comparing Austen’s art of characterization to Sicken’s, stating his preference for Austin’s.often anticipated the reservations of twentieth-century critics. An example of such a response was Lewes’ complaint in 1859 that Austen’s range of subjects and characters was too narrow. Praising her verisimilitude, Lewes added that nonetheless her focus was too often upon only the unlofty and the common place. (Twentieth-century Marxists, on the other hand, were to complain about what they saw as her exclusive emphasis on a lofty upper-middle class) in any case, having been rescued by some literary critics from neglect and indeed gradually lionized by them, Austen’s steadily reached, by the mid-nineteenth century, the enviable pinnacle of being considered controversial.

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to

A) demonstrate the nineteenth-century preference for realistic novels rather than romantic ones.
B) Explain why Jane Austen’s novels were not included in any academic curriculum in the early nineteenth century
C) Urge a reassessment of Jane Austen’s novels by twentieth-century literary critics
D) Describe some of the responses of nineteenth - century critics tol Jane Austen’s novels as well as to fiction in general
E) Argue that realistic character portrayal is the novelist’s most difficult task as well as the aspect of novel most likely to elicit critical response.

Explanation: The best answer is D. When asked to identify the primary purpose of a passage, you must select the answer choice that states what the passage, as a whole, achieves. Choice D correctly identifies the passage as descriptive and goes on to accurately state the board categories of things described. The passage does not contrast realistic and romantic novels, as choice A suggests. Austen’s absence from academic curricula is mentioned only to support a larger point; thus, choice B is incorrect. Choice C is incorrect because the passage judges twentieth-century assessments satisfactory, leaving no reason to urge reassessment. Nothing is mentioned about the relative difficulty of realistic character portrayal or its tendency to attract more criticism than other aspects of novels; thus choice E can be eliminated.

2. The passage supplies information for answering which of the following questions?

A) Ws Whately aware of Scott’s remarks about Jane Austen’s novels?
B) Who is an example of a twentieth-century Marxist critic?
C) Who is an example of twentieth-century critic who admired Jane Aujsten’s novels?
D) What is the author’s judgment of Dickens?
E) Did Jane Austen’s express her opinion of those nineteenth-century critics who admired her novels.

Explanation: The best answer is A. In order to answer this questions, you should work through each of the choices, checking whether of not the passage supplies enough information to answer the question posed in the choice. Lines 30-31 tell us that Whately “expressed agreement with Scott’s evaluation” of Austen’s fictions; in order to agree, Whately must have been aware of Scott’s remarks. Thus, an, answer to the question posed in choice A is provided. Although the passage mentioned Marxists, none is specifically named, thus choice B can be eliminated. The same reasoning eliminate choice C. Choice D can be eliminated because, while Whately’s opinion is mentioned, the author own is not. Choice E can be eliminated because the passage nowhere indicates that Austen was ever aware of Criticism of her work.

3. The authors mentions that English literature “was” not part of any academic curriculum “ (line3) in the early nineteenth century in order to

A) emphasize the need for Jane Austen to increate ordinary, everyday character in her novels.
B) give support to those religious and political groups that had attacked fiction
C) give one reason why Jane Austen’s novels received little critical attention in the early nineteenth century.
D) Suggest the superiority of an informal and unsystematized approach to the study of literature
E) contrast nineteenth-century attitudes towards English literature with those towards classical literature

Explanation: The best answer is C. This question asks you to identify a reason for the author’s selection of a particular supporting detail in the passage. You can approach this question by first rereading the part of the passage cited. Then, determine the reason for the author’s selection and pick the answer choice that most nearly states what you consider the reason. Lines 13-15 are a straightforward indication of the author’s reason for mentioning the absence of English literature in academic curricula: it is one indication of attitude…. (that) help explain” why Austen was, neglected by critics around the time her fiction was published. Choice C is very nearly a restatement of that idea.

4. The passage supplies information to suggest that the religious and political groups mentioned in lines 5-9 and Whately might have agreed that a novel

A) has little practical use
B) has the ability to influence the moral values of its readers
C) is of most interest to readers when representing ordinary human characters.
D) should not be read by young readers.
E) Needs the sermonizing of a narrator in order to impart moral truths

Explanation: The best answer is B. This question requires you to start with a proposition not stated in the passage, i.e. that Whately and the groups mentioned share an opinion. The answer choices present possible opinions. Using the information given in the passage, you must determines which of the possible opinions could have been held in common. The passage indicates that the religious and political groups feared that readers would identify with immoral characters. It suggests that Whately thought that novels could be vehicles of moral instruction. Although they disagree about the value of such influence, they agree that novels can influence moral behavior. The other choices opinions that one or the other, but not both, holds (choices A, C, D), or an opinion that cannot be attributed to either (choice E).
 

kartik

Kartik Raichura
Staff member
Gre Prep 12

Quantitative - Problem Solving
Problem - 1:
Two squares are chosen at random on a chessboard. What is the probability that they have a side in common?
(A) 1 / 18
(B) 64 / 4032
(C) 63 / 64
(D) 1 / 9
(E) 3 / 8

Solution:
Correct Answer - (A)

The number of ways of choosing the first square is 64. The number of ways of choosing the second square is 63. There are a total of 64 * 63 = 4032 ways of choosing two squares.

If the first square happens to be any of the four corner ones, the second square can be chosen in 2 ways. If the first square happens to be any of the 24 squares on the side of the chess board, the second square can be chosen in 3 ways. If the first square happens to be any of the 36 remaining squares, the second square can be chosen in 4 ways.
Hence the desired number of combinations = (4 * 2) + (24 * 3) + (36 * 4) = 224.
Therefore, the required probability = 224/4032 = 1/18

36% of Test takers answered this question correctly


Problem - 2:
The sum of the second and the fifth term of an arithmetic progression is 8 and that of the third and the seventh term is 14. What is the first term of the progression?
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) -3
(D) -1
(E) -2
Solution:
Correct Answer - (D)

Let the second term be a2 and the let the fifth term be a5.
Therefore, a2 + a5 = 8
But a2 = a1 + (2 – 1)d = a1 + d , where a1 is the first term and d is the common difference
Similarly, a5 = a1 + (5 – 1)d = a1 + 4d.
Hence a2 + a5 = a1 + d + a1 + 4d = 2a1 + 5d = 8 – (1)

The sum of the third term and the seventh term = a3 + a7 = 14
a3 = a1 + 2d and a7 = a1 + 6d.
Hence, a3 + a7 = a1 + 2d + a1 + 6d = 2a1 + 8d = 14 ---- (2)

Eqn (2) – Eqn (1) gives

3d = 6 or d = 2
Substituting this in eqn (1), we get 2a1 + 5*2 = 8
Or 2a1 = -2 or a1 = -1.
40% of Test takers answered this question correctly


Problem - 3:
A regular hexagon is inscribed in a circle of radius r cms. What is the perimeter of the regular hexagon?
(A) 3r
(B) 6r
(C) 12r
(D) 9r
(E) 8r
Solution:
Correct Answer - (B)

A regular hexagon comprises 6 equilateral triangles, each of them having one of their vertices at the center of the hexagon. The sides of the equilateral triangle are equal to the radius of the smallest circle inscribing the hexagon. Hence, each of the side of the hexagon is equal to the radius of the hexagon and the perimeter of the hexagon is 6r.

53% of Test takers answered this question correctly

 

kartik

Kartik Raichura
Staff member
Gre prep 13

  • Analogies
    1. APOLOGY: RUEFULL
    A) confession : inquisitive
    B) request : grateful
    C) recommendation : censorious
    D) boast : proud
    E) taunt : timid
    Explanation: (D) A person who is rueful (meaning repentant), apologizes. A person who is proud, boasts.


    2. DEFECTOR : CAUSE ::
    A) counterfeiter : money
    B) deserter : army
    C) critic : book
    D) advertiser : sale
    E) intruder : meeting
    Explanation: (B) A defector abandons his cause. A deserter abandons his army.


    3. STUPEFACTION : ALER
    A) vexation : curious
    B) contention : grave
    C) perplexity : courteous
    D) apprehension : optimistic
    E) enlightenment : wise
    Explanation: (D) (Stupefaction means being stunned). A person affected by stupefaction is not alert. A person with apprehension (meaning doubt) is not optimistic (meaning hopeful).

    4. CUPIDITY : WEALTH ::
    A) affection : passion
    B) intelligence : wit
    C) mourning : death
    D) gluttony : food
    E) audacity : fear
    Explanation: (D) Cupidity means greed for wealth Gluttony means greed for food.

    5. TACIT : WORDS ::
    A) visible : scenes
    B) inevitable : facts
    C) colorful : hues
    D) suspicious : clues
    E) unanimous : disagreements
    Explanation: (E) "Tacit" indicates the absence of words. 'Unanimous' indicates the absence of disagreement.

    Sentence Completion
    1. Because the situation called for immediate action, I _______ my natural inclination to consider the issue with _______ before making a decision.
    A) controlled…. improvidence
    B) followed…. circumspection
    C) repudiated…. expediency
    D) resisted…. deliberation
    E) accepted…. Imprudence
    Explanation: (D) the use of the conjunction 'because' implies that the second part of the sentence corroborates what is stated in the firs part. If the natural inclination of the author is to take prompt action in any situation, be would have followed such inclination in this case also. If the author's natural inclination is to postpone taking action, the present situation world have forced him to resist such inclination, and take prompt action. It is the pair of words in (D_ which represents the latter situation, and is the answer.
    2. In the nineteenth century many critics saw themselves as stern, authoritarian figures defending society against the _______ of those _______ being called authors.
    A) depravities…. wayward
    B) atrocities…. exemplary
    C) merits…. ineffectual
    D) kudos…. antagonistic
    E) indictments…. reticent
    Explanation: (A) There was no need for literary critics to defend society against the merits or kudos (meaning praise) or authors. So, (C) and (D) can be rejected even while considering the suitability of the choices for the first missing word. Similarly, there was no need for literary critics to defend society against exemplary (meaning model) or reticent (meaning reserved) authors. Thus choices (B) and (E0 can be rejected while considering the suitability of the choices for the second missing word. The pair of words in (A) competes a meaningful sentence, and is the answer.

    3. Because he felt intimidated in his new position, he was _______ divulging his frank opinions of company proposals.
    A) scurrilous about
    B) candid in
    C) chary of
    D) fervid about
    E) precipitate in
    Explanation: (C) The conjunction 'because' in the sentence indicates that the second part of the sentence corroborates what is states in the first part. If a person felt intimidated, what would he do with his opinions if they went against the proposals of the superiors in the company? He would keep them to himself, being afraid of expressing them openly. "Chary or" is the phrase tht conveys this meaning, and is the answer.

    4. American pioneers moved west with tremendous hope, but often only _______ awaited them, given the _______ realities of the new land.
    A) excitement…. bleak
    B) disillusionment…. harsh
    C) success…. strenuous
    D) surprise…. golden
    E) failure…. Abundant
    Explanation: (B) The use of the conjunction "but" implies the presence of a contradiction within the sentence. The first part says that the pioneers went with tremendous hope. So, in order to bring out the contradiction, the second part must state that this hope did not materialize. So, "excitement" (A) and "success" (C) are not the appropriate choices for the first missing word. The word "given" in this sentence means "because of". If the realities of the New World were "golden" or "abundant", there is no reason why the hopes of the pioneers would have been dashed. So, (D) and (E) can also be eliminated. The pair of words in (B) complete a logical sentence So, (B) is the answer
 

kartik

Kartik Raichura
Staff member
gre prep 14

AWA - Issue
"Both parents and communities must be involved in the local schools. Education is too important to leave solely to a group of professional educators."

Local schools are an integral part of a society and of each individual community. Much of what happens in a community is directly tied in to the local schools, whether the members of that community's children are of school age or not. The quality of the local schools also depends a great deal on the community. If the schools are well supported, they generally will be good quality schools. If the community ignores or contributes to the school's problems, the schools and students may not perform to the best of their abilities. Without the involvement of parents and the surrounding communities, professional educators cannot do their jobs properly. Additionally, the involvement of the parents ensures that educators will keep the school children as their first priority, rather than focusing on maximizing personal profits through teachers unions and the like.

Traditionally in years past, the parents and communities cooperated to set up schools to serve all the children in a particular location. As the United States has become larger, local, state and federal governments have become further involved, thus lessening the responsibilities of the parents with regards to the schools. Parents cannot and should not abdicate all of their responsibilities to the various governmental bodies, however. It remains incumbent upon the parents and communities to remain involved in as many aspects of the local schools as they can.

First of all, the most fundamental responsibility of the parents is that they must ensure that their own children are properly dressed, on time and actually behaving themselves in the classrooms. Professional educators cannot properly teach children that don't know how to behave while at school. Other children are distracted or maybe even misled to misbehave themselves by children who are chronically disruptive. Parents must control their own children and not leave the job of child behavioral training to the teachers at school.

Secondly, parents and communities must make sure that they contribute financially to their local schools, and not only by the mandatory payment of taxes to the government. School groups are always trying to raise money for some beneficial school projects. It is important that parents do not turn their backs when school children come door to door asking for money, even when (and maybe especially when) it is not their own children who are asking for help.

Furthermore, parents have more than just a financial responsibility to the local schools, they also have an obligation to give generously of their time whenever possible. Attending their own child's sports games and recitals are certainly important. Volunteering to coach, referee or to help organize activities for the school children are also extremely important. Local schools seem to never have enough help to accomplish all that needs to be done or to accomplish all that should be done. Just ask any teacher or professional educator, they can probably find a place for any volunteer that desires to help.

Finally, parents and communities must be involved with local schools just to be sure that the professional educators are indeed "professional" and are giving the children the proper educational basics that they need. Direct and continuous communications with a teacher or principal can sometimes give parents all the information that they need to decide whether he or she is properly fit for the job. Powerful teachers unions have developed over the years that sometimes tend to put the teachers first and the priorities of the children second. By staying involved with the local schools, parents and the communities can show the educators that they are committed to the children and the schools, and that they should always remember whom the schools were built for in the first place.

The success or failure of a local school depends almost entirely on the involvement of parents and the local community. The parents and others in these communities must be willing to make sure that their own children are properly behaved, that they support the school both financially and with their time, and that the professional educators always put the well-being of the children as the number one priority.

 

kartik

Kartik Raichura
Staff member
Gre prep 15

Reading Comprehension
At the time Jane Austen’s novels were published - between 1811 and 1818 - English literature was not part of any academic curriculum. In addition, fiction was under strenuous attack.Certain religious and political groups felt novels had the power to make so called immoral characters so interesting young readers would identify with them; these groups also considered novels to be of little practical use. Even Coleridge, certainly no literary reactionary, spoke for many when he asserted that “novel-reading occasions the destruction of the mind’s power”.These attitudes towards novels help explain why Ausjten received little attention from early nineteenth century literary critics. (In any case, a novelist published anonymously, as Austin was, would not be likely to receive much critical attention). The literary response that was accorded her, however, was often as incisive as twentieth century criticism. In his attack in 1816 on novelistic portrayals “outside of ordinary experience, “ for example, Scott made an insightful remarks about the merits of Austen;’s fiction. Her novels, wrote Scott, “present to the reader an accurate and exact.picture of ordinary everyday people and places, reminiscent of seventeenth -century Flemish painting. “ Scott did not use the word “realistic probability in judging novels. The critic whitely did not use the word realism either, but he expressed agreement with Scott’s evaluation, and went on to suggest the possibilities for moral instruction in what we have called Austen’s realistic method. Her characters, wrote whitely,are persuasive agents for moral truth since they are ordinary persons “so clearly evoked that was feel an interest in their fate as if it were our own” Moral instruction, explained Whitely, is more likely to be effective when conveyed through recognizably human and interesting characters then when imparted by a sermonizing narrator. Whately especially praised Austen’s ability to create characters who “mingle goodness and villainy, weakness and virtue, as in life they are always mingled. “Whately concluded his remarks by comparing Austen’s art of characterization to Sicken’s, stating his preference for Austin’s.often anticipated the reservations of twentieth-century critics. An example of such a response was Lewes’ complaint in 1859 that Austen’s range of subjects and characters was too narrow. Praising her verisimilitude, Lewes added that nonetheless her focus was too often upon only the unlofty and the common place. (Twentieth-century Marxists, on the other hand, were to complain about what they saw as her exclusive emphasis on a lofty upper-middle class) in any case, having been rescued by some literary critics from neglect and indeed gradually lionized by them, Austen’s steadily reached, by the mid-nineteenth century, the enviable pinnacle of being considered controversial.

1. The author quotes Coleridge in order to

A) refute the literary opinions of certain religious and political groups
B) make a case for the inferiority of novels to poetry
C) give an example of a writer who was not a literary reactionary
D) illustrate the early nineteenth-century belief that fiction was especially appealing to young readers
E) indicate how widespread was the attack on novels in the early nineteenth century.

Explanation: The best answer is E. This question asks you to identify a reason for the author’s choice of a particular quotation in the passage. You can approach the question by first determining the reason and then selecting the question by first determining the reason and then selecting the answer choice that most nearly states what you consider that reason. The reference to Coleridge appears in a paragraph devoted to outlining the extent of opposition to novel-reading at the time of the publication of Austen’s fiction. The phrase “Even Coleridge, certainly no literary reactionary…” (lines 9-10) suggests that Coleridge might be expected to differ, but the quotation demonstrates that Coleridge, too, was suspicious of novels. It illustrates the point that fiction was under strenuous, and widespread, attack. Choice E is very nearly a restatement of that idea.

2. The passage suggests that twentieth century Marxists would have admired Jane Austen’s noels more if the novels, a he Marxists understood them, had

A) described the values of upper-middle class society
B) avoided moral instruction and sermonizing
C) depicted ordinary society in a more flattering light portrayed characters from more than one class of society
D) portrayed characters from more than one class of society
E) anticipated some of controversial social problems of the twentieth century.

Explanation: The best answer is D. The question requires to determine a quality that Marxists find admirable in fiction, but that is missing from Austen’s fiction. You should first look for the specific reference to Marxists. Passage indicates that Marxists criticize Austen’s fiction for its exclusive focus on the upper-middle class. This suggests that a Marxists criterion for judging novels involves the degree to which a novel represents a variety of social classes. If Austen’s novels had portrayed characters from more than one class of society, as choice D states, it can be inferred that Marxists would value them more Highly. Choice A is Incorrect, because it states precisely what the Marxists object to. There is no information to support any of the remaining choices.

3. It can be inferred from the passage that Whately found Dickens character to be

A) especially interest to you readers
B) ordinary persons in recognizably human situations
C) less liable than Jane Aujten’s characters to have a realistic mixture of moral qualities
D) more often villainous and week than virtuous and good
E) less susceptible than Jane Austen’s characters to the m oral judgments of sermonizing narrator.

Explanation: The best answer is C. This question requires you to infer Whately’s opinion of Dicken’s characters. It is important to note that Dicken’s method of Characterization is mentioned only in contrast to Austen’s Lines 41-45 indicates that Whately particularly admired in Austen’s characters a mingling of :”goodness and villainy, weakness and virtue, as in life they are always mingled.” The passage then indicates that Whately preferred Austen’s art of characterization” to that of Dickens. Such a preference implies a significant difference between the two writers, suggesting that Dicken’s method lacks a central characteristic of Austen’s that is, poruayal of characters with realistically mixed virtues and flaws Choice C is very nearly a restatement of that idea.

4. According to the passage, the lack of critical attention paid to Jane Austen can be explained by all of the following nineteenth-century attitudes towards the novel EXCEPT the

A) assurance felt by many people that novels weakened the mind
B) certainly shared by many political commentators that the range of novels was too narrow
C) lack of interest shown by some critics in novels that were published anonymously
D) fear exhibited by some religious and political groups that novels had the power to portray immoral characters attractively
E) belief held by some religious and political groups that novels had no practical value.

Explanation: The best answer is B. this question requires you to evaluate each of the answer choices and to judge which is not mentioned in the passage as an explanation for the critical neglect. Austin suffered in the nineteenth century. Each of the answer choices, could conceivably serve as an explanation, so it is important that you carefully consider what the passage actually mentions. The explanations offered in the first paragraph of the passage are those stated in choices C is also one of the explanations cited in the passage. The passage does not suggest that concerns about the narrow range of Austen’s novels resulted in critical neglect in fact the contrary is suggested (lines 51-56). Thus B is the best choice
 

kartik

Kartik Raichura
Staff member
gre prep 16

Quantitative - Problem Solving
Problem - 1:
A 4 cm cube is cut into 1 cm cubes. What is the percentage increase in the surface area after such cutting?
(A) 4%
(B) 300%
(C) 75%
(D) 400%
(E) 50%

Solution:
Correct Answer - (B)

Volume of 4 cm cube = 64 cc. When it is cut into 1 cm cube, the volume of each of the cubes = 1cc
Hence, there will be 64 such cubes. Surface area of small cubes = 6 (12) = 6 sqcm.
Therefore, the surface area of 64 such cubes = 64 * 6 = 384 sqcm.
The surface area of the large cube = 6(42) = 6*16 = 96.
% increase = (384 - 96)/96 = 300%

62% of Test takers answered this question correctly


Problem - 2:
How many words can be formed by re-arranging the letters of the word PROBLEMS such that P and S occupy the first and last position respectively?
(A) 8! / 2!
(B) 8! - 2!
(C) 6!
(D) 8! - 2*7!
(E) 5!
Solution:
Correct Answer - (C)

As P and S should occupy the first and last position, the first and last position can be filled in only one way. The remaining 6 positions can be filled in 6! ways.

14% of Test takers answered this question correctly


Problem - 3:
How many litres of water should be added to a 30 litre mixture of milk and water containing milk and water in the ratio of 7 : 3 such that the resultant mixture has 40% water in it?
(A) 7 litres
(B) 10 litres
(C) 5 litres
(D) 8 litres
(E) None of these
Solution:
Correct Answer - (C)

30 litres of the mixture has milk and water in the ratio 7 : 3. i.e. the solution has 21 litres of milk and 9 litres of water.

When you add more water, the amount of milk in the mixture remains constant at 21 litres. In the first case, before addition of further water, 21 litres of milk accounts for 70% by volume. After water is added, the new mixture contains 60% milk and 40% water.

Therefore, the 21 litres of milk accounts for 60% by volume.

Hence, 100% volume = ( 21 / 0.6 ) = 35 litres.

We started with 30 litres and ended up with 35 litres. Therefore, 5 litres of water was added.

26% of Test takers answered this question correctly

 
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